UPSC CIVILS MAINS PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION PAPER-I

Public Administration

Paper I

Time Allowed: Three Hours                     Maximum Marks: 300
                                                                

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English.

Answers must be written U1 the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

Candidates should attempt Questions no. 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

SECTION A

1. Answer the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20x3 = 60
(a) 'A crisis of credibility' in the administrative system can be overcome only by 'reinventing government'. Comment.

(b) 'Media is a Parliament of citizens.' Explain.

(c) E-governance is the' final arrival of Max Weber's 'iron cage of rationality', Discuss,
2. (a) In the evolution of' the discipline of Public Administration, Minnowbrook Conferences I, II and III reflect the discipline's reconceptualisation and its changing values. Elucidate, 30
(b) Critically examine conflict resolution according to M.P. Follett. Explain how McGregor took forward her ideas in the context of complex organizations. 30
3. (a) Whereas Downs' model is largely dependent on a theory of psychological motivation, Niskanen's model is framed by neo-classical thinking. In the light of the above, discuss the public choice approach to decision-making.  30
(b) The Systems Approach is relevant .even today for organisational analysis. Discuss how Chester Barnard and David Easton adopted this approach in their respective areas of study. 30
4. (a) Whereas 'value for money' audit aims at economy and 'performance' audit seeks efficiency, 'social' audit goes beyond both, to examine the effectiveness of a programme or activity. Examine this statement with suitable illustrations.
         
(b) (i) Make a critical assessment of Dicey's understanding of the Rule of Law and Droit Administratif.   15

(ii) Make out a case for Delegated Legislation.  15

SECTION B

5.  Answer the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 x 3 = 60
(a) 'Budget is a series of goals with price-tags attached.' Explain.
(b) 'Policy is being made .as it is being administered arid administered as it is being made.' Comment.
(c) 'Position Classification can be problematic. A serious complaint in its practice is that it dehumanises the employee.' Discuss.
6. (a) Neither Edward Weidner nor Fred Riggs was able to describe the process of development administration adequately. Explain the drawbacks and weaknesses in their theoretical analyses. 30
(b) Indicate the milestones in the story of development from the Nehruvian Model to the Liberalisation Model. 30
7. (a) Civil Servants must be social moralists in action, living up to Paul Appleby's dictum that 'responsible government is ethical government'. Examine this statement in the light of rod governance.  30
(b) Critically examine the following statements in the field of Policy Sciences.
(i) The instrumentalist paradigm posits a conservative tendency In public policy making.  15
(ii) Dror's Optimal Model is a fusion of the economically rational model with the extra-rational model. 15
8. (a) (i) What are the main functions of an O and M office?  15
(ii) A system of Information ties planning and control by managers to the, operational system of implementation. Elaborate. 15
(b) An administrator uses the budget as a framework for communication and co-ordination, as well as for exercising administrative discipline throughout the administrative structure Explain. 30

UPSC CIVILS MAINS PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION PAPER-II

Public Administration

Paper-II

Time Allowed: Three Hours                  Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English.

Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission .Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-Book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

Candidates should attempt Question Nos. 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from, each Section.
The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Section-A

1.  Attempt the following m not more than 200 words each:  20 x 3 = 60

(a) "Over-dependence on bureaucracy for bringing about socio-economic development in India has proved to be dysfunctional." Comment.

(b) "The performance of Lok Ayuktas in various States has been uneven." Comment with examples.

(c) Explain with appropriate illustrations the interface between' political culture and bureaucratic culture in contemporary India.


2.  (a) Discuss the evolution of the role of the Prime Minister's Office (PMO) since independence. 30

(b) "Administrative reforms get diluted because of constant tinkering on the margin rather than a holistic transformation." Discuss the statement in the context of reforming district administration in India. 30

3. (a) Comment on the following statement: 30

"The Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) of India is a prosecutor with a law that hobbles. its functioning, a judge without the 'power to sentence and a litigant with no right to appeal."

(b) "Indian federalism is passing through a state of potential maturity." Discuss this statement in the context of the views of the Commission on Centre-State Relations (Justice M. M. Punchi). 30

4. (a) "The theme of Police Reforms continues to haunt the Parliament." In the light of this statement, discuss the state of Criminal Justice System administration in India.  30

(b) 'Performance Appraisal Systems' with special reference to the Performance Management and Evaluation System (PMES) are expected to transform the bureaucratic culture of Indian administration. Do you agree? Give reasons.  30

Section-B

5. Attempt the following in not more than 200 words each: 20x3=60

(a) "The real problem of administrative reforms in India at the State and the local levels is that they are imposed from above." Comment.

(b) Discuss the basic principles of 'New Localism' as a part of the global-local debate.

(c) "Absence of District Planning Committees in a large number of districts has prevented convergence of planning at the district level." Examine the above statement with examples.

6.  (a) (i) "One Lok Pal, howsoever strong I it may be, cannot eliminate corruption in the , politico- administrative system in India." Comment.  15

(ii) "Grievance redressal system is perhaps the weakest link in India's civil service management," Comment.  15

(b) "Community policing has become a victim of elite capture." Discuss the concept of community policing and bring out the implications of the above statement.  30

7. (a) Can the holding company's structure act as an institutional change to add to efficiency? Give your answer with appropriate illustrations.  30

(b) Examine the institutional  vulnerability of municipal. governance in the midst of an ‘emerging spectre of multiple partnerships.  30

8. (a) (i) Identify the different conceptual categories of disasters. 15

(ii) Write a note on the the new culture of disaster management. 15

(b) "Disaster insurance is 'desirable but not an easy proposition to implement." Illustrate with suitable examples. 30

Rural Development Programmes

S.No.	Rural Development Programme	Year of Beginning	Objective/Description
1	Community Development Programme (CDP)	1952	Over-all development of rural areas with people's participation.
2	Rural Electrification Corporation	1969	Electrification in rural areas
3	Accelerated Rural Water Supply Programme(ARWSP)	1972-73	For providing drinking water in villages
4	Crash Scheme for Rural Employment	1972-73	For rural employment
5	National Institution for Rural Development	1977	Training, investigation and advisory organization for rural development
6	National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)	1980	To provide profitable employment opportunities to the rural poor
7	Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA)	1982	To provide suitable opportunities of self-employment to the women belonging to the rural families who are living below the poverty line.
8	Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP)	1983	For providing employment to landless farmers and laborers
9	National Fund for Rural Development (NFRD)	1984	To grant 100% tax rebate to donors and also to provide financial assistance for rural development projects.
10	Council for Advancement of People's Actions and Rural Technology (CAPART)	1986	To provide assistance for rural prosperity.

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE MCQs

1. Which of the following is not an advantage of magnetic disk storage
(a) The access time of magnetic disk is much less than that of magnetic tape
(b) Disk storage is longer lasting than magnetic tape
(c) Disk storage is less expensive than tape storage
(d) None of the above
ANSWER: (d)


2. A prefix for billion which is equal to _____is called as billi.
(a) 100
(b) 10000
(c) 1000
(d) 10
ANSWER: (a)

3. One kilobyte -byte
(a) 1250
(b) 2088
(c) 1024
(d) 1000
ANSWER: (c)

4. To move the cursor to the end of the document press
(a) Ctrl + Esc
(b) Ctrl + End
(c) Ctrl + B
(d) Ctrl + c
ANSWER: (a)

5. The shortcut key to print documents is
(a) Ctrl + A
(b) Ctrl + B
(c) Ctrl + P
(d) Ctrl + C
ANSWER: (c)

6. In MICR, C stands for
(a) Code
(b) Colour
(c) Computer
(d) Character
(e) None of these
ANSWER: (d)

7. The simultaneous processing of two or more Programs by multiple processors is
(a) Multiprogramming
(b) Multitasking
(c) Time-sharing
(d) Multiprocessing
(e) None of these
ANSWER: (d)

8. First layer in the OSI reference model is
(a) Data link
(b) Network
(c) Physical
(d) Application
ANSWER: (c)

9. Viruses, Trojan horses and worms are
(a) Able to harm computer system
(b) Unable to detect if affected on computer
(c) User-friendly applications
(d) Harmless applications resident on computer
ANSWER: (a)

10. Failure of passwords security due to exposure can result from
(a) Electronic monitoring
(b) Visual
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) Light
ANSWER: (c)

11. Data security threats include
(a) Hardware failure
(b) Privacy invasion
(c) Fraudulent manipulation of data
(d) All of the above
ANSWER (b)

12. Graphical pictures that represent an object like file, folder etc. are
(a) Task bar
(b) Windows
(c) Desktop
(d) Icons
ANSWER (d)

13. Accessing records from a file directly without searching from the beginning of the file is
(a) Time sharing
(b) Random
(c) Direct access
(d) Access time
ANSWER (c)

14. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the
(a) Database is structured
(b) Database is well-designed
(c) Database has no data
(d) Database is relatively small
ANSWER (c)

15. Which of the following SQL statements are helpful in database redesign ?
(a) Correlated sub queries only
(b) EXISTS/ NOT EXISTS expressions only
(c) Both of the above are helpful
(d) Creating the database are helpful
ANSWER (c)

16. The EXISTS keyword will be true if
(a) Any row in the sub query meets the condition only
(b) All rows in the sub query fail the condition only
(c) Both of these two conditions are met
(d) Neither of these two conditions is met
ANSWER (a)

17. How can you find rows that do not match some specified condition ?
(a) EXISTS
(b) Double use of NOT EXISTS
(C) NOT EXISTS
(d) ROWS EXIT
ANSWER (c)

18. The process of reading a database schema and producing a data model from that schema is known as
(a) Data modeling
(b) Database design
(c) Reverse engineering
(d) Inverse engineering
ANSWER (c)

19. A tool that can help designers understand the dependencies of database structures is a
(a) Dependency graph
(b) Data model
(c) Graphical display
(d) Hierarchical model

20. Which SQL-92 standard SQL command can be used to change a table name ?
(a) RENAME TABLE
(b) CHANGE TABLE
(c) ALTER TABLE
(d) None of the above is correct
ANSWER (a)

21. What SQL command can be used to delete columns from a table ?
(a) MODIFY TABLE Table Name DROP COLUMN Column Name
(b) MODIFY TABLE Table Name DROP Column Name Column Name
(d) ALTER TABLE Table Name DROP Column Name
ANSWER (c)

22. Which of the following modifications may not succeed?
(a) Changing a column data type from char to date
(b) Changing a column data type from numeric to char
(c) Both of the above actions should succeed
(d) Neither of the above actions will succeed
ANSWER (a)

23. Changing cardinalities in a database is
(a) A common database design task
(b) A rare database design task, but does occur
(c) A database design task that never occurs
(d) Is impossible to do, so a new database must be constructed and the data moved into it
ANSWER (a)

24. A regular sub query can be processed
(a) From the top down
(b) From the bottom up
(c) By nesting
(d) From the right up
ANSWER (b)

25. How many copies of the database schema are typically used in the redesign process ?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
ANSWER (c)

UPSC CIVILS MAIN POLITICAL SCIENCE & INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS PAPER - I

Political Science and International Relations

Paper-I

Time Allowed : Three Hours                              Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English

Answer must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answer written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

Candidates should attempt Questions Nos. 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Section-A

1.  Comment on the following in about 150 words each:  15x4=60

(a)  “The State is a creation of nature and man is by nature a political animal.”(Aristotle)

(b)  “The worth of a State... is the worth of individuals composing it.” (J.S.Mill)
(c)  Hobbies as an individualist
(d)  Views of Gandhi and Ambedkar on ‘social justice’

2.  (a) Make an assessment of the post-colonial understanding of State. 30
(b) Examine the significance of the behavioural revolution in politics. 30

3. (a) It is said where there is no law there is no liberty. Give your views on this statement. 30
(b) Examine the debate on the ‘End of Ideology’. 30


4.  (a) Attempt a Comparative examination of the views of Marx and Weber on ‘Power’. 30
(b) Examine the ‘Participatory Model of Democracy.  30

Section-B

5. Comment on the following in about 150 words each : 15x4=60
(a) Dalit perspective on Indian National Movement
(b) Significance of the Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Role of National Commission for Scheduled Castes
(d) Trade union as pressure group in Indian politics


6. (a) Examine the significance of the Directive Principles of State Policy in achieving the goal of socio-economic justice. 30
(b) In normal conditions, the Governor is a constitutional executive but in case of constitutional crisis, he can become a powerful and effective executive.
Discuss 30

7. Critically examine and comment on the assertions given below in about 200 words each : 20x3=60
(a) It is not constitutional law but political factors that ultimately determine Centre-States relations in India.
(b) Indian politics has influenced caste and caste has influenced Indian politics.
(c) Secularism in Indian politics is a myth.


8. (a) Make an assessment of the role of the Election Commission of India in the conduct of free and fair elections. 30
(b) Examine the changing pattern of electoral behaviour in India. 30

UPSC CIVILS MAIN POLITICAL SCIENCE & INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS PAPER - II

Political Science and International Relations

Paper-II

Time Allowed : Three Hours                             Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English

Answer must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answer written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

Candidates should attempt Questions Nos. 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Section-A

1.  Answer the following in about 200 words each : 20x3=60

(a) “Either terrorism triumphs or civilization triumphs.” Comment on the above statement. 20

(b) What is ‘New Social Movement (NSM) ? Explain the main challenges of the NSM in the developing countries.  8+12=20

(c) Examine the nature and dynamics of contemporary globalization. 20

2.  (a)  What is comprehensive approach to national security? 20

(b) Do you agree with the view that over-widening of the concept of ‘national security’ has made it a more amorphous concept? Discuss. 40
3. (a) “Structural-functional approach to political analysis focuses more on status quoism, and less on change.” Elucidate. 30

(b) Expplain the uses of systems approach in international relations and examine the relevance of Kaplan’s system analysis.  10+20=30
4. (a) How for the efforts to maintain international order in the post-Cold War period by the UN have been successful?  30

(b) What are the major impediments to UN Security Council reform ? 30

Section-B

5.  Answer the following in about 200 words each: 20x30=60

(a) Explain the role of the Parliament in the shaping of 123 Agreement between India and the US on Civil-nuclear Cooperation.

(b) Do you think that India should sign a treaty with China on water-sharing of Brahmaputra River, similar to what she did with Nepal and other neighboring states?

(c) “While India opposes NPT as discriminatory, it opposes CTBT on the ground of ineffectiveness.” Comment.
6.  Explain the following statements and elucidate their implications : 30+30=60

(a) “India’s policy of non-alignment was based on both idealist and realist calculations.”

(b) “India’s policy in post-Cold War era is tilted towards pragmatism and wisdom.”
7. (a)  Explain the major flaws in India’s ‘Look East Policy’. Is it possible to steer and implement the policy successfully in views of China’s emergence as a high-tech power in Asia-Pacific ? 20+10=30

(b) To what extent is multi-lateralism a reality with regard to India’s constructive strategic partnership’ with Central Asian states?  30
8. (a) Explain the impact of coalition politics on India’s Foreign Policy since late 1990’s.  30

(b) Discuss the implications of ethnicity and nation-building in South Asia, and their impact in the relations of states within South Asia.  30

UPSC CIVILS MAIN GEOGRAPHY PAPER - I

Geography

Paper-I

Time Allowed : Three Hours                    Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English

Answer must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

Candidates should attempt Questions Nos. 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section. Wherever a question is attempted, all its parts are to be attempted.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches, maps and diagrams, where appropriate.

Section-A

1. Write short note on the following in about 150 words each : 12x5=60
(a) Geomagnetism and paleomagnetism
(b) Rossby waves and Jet Stream
(c) Salinity patterns in Indian Ocean
(d) Soil profile in Zonal and Azonal soils
(e) Marine Ecosystem
2. (a) Name the climatically controlled agents of erosion. Explain how they differ in terms of properties of matter. Compare the landforms produced by each one of them.  30

(b) Explain the concept of Isostasy as postulated by Airy and Pratt.  30
3. (a) Give an account of global distribution of precipitation.  30

(b)  “Contemporary global climate change is an anthropogenic phenomenon.” Discuss.  30
4. (a) “Temperature, salinity and density differences in ocean water are the prime causes of ocean water circulation.” Elaborate.  30
(b) Define the term biome. List the terrestrial biomes and describe the characteristics of Savanna biome.  30

Section-B

5. Write short explanatory notes on the following : 12x5=60

(a) Welfare Approach in Human Geography

(b) Secondary cities in the context of urbanization in developing world

(c) Isodapane in the Theory of Industrial Location

(d) Population and Food security

(e) Ingredients of Sustainable Development
6. (a) Discuss the impact of positivism in paradigm shift in Geography.  30

(b) Enumerate alternative strategies of planning for backward regions.  30
7. (a) Distiguish between boundaries and frontiers. Identify different types of boundaries.

(b) Mention the agricultural regions as classified by whittlessey and discuss their relevance.  30
8. (a) Discuss System Approach and its applicability in Geography.  30
(b) Critically examine the salient features of Central Place Theory propounded by Christaller and Losch.  30

UPSC CIVILS MAIN GEOGRAPHY PAPER - II

Geography

Paper-II

Time Allowed : Three Hours                                       Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English

Answer must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

Candidates should attempt Questions Nos. 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Illustrate your answers with suitable sketch-maps and diagrams, where considered required.

An outline map of India is attached to this question paper for answering Question No.1 This map is to be carefully detached from the question paper and attached securely to the answer book by the candidate.

Section-A

1. On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of All of the following for which 1 (One) mark is given to each correct entry.
Write in your answer script the significant geo-graphical relevance or strategic importance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/economic/ecological environmental/cultural in not more than 30 words for each entry. Four (4) marks are allotted for each write-up of  these correctly marked locations.   5x12=60

(a) Badami

(b) Mandvi

(c) Dodital

(d) Yanam

(e) Netarhat

(f) Shamsabad

(g) Lakshmantirath River

(h) Bara-Lacha La

(i) Kakolat Fall

(j) Singrauli

(k) Dafla Hills

(l) Tree Island


2. Present a comparative analysis of the regimes of Himalayan and Peninsular rivers of India and examine their implications in the irrigation system of the country. 60


3. (a)  Identify the major biosphere reserves of India and discuss their role in the conservation of forest and wildlife. 30

(b) Give an account of potentiality and prospects of development of marine resources of India. 30


4. (a) Discuss the potentiality and status of aqua-culture in the Ganga Plain. 30

(b) Assess the scope and development of Pharmaceutical Industry in India. 30

Section-B

5. Write about the following in about 200 words each:  15x4=60

(a) Prospects of Rainbow Revolution in India.

(b) Karewa Deposits and their economic significance.

(c) Impact of land tenure on agriculture productivity in India.

(d) Agro-forestry in India.


6. (a) Assess the growing importance of air transport in India and examine its role in the regional development of the country.  30

(b) Discuss the spatital pattern of intra-regional migration in India and examine its implications in regional development. 30


7. (a) Differentiate between conurbations and metropolitan regions. Give a reasoned account of emerging conurbations in India. 30

(b) Identify the ravine-affected areas in India and discuss the environmental and economic impacts of their reclamation. 30


8. (a) Discuss the problems of environmental degradation generated by urban wastes in India.  30

(b) Analyse the causes of desertification in India. Represent the desertified areas of the country on a sketch map and suggest remedial measures to control it.  30

VIJAYA BANK OFFICERS RECRUITMENT

Vijaya Bank
(A Government of India Undertaking)
Head Office, 41/2, M.G. Road, Bangalore - 560001

Vijaya Bank, a leading listed Public Sector Bank, having Head Office in Bangalore, with all India representation, invites Online applications  for recruitment to the following posts of Specialist/ Generalist Officers :

1. Chief Manager - Company Secretary : 01 post
2. Chief Manager - Credit : 05 posts
3. Chief Manager - Domestic Dealer : 02 posts
4. Chief Manager - Forex Dealer : 02 posts
5. Chief Manager - Forex : 02 posts
6. Chief Manager - Personnel: 02 posts
7. Senior Manager - FOREX : 18 posts
8. Senior Manager - Domestic Dealer : 05 posts
9. Senior Manager - Forex Dealer : 05 posts
10. Senior Manager - Credit III : 25 posts
11. Senior Manager - Risk Management : 27 posts
12. Senior Manager - Personnel : 03 posts
13. Senior Manager - Credit Faculty: 10 posts
14. Senior Manager - IT Programming : 02 posts
15. Senior Manager - General Banking : 276 posts
16. Manager - FOREX II : 10 posts
17. Manager - Credit/Financial Analyst : 02 posts
18. Manager - Economist : 03 posts
19. Manager - Law : 26 posts
20. Manager - Personnel : 03 posts
21. Technical Officer - Engineer (Industrial Production / Chemical / Mechanical / Electrical Engineering) : 04 posts
22. Manager - IT Information Security : 04 posts
23. Manager - IT Network Engineering : 02 posts
24. Manager - IT Infrastructure & Enterprise Management System : 02 posts
25. Manager - IT Programming : 02 posts
26. Manage - DBA : 01 post
27. Manager - IT System Administration : 02 posts
28. Manager - Public Relations : 10 posts
29. Manager - Security : 15 posts
30. Manager Fire & Safety : 01 post
31. Manager - Merchant Banking : 02 posts
32. Manager - General Banking  : 345 posts

Pay Scales :

1. Officers in SMG-S-IV Rs. 30600 – Rs. 36200
2. Officers in MMG-S-III Rs. 25700 – Rs. 31500 
3. Officers in MMG-S-II Rs. 19400 – Rs. 28100

Application fee : Rs.300/- (For SC/ST/PWD : Rs.50/- ) should be sent by deposited in the special Vijaya Bank accounts by a challan form.

How to Apply : Candidates are required to apply through on-line only between 22/11/2011 and 14/12/2011. After applying on-line, the registered candidates should obtain a print out of the Computer Generated On-Line Application ,complete in all respects should be sent by ordinary post by 21/12/2011 (28/12/2011 for the candidates of far-flung areas) to the following address :

• Vijaya Bank Recruitment Project - 2011-12 (Specialist / Generalist Officers in MMG - S-II to SMG - S - IV Post Box No.9724, Borivali - East, Mumbai  - 400066

Kkindly visit  http://vijayabank.com/vijaya/vijaya/internet-en/menus/announcements/RecruNoticeMainPage.html for all the details and a link to online submission of application is also provided here.

IBPS CWE MODEL QUESTIONS

Reasoning

1. 'DIVE' is related to 'EIVD' and. 'SOUL' is related to 'LOUS' in the same way as 'FEAR' is related to
1) AERF   

2) AFRE   

3) RFAE

4) REAF   

5) None of these

Ans: (4)
Directions (Q.2 - 3): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below: 493 879 365 258 642
2. Which of the following is the sum of the first and the second digits df the second highest number ?
1) 13   

2) 15   

3) 9

4) 7   

5) 10

Ans: (5)

3. If the positions of the first and the second digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the third digit of the lowest number ?
1) 3

2) 9

3) 5

4) 2

5) 8

Ans: (4)
4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TACKLE, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ?
1) None   

2) One   

3) Two   

4) Three   

5) More than three

Ans: (3)

Directions (Q.5 - 7) Each of the questions given below is based on the given diagram. You have to take the given diagram to be true even if it seems to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the five alternatives following each question logically follows from the given diagram. The diagram comprises three circles showing people from three different countries who have travelled to either, both or none of the countries mentioned in the diagram.
5. Which of the following represents Indians who have travelled only to Europe but not to the US ?
1) Only C   

2) Only B   

3) Only A

4) A and C   

5) Only E

Ans: (1)
6. Which of the following represents such Indians as have travelled only to the US and not to Europe ?
1) Only F   

2) Only D   

3) A and D

4) D and F   

5) C and F

Ans: (2)
7. Which of the following represents US citizens who have travelled neither to Europe nor to India ?
1) Only D   

2) C and D   

3) A and D

4) Only F   

5) Only C

Ans: (4)
8. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RCA using each letter only once in each word ?
1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three   

5) More than three

Ans: (3)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TORNADO each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order ?
(A) None   

(B) One

(C) Two   

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans: (B)
10. 'VT' is related to 'QO' in the same way as 'MK' is related to '.................'
(A) HF

(B) IG

(C) RP

(D) JG

(E) QO

Ans: (A)

English Language

Directions (Q.11 - 15): In the following passage there arc blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
It is very difficult to (11) the extent of the poverty in India. Hence, it is called the mass poverty. It is a problem of low national income and its (12) distribution. The slow pace of development (13) the extent of poverty. The mass poverty makes India belong to the category of the (14) countries in the world. In many Asian countries practically about 50 per cent people live below the poverty line. ln India, more than 46.33 per cent people are below the poverty line and the level of the per capita income is very (15). The Planning Commission has defined the poverty line on the basis of nutritional requirement or2,4OO calories per person per day in rural areas and 2,100 calories for the persons in urban areas.
11.   
1) visualize    

2) formulate

3) nullify

4) eradicate    

5) calculate

Ans: (5)
12.
1) unequal    

2) normal

3) absolute

4) proper    

5) usual

Ans: (1)
13.
1) augments    

2) accentuates    

3) gains

4) helps    

5) thwarts

Ans: (1)
14.
1) neediest    

2) poorest

3) best

4) developed    

5) richest

Ans: (2)
15.
1) low    

2) fine

3) negligible

4) high    

5) small

Ans: (1)
Directions (Q.16 - 17): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.
16. Resumed
1) dissolved

2) disorganised

3) discontinued

4) depleted

5) denounced

Ans: (3)
17. Sacrifice
1) assimilate

2) abandon

3) associate

4) absorb

5) acquire

Ans: (5)
Directions-(Q.18 - 20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.
18. After a great deal of effort she finally managed to success in her venture.
(A) managing to succeed

(B) managed to succeed

(C) managing success

(D) manage to success

(E) No correction required

Ans: (B)
19. He is a very lazy person and hate doing any kind of work.
(A) hated doing

(B) hate does

(C) hates do

(D) hates doing

(E) No correction required

Ans: (D)
20. Usha could not thinking of travelling without her car and feared the crowd.
(A) could not think

(B) cannot thinking

(C) cannot think

(D) could not thinks

(E) No correction required

Ans: (A)

Numerical Ability

Directions-(Q.21 - 25) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
21. 256.33 - 14.32 = ? - 55.44
(A) 189.57    

(B) 168.57

(C) 176.57    

(D) 182.57

(E) None of these

Ans: (E)
22. 8544 - 5757 + 1111 = 1255 + ?
(A) 2463    

(B) 2643

(C) 2453    

(D) 2653

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)
23. 35.62 -12.67 + 15.96 = ? - 43.22                
(A) 85.13    

(B) 82.13

(C) 87.13    

(D) 83.13

(E) None of these    

Ans: (B)
24. 5⁵ x (25)³  625 = (5) ^?
(A) 6    

(B) 9

(C) 8    

(D) 5

(E) None of these

Ans: (E)
25. ? % of 400 - (7)² = 159
(A) 55    

(B) 53

(C) 51    

(D) 52

(E) None of these

Ans: (D)
26. Sumit purchased an item for Rs. 4,000 and sold it at the gain of 35%. From that amount he purchased another item and sold it at the loss of 20%. What is his overall gain/loss ?
(A) Loss of Rs. 340

(B) Gain of Rs. 350

(C) Loss of Rs. 360

(D) Neither gain nor loss

(E) None of these

Ans: (E)
27. Sahil got 45 marks in Hindi, 47 marks in Science, 49 marks in Maths, 45 marks in Social Science and 32 marks in English. The maximum marks of each subject are 50. How much overall percentage of marks did he get ?
(A) 89.5    

(B) 83.2

(C) 88.3    

(D) 87.2

(E) None of these

Ans: (D)
28. The sum of five consecutive odd numbers is equal to 175. What is the sum of the second largest number amongst them and the square of the smallest number amongst them together ?
(A) 989    

(B) 997

(C) 979    

(D) 995

(E) None of these

Ans: (E)
29. Shweta can complete a piece of work in 8 hours and Priyanka can complete the same piece of work in 4 hours. How much time will both of them take together (approximately) to complete the same piece of work ?
(A) 2 hours    

(B) 3 hours

(C) 5 hours    

(D) 8 hours

(E) 4 hours

Ans: (B)

30. What is thirty two per cent of three-eighth of 5000 ?
(A) 606    

(B) 610

(C) 580    

(D) 600

(E) None of these

Ans: (D)

General Awareness (with special reference to banking industry)

31. Which country won its first Fed Cup title in 23 years on 6 November 2011 after securing a 3-2 win over Russia in the final ?
(A) Iran

(B) South Korea

(C) Greece

(D) Czech Republic

Ans: (D)


32. Which Indian city is to host the World Economic Forum's (WEF's) India Economic Summit for the first time in 26 years of the summit's history from 12-14 November 2011 ?
(A) New Delhi

(B) Mumbai

(C) Ahmedabad

(D) Kolkata

Ans: (B)

33. Which of the following companies entered into a partnership with the department of information technology to provide rural population socially oriented investment options ?
(A) UTI Infrastructure Technology

(B) L&T Infrastructure

(C) ICICI Mutual Fund

(D) RIL

Ans: (A)

34. Palestine won the membership of UNESCO( United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation). UNESCO is the ___ UN agency Palestine has joined as a full member.
(A) First

(B) Second

(C) Third

(D) Fourth

Ans: (A)

35. According to a UN study what is India’s rank among a total of 187 countries in terms of Human Development Index ?
(A) 95

(B) 134

(C) 119

(D) 73

Ans: (B)

36. India scientists succeeded in decoding the genome of the arhar dal, which is also known as _____.
(A) Pigeon Pea

(B) Black-eyed Pea

(C) Sweet Pea

(D) Split Pea

Ans:  (A)

37. Name the Indian golfer who became the first Indian golfer to shoot a spectacular round of 12-under 60 on home soil when he took a three-stroke lead on the second day of the Rs. one-crore BILT Open golf championship at the Jaypee Greens golf course on 3 November 2011.
(A) Jyoti Randhawa

(B) Amandeep Johl

(C) Anirban Lahiri

(D) Rahil Gangjee

Ans: (C)

38. According to the data released by the commerce and industry ministry on 31 October 2011, the eight core infrastructure industries growth slowed down to what percentage for September 2011 as against 3.3 per cent in September 2010 ?
(A) 3.1%

(B) 2.3%

(C) 2%

(D) 1.8%

Ans: (B)

39. Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 16 October 2011 voiced the Finance Ministry’s decision to to recapitalise which of the following PSU lenders to help it achieve compliance with capital adequacy ratio (CAR) norms ?
(A) State Bank of India

(B) United Bank of India

(C) Punjab National Bank

(D) Bank of Baroda

Ans: (A)

40. Which one of the following launched social security scheme for Gramin Dak Sevaks?
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs

(B) Ministry of Communications and IT

(C) Ministry of Personnel and Grievance

(D) Ministry of Rural Development

Ans: (B)

Computer Knowledge

41. Which of the following commands is given to reboot the computer ?
1) Ctrl + Alt + Del

2) Ctrl + Shift + ?

3) Ctrl + Shift + Del

4) Ctrl +Alt + shift

5) Ctrl + Alt + Tab

Ans: (1)
42. By default, your documents print in _ mode.
1) Landscape   

2) Portrait

3) Page Setup   

4) Print View

5) None of these

Ans: (2)
43. To find and load a file that has been saved _.
1) select the Close command

2) select the New command

3) select the Save command

4) select the Open command

5) None of these

Ans: (4)
44. Which function calculates the largest value in a set of numbers ?
1) Average

2) Count

3) Minimum

4) Maximum

5) None of these

Ans: (4)
45. Which of the following statements is true ?
1) Minicomputer works faster than Microcomputer

2) Microcomputer works faster than Minicomputer

3) Speed of both the computers is the same

4) The speeds of both these computers. cannot be compared with the speed of advanced computer

5) None of these

Ans: (1)
46. In page preview mode-
(A) You can see all pages of your document

(B) You can only see the page you are currently working

(C) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics

(D) You can only see the title page of your document

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)
47. If the file saved earlier is edited, then-
(A) It is essential to save the file again to store the change

(B) The change will automatically be saved in the file

(C) If the length is more than a page, the file will be needed to be saved

(D) The name will be needed to be changed

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)
48. When creating a word-processed document, this step involves the user changing how words on the page appear, both on the screen and in printed form-
(A) Editing text

(B) Inserting tables and indexes

(C) Formatting text

(D) Proofing documents

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)
49. A CPU contains-
(A) a card reader and a printing device

(B) an analytical engine and a control unit

(C) a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit

(D) an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)
50. Aligning of text in column is-
(A) Justified

(B) Right

(C) Centre    

(D) Left

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)

IBPS CWE MODEL QUESTIONS

Reasoning

 1. Each consonant in the word TEMPORAL is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and then letters so arrived are arranged in alphabetical order, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end ?
(1) F
(2) P
(3) L
(4) K
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1) 14
(2) 18 
(3) 24
(4) 36
(5) 26
Ans: (4)
Directions (Q. 3 - 6) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the the questions given below:
R $ 5 4 I J M @ P 3 © A Q T 2 W 1 % U V 6 B E N 8 * 7 d D
3. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a vowel ?
(1)None 
(2) One 
(3) Two
(4) Three 
(5) Four
Ans: (3)
4. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and not immediately followed by a letter ?
(1) None 
(2) One 
(3) Two
(4) Three 
(5) More than three
Ans: (4)
5. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the nineteenth from the right end ofthe above arrangement ?
(1) T 
(2) W 
(3) N
(4) J 
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
6. If all the numbers from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the ninth to the right of J ?
(1) 1 
(2) A 
(3) Q
(4) T 
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
Directions (Q.7 - 8): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting in a straight line facing North, not necessarily in the same order.
(a) Q sits third to the right of T.
(b) T sits second to the right of P.
(c) V is not an immediate neighbour of T.
(d) R sits second to the left of S.
7. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to the original seating positions ?
(1) None
(2) One 
(3) Two 
(4) Three
(5) Four
Ans: (3)
8. Which of the following pairs sit at the extreme comers of the line ?
(1) TS 
(2) VS 
(3) RT 
(4) PQ 
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
9. The positions of the first and the sixth letters of the word CARPET are interchanged; similarly, the positions of the second and fifth letters; and the third and fourth letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many alphabets are there between the letter which is second from the right and the letter which is second from the left end, in the English alphabetical series?
(1) None 
(2) One 
(3) Two 
(4) Three 
(5) More than three
Ans: (4)
10. In a certain language 'row a boat' is coded as '947', 'boat in water' is coded as '415' and 'boat sunk in water' is coded as '1654'. How is 'sunk' coded in the same code language ?
(1) 5
(2) 9
(3) 7
(4) 6
(5) 1
Ans: (4)
11. 'Lyrics' is related to 'Song' in the same way as 'Rhyme' is related to.
(1) Poetry
(2) Episode
(3) Chapter
(4) Story
(5) Passage
Ans: (1)

English Language

Directions-(Q.12 to 13) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E), i.e., 'All Correct' as your answer.
12. My friends thesis was acclaimed
                         (A)            (B)
as a pioneering peice of research
          (C)          (D)
All Correct
     (E)

Ans: (D)
13. Air travel expanded enourmously
                       (A)             (B)
in the Second half of the twentieth century.
                                          (C)        (D)
All correct
   (E)
Ans: (B)
Directions (Q.14 - 17): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words in the passage have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
In July 1920 barely eight months after his arrival in England, Subhash Chandra Bose appeared in the Civil Service Examination and passed it with distinction. But the prospect of being a member of the bureaucracy did not make him happy. He felt that the first step towards equipping oneself for public service was to sacrifice all worldly interest. Much against the wishes ofhis father Subhash resigned from the I.C.S. and returned to India it? July 1920. Here he became Deshbandhu's most promising recruit. When C.R: Das became the chief organiser of the boycott of the visit of Prince of Wales, Subhash was by his side. The hartal in Calcutta. was a spectacular success and both the guru and sishya found themselves in jail. This was Subhash's first incarceration, the first of a total of eleven. Later. when C.R. Das was elected Mayor of Calcutta, Subhash was appointed Chief Executive Officer, While holding this post he was arrested in a case of conspiracy and was lodged without trial in Mandalay jail for two-and-a-half years. After release from jail, he became President of the Bengal Pradesh Congress Committee and once again resumed his political activities.
Subhash became President of the All India Youth Congress, Central Officer Commanding of the Congress Volunteer Corps, and in 1920, was the co-founder, with" Jawaharlal Nehru ofthe Left Wing of the Congress Party. He also became President of the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931. His dynamism was a source of inspiration for the trade unionists in the struggle for their rights as well as for India's freedom. In 1938, he was elected President of the Indian National Congress at the Haripura Session. This was the time when Congress ministries were in office in seven states under the scheme of Provincial Autonomy granted under the Government of India Act of 1935. He emphasised on the revolutionary potential of the Congress ministries in the presidential address. He was re-elected Congress President the following year at Tripuri, defeating the veteran, Dr. Pattabhi Sitaramayya though the latter enjoyed Gandhiji's support.'
14. When Subhash was the Chief Executive Officer
(1) he was arrested in a conspiracy case
(2) the Government oflndia Act of 1935 was passed
(3) he became President of the Bengal Pradesh Congress Committee
(4) The hartal in Calcutta was observed
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
15. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(1) The session of the Congress party was held at Calcutta
(2) Subhash liked the idea of working in a bureaucratic set up
(3) Subhash became the President of the All India Trade Union Congress in 1928
(4) In British rule, Congress was allowed to form ministries in States
(5) Subhash was lodged in the Mandalay jail after a proper trial
Ans: (4)
16. Shri c.n. Das (was)
(1) the-co-founder of the Left Wing of the Congress Party
(2) the President of.the All India youth Congress
(3) arrested and lodged in Mandalay jail without trial
(4) organised the boycott of the visit of Price of Wales
(5) elected unopposed as the President of the congress Party
Ans: (4)
17. Why did Subhash feel he should do for preparing himself to undertake public service?
(1) He should decide not to work in a bureaucratic set up
(2) He should feel pulse of the Nation
(3) He should feel renounce all pleasure available in the world
(4) He should dissociate himself from all dogmatic ideas and set notions
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
Directions (Q.18 - 20): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
18. The new assignment is (1)/more challenging than (2)/much of the (3)/ earlier assignments (4)/ No error (5)
Ans: (3)
19. We are sure that (1)/ they will definitely help us (2)/ if we approach (3)/ them well in advance (4)/No error (5)
Ans: (2)
20. They now claim that (1)/they would have (2)/ guided us if we (3)/ would have requested them (4)/No errors (5)
Ans: (4)

Numerical Ability

Directions-(Q.21 - 25) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
21. 9418 -? + 1436 + 2156 = 5658
(1) 7523
(2) 7352
(3) 7232
(4) 7325
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
22. 666 + (2-4 x ?) = 185
(1) 1.5
(2) 2.5
(3) 0.5
(4) 5
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
23. [(9)3 x (?)2] + 21 = 1701
(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 11
(4) 4
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
24. 21x14-34/12.4+5.6-15.5=?
(1) 95
(2) 100
(3) 110
(4) 106
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
25. 11 1/7 + 2 5/8 = ?
 (1) 110 1/7
(2) 13 45/56
(3) 96 3/8
(4) 13 43/56
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
26. The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 19043. Which is the smaller number ?
(1) 137
(2) 131
(3) 133
(4) 129
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
27. Monica, Veronica and Rachael begin to jog around a circular stadium. They complete their revolutions in 42 seconds, 56 seconds and 63 seconds respectively. After how many seconds will they be together at the starting point ?
(1) 336
(2) 252
(3) 504
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
28. A sum of money is to be divided equally amongst P, Q and R in the respective ratio of 5 : 6 : 7 and another sum of money is to be divided between Sand T equally. If S got Rs. 2,100 less than P, how much amount did Q receive ?
(1) Rs. 2,500
(2) Rs. 2,000
(3) Rs. 1,500
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
29. If the value of 21 a + 21 b = 1134, what is the average of a + b ?
(1) 29
(2) 27
(3) 58
(4) 54
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
30. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ? 82050125? 781.25
(1) 300
(2) 295.5
(3) 315
(4) 312.5
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)

Computer Knowledge

31. How do you prevent emailed word documents from always opening in the Reading Layout ?
(1) From the Tools Menu > Options > General Tab > uncheck the' Allow starting in Reading Layout'
(2) From the View Menu > Reading Layout > General Tab > uncheck the 'Allow starting in Reading Layout'
(3) From the Format Menu > Autoformat > Edit Tab > uncheck the 'Use with emailed attachments'.
(4) All the above
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
32. To find and load a file that has been saved _.
(1) select the Close command
(2) select the New command
(3) select the Save command
(4) select the Open command
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
33. What displays the content of the active cell ?
(1) Name box
(2) Row Headings
(3) Formulabar
(4) Taskpane
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
34. The Word function that corrects text as you type is referred to as 
(1) Auto Summarize
(2) Auto Insert
(3) Auto Correct
(4) Track Changes
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
35. By default, your documents print in _ mode.
(1) Landscape
(2) Portrait
(3) Page Setup
(4) Print View
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
36. Why are unknown e-mails deleted?
(1) You may be sentenced to jail
(2) That man can identify and harm you
(3) These are dirty manners
(4) The e-mail may consists of virus that may damage your computer
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
37. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network ?
(1) LAN
(2) OSL
(3) RAM
(4) USB
(5) CPU
Ans: (1)
38. A word in a web page that, when clicked, opens another document
(1) anchor
(2) URL
(3) hyperlink
(4) reference
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
39. 'GUI' stands for-
(1) Gnutella Universal Interface
(2) Graphical User Interface
(3) Graphic Uninstall/lnstall
(4) General Utility Interface
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
40. For doing some specific work, a key is used jointly with which of the following ?
(1) Function
(2) Arrow
(3) Space bar
(4) Control
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)

General Awareness

41. According to global fund-tracking agency EPFR, emerging markets attracted USD 3.5 billion or over 70 per cent of total fresh capital invested in the equity funds across the world during the week ended 2 November 2011. As per capital market regulator SEBI, FIIs made a net investment of  what amount in Indian equities during the week ended 2 November 2011?
(1) USD 680 million
(2) USD 650 million
(3) USD 666 million
(4) USD 715 million
Ans: (1)
42. Indirect tax collections in October 2011 dropped by 2.5 percent to Rs 30,278 crore on account of a slowing economy. Indirect tax comprises which of the following?
(1) corporate, excise and service tax
(2) customs, excise and service tax
(3) service, excise and sales tax
(4) value added tax, sales tax and income tax
Ans: (2)
43. Which of the following rating agencies on 9 November 2011 downgraded the entire Indian banking system's rating outlook from stable to negative indicating a deterioration in asset quality in the months ahead?
(1) Standard & Poor's (S&P)
(2) Fitch Rating
(3) Moody's
(4) A.M. Best
Ans: (3)
44. Which of the following public sector banks in November 2011 froze its lending to the power sector?
(1) State Bank of India
(2) Allahabad Bank
(3) Punjab National Bank
(4) United Bank of India
Ans: (2)
45. Russia and Bangladesh on 2 November 2011 signed a deal to build a nuclear power plant.  Consider the following statements on the nuclear deal.
(i) It would be Bangladesh’s first nuclear plant.
(ii) The nuclear power plant will be set up at Rooppur in Pabna district.
Choose the right option:
(1) Both i and ii are correct.
(2) Only i is correct.
(3) Only ii is correct.
(4) Neither i nor ii is correct.
Ans: (1)
46. Nabum Tuki was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh on 1 November 2011. He is the__ Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh?
(1) Seventh
(2) Sixth
(3) Fith
(4) Fourth
Ans: (1)
47. A report recently stated that bluefin tuna was fished illegally during Libya conflict. Consider the following statements:
(i) Bluefin Tuna are dark blue-black on the back, and white on the lower sides and belly.
(ii) The scientific name of bluefin tuna is Thunnus thynnus.
Choose the right option:
(1) Both i and ii are correct.
(2) Neither i nor ii is correct.
(3) Only i is correct.
(4) Only ii is correct.
Ans: (a)
48. Name the top seeded tennis duo who won the Stockholm Open after outplaying Marcelo Melo and Bruno Soares 6-1, 6-4 in the summit clash in October 2011.
(1) Baghdatis of Cyprus and Del Potro of Argentina
(2) Rohan Bopanna of India and Aisam-Ul-Haq Qureshi of Pakistan
(3) Michael Kohlmann and Alexander Wask of Gremany
(3) Gael Monfils of France  and Alexander Wask of Gremany
Ans: (2)

49. Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 31 October 2011 inaugurated a fully secure government e-payment system. Which of the following facts regarding the e-payment system is not true?
(i) e-payment system will enable the Central  government to directly credit dues into the accounts of beneficiaries.
(ii) It has been developed by Comptroller & Auditor general of India.
(iii) It has been designed to serve as middleware between COMPACT (computerised payment and accounts) application at PAOs and the core banking solution (CBS) of the agency banks/Reserve Bank of India, to facilitate paperless transaction.
(iv The e-payment system will save both time and effort in effecting payments and also facilitate the elimination of physical cheques and their manual processing.
(1) 1 & 2
(2) Only 1
(3) Only 2
(4) 1 & 3
Ans: (3)
50. Conference of Parties to the Stockholm Convention in Geneva on 29 April 2011 approved the recommendation for elimination of production and use of which of the following?
(1) Endosulfan
(2) Neonicotinoids
(3) Organophosphates
(4) Metarhizium anisopliae
Ans: (1)

IBPS CWE MODEL QUESTIONS

Reasoning

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ORGANISED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(1) None

(2) One    

(3) Two

(4) Three   

(5) More than three

Ans: (3)

2. '12' is related t6 '36' in the same way as' 17' is related to _.

(1) 51    

(2) 34    

(3) 68

(4) 63    

(5) 71

Ans: (1)

Directions (Q. 3-4): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, Q, R, S, T, Y and Ware sitting around a circle facingat the centre. R is second to the right of P who is to the immediate right of Y. S is second to the left of V. Q is second to the right of W who is not an immediate neighbour of Y or S.

3. Who is second to the right to T ?

(1) V    

(2) P

(3) W

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Ans: (2)

4. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person ?

(1) RQ    

(2) QS    

(3) ST

(4) VP    

(5) None of these

Ans: (5)

Directions (Q. 5-7): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting in a straight line facing North, not necessarily in the same order.

(1) Q sits third to the right of T.

(2) T sits second to the right of P.

(3) V is not an immediate neibhour of T.

(4) R sits second to the left of S.

5. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to the original seating positions?

(1) None

(2) One    

(3) Two    

(4) Three

(5) Four

Ans: (3)

6. How many persons sit between R and V?

(1) None

(2) One    

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) Four

Ans: (3)

7. Which of the following pairs sit at the extreme comers of the line?

(1) TS    

(2) VS    

(3) RT    

(4) PQ    

(5) None of these

Ans: (4)

8. A building of fifteen floors has been recently constructed in which A, B, C, and 0 are staying as tenants. 8 lives on the tenth floor. D lives immediately above B but two floors below C. A lives above B but below C. On which of the following floors does A live on?

(1) 11th

(2) 12th

(3) 14th

(4) Either 12th or 13th

(5) Cannot be determined

Ans: (2)

Directions-(Q. 9-10) In each question below is given a number/ symbol followed by five combinations of letter codes numbred (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the number/symbol based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the number of that combination as your answer.
Number/Symbol : 5Q2~6 9 8 1 @ 7 $ 4 3 0 n

Letter Code : J K P A O C B R S L V F T M E

Conditions :

(i) If both the first and the fifth elements are even numbers, the codes for both these are to be interchanged.

(ii) If the group of numbers contains only one symbol, that symbol is to be coded as the code for the element following it.

(iii) If the third element is an even number and the fourth an odd number, the fourth element is to be coded as the code for the second element.

9. 2~785$

(1) PBALJV

(2) PLBAJV

(3) PALBJV

(4) PJLBAV

(5) PLABJV

Ans: (3)
10. Q1690$

(1) KROMRV

(2) KORRMV

(3) KORMRV

(4) KOMRRV

(5) KRORMV

Ans: (5)

English Language

Directions-(Q. 11 to 12) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5), i.e., 'All Correct' as your answer.
11. My friends thesis was acclaimed
                         (1)            (2)
as a pioneering peice of research
          (3)             (4)
All Correct
     (5)

Ans: (4)

12. Air travel expanded enourmously
                       (1)             (2)
in the Second half of the twentieth century.
                                        (3)          (4)
All correct
   (5)

Ans: (2)

Directions-(Q. 13 to 16) Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it -

Every afternoon, on their way back from school, the children used to go and play in the Giant's garden. It was a large lovely garden, with soft green grass. Over the grass stood beautiful flowers like stars, and there were twelve peach-trees that bore rich fruit. The birds would sit on the trees and sing sweetly to the children playing below. One day the Giant came back. He had been on a long tour and was now determined to return to his own castle. When he arrived he saw the children playing in the garden and was outrageous. "What are you doing here ?" He shouted in a very gruff voice, and the children ran away. "I will not allow anybody to play in my garden but myself" said the Giant. And so, he built a high wall around it, and put up a notice-board that read TRESPASSERS WILL BE PROSE-CUTED. He was a very selfish Giant. The poor children h&d now, nowhere to play. They tried to play on the road, but the road was very dusty and full of stones, and they did not like it. On their way back from school, they used to wander around the high wall and remember the good times.

Then came spring, and all over the country there were little blossoms and little birds. Only in the garden of the Selfish Giant it was still winter. The birds did not care to sing in it as there were no children and the trees forgot to blossom. The only people who were pleased were the snow and the frost. "Spring has forgotten this garden," they cried, "so we will live here all the year round." I cannot understand why the spring is so late in coming," said the selfish Giant, as he sat at the window and looked out at his cold white garden, "I hope there will be a change in the weather." But the spring never came, nor did the summer. The autumn gave golden fruit to every garden, but to the Giant's garden she gave none. "He was too selfish," she said. So it was always winter there.

One morning the Giant was lying awake in bed when he heard the birds singing. "I believe the spring has come at last," said the Giant, and he jumped out of bed and looked out. He saw the most wonderful sight. Through the little hole in the wall the children had crept in, and they were sitting on the branches of the trees. On every tree there was a child. The birds were flying about and twittering with delight, and the flowers were looking up through the green grass and laughing. It was a lovely scene however, in one corner it was still winter. It was the farthest corner of the garden, and in it was standing a little boy. He was so small that he could not reach the ranches of the tree, and he was wandering all around it crying bitterly. The Giant's heart melted as he looked out. "How selfish I have been '" he said, "now I know why spring would not come here. I will put that poor little boy on the top of the tree, and then I will knock down the wall, and my garden shall be the children's play-ground for ever and ever." He was really sorry for what he had done.

13. "Spring has forgotten this garden." They cried. Who is the author referring to ?

(1) The children

(2) The snow and the frost

(3) The autumn trees

(4) The spring

(5) None of these

Ans: (2)

14. What does the author compare the flowers in the garden to ?

(1) Stars

(2) Pearls

(3) Soft grass

(4) Frost

(5) None of these

Ans: (1)

15. What made the Giant believe spring had finally arrived?

(1) He heard the sounds of the children playing

(2) He smelt the flowers blooming in the garden

(3) He heard the singing by the birds

(4) He saw a hole in the compound wall

(5) He saw the trees bearing fruits

Ans: (3)

16. Why did the Giant put up the sign 'Trespassers will be prosecuted' in front of his garden?

(1) He did not want visitors

(2) It was a strategy to keep the children away

(3) Trespassers had ruined his garden in the past

(4) He was possessive about his property

(5) None of these

Ans: (2)

Directions-(Q. 17 to 18) Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word/ phrase printed in bold as used in the passage.
17. Knock down

(1) Demolish

(2) Build

(3) Elevate

(4) Raise

(5) Step up

Ans: (1)

18. Scene

(1) Wish    

(2) Drawing

(3) Fantasy

(4) Picture

(5) Dream

Ans: (4)

Directions-(Q. 19 to 20) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
19. Pleased

(1) Upset

(2) Satisfied

(3) Happy

(4) Tortured

(5) Critical

Ans: (1)

20. Farthest

(1) Extreme

(2) Nearest

(3) Distant

(4) Shortest

(5) Endless

Ans: (2)

Numerical Ability

Directions-(Q. 21 to 24) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

21. 5544 - 6633 + 7744 = ? + 1111

(1) 5455

(2) 5454

(3) 5545

(4) 5445

(5) None of these

Ans: (5)

22. (5)³ ÷ (25)² x 125 = (5)^?

(1) 2

(2) 4

(3) 3

(4) 5

(5) None of these

Ans: (1)

23. 63 65. 75 _?/ 13 x 21 7 9 - .

(1) 21/5

(2) 11/5

(3) 5/9

(4) Z/9

(5) None of these

Ans: (2)

24. 7/12-3/4+2/3=?   

(1) 5/6

(2) 5/12

(3) 1/2

(4) 1/6

(5) None of these

Ans: (1)

25. The sum of five consecutive numbers is equal to 170. What is the product of the largest and the smallest numbers?

(1) 1512

(2) 1102

(3) 1152

(4) 1210

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

Directions-(Q. 26 to 27) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

26. 11, 19, 31, 47, 67, ?

(1) 80

(2) 81

(3) 86

(4) 96

(5) None of these

Ans: (5)

27. Reena got 76 marks in Hindi, 48 marks in Science, 84 marks in Maths, 38 marks in Social Science and 72 marks in English. The maximum marks of each subject are 100. How much overall percentage of marks did she get?

(1) 63.8    

(2) 62.6

(3) 63.6

(4) 64.8

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

28. Six boys can complete a piece of work in 16 hours. In how many hours will 8 boys complete the same piece of work?

(1) 10

(2) 8

(3) 12

(4) 14

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

Directions-(Q. 29 to 30) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

29. 5/18 of 6/25 of 675 = ?

(1) 40

(2) 55

(3) 35

(4) 75

(5) None of these

Ans: (5)

30. 521.42 - 86.74 = ? + 112.89

(1) 321.69

(2) 312.79

(3) 322.79

(4) 312.69

(5) None of these

Ans: (5)

Computer Knowledge

31. Which function calculates the largest value in a set of numbers ?

(1) Average

(2) Count

(3) Minimum

(4) Maximum

(5) None of these

Ans: (4)

32. What do you use to create a chart ?

(1) Pie Wizard    

(2) Excel Wizard

(3) Data Wizard    

(4) Chart Wizard

(5) None of these

Ans: (4)

33. What displays the content of the active cell ?

(1) Name box    

(2) Row Headings

(3) Formulabar    

(4) Taskpane

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

34. By default, your documents print in _ mode.

(1) Landscape    

(2) Portrait

(3) Page Setup    

(4) Print View

(5) None of these

Ans: (2)

35. What is the best way to have a data and the slide number appear on every slide ?

(1) choose Tools, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the desired options, click Apply to All

(2) choose Insert, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the desired options, click Apply to All

(3) chouse View, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the desired options, click Apply to All

(4) choose File, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the desired options, click Apply to All

(5) None of these

Ans: (2)

36. To move to the bottom of a document, press _ .

(1) Insert key    

(2) Home key

(3) Ctrl key + End key    

(4) End key

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

37. Which one of the following four words is odd?

(1) Application

(2) Peripheral

(3) Programme

(4) Software

(5) None of these

Ans: (2)

38. If formation of computer, the hardwares..........are used.

(1) Monitor, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Keyboard, Mouse, Software and Network

(2) Monitor, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Keyboard, Mouse Programme and Network

(3) Monitor, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Keyboard, Mouse, Printer and Modem

(4) Monitor, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Keyboard, Mouse, Application and Network

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

39. In page preview mode-

(1) You can see all pages of your document

(2) You can only see the page you are currently working

(3) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics

(4) You can only see the title page of your document

(5) None of these

Ans: (1)
40. A CPU contains-

(1) a card reader and a printing device

(2) an analytical engine and a control unit

(3) a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit

(4) an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

General Awareness (with special reference to banking industry)

41. Which PSU topped the list by clinching five awards including the best financial performance award in Maharatna and Navaratna category among the Public Sector Enterprises in september 2011?

(1) BHEL

(2) ONGC

(3) NTPC

(4) Indian Oil

Ans: (2)

42. Union government on 20 September 2011 extended the terms of reference of the Nilekani task force. Which of the following facts about the task-force is/are not true?

1. The task-force was set up by the HRD under the chairmanship of Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) chief Nandan Nilekani in October 2010.

2. The task force was asked to recommend and implement a solution for direct transfer of subsidies on kerosene, LPG and
fertiliser to the intended beneficiaries.

3. The terms of reference of the Nilekani task force on direct transfer of subsidies. The extended terms of reference is to include an Aadhaar-enabled unified payment infrastructure.

4. The panel was asked to recommend an architecture for e-banking through inter-operable business correspondents

(1) Only 4

(2) 1 & 4

(3) Only 1

(4) 2 & 4

Ans: (3)

43. Coal Ministry on 21 September 2011 during the Round table conference on Coal approved, in principle, the allotment of five coal blocks to which of the following PSU power generators?

(1) BHEL

(2) NTPC

(3) PowerGrid Corporation of India

(4) Gujarat State Energy Generation

Ans: (2)

44. 44th Jnanpith Award for 2008 was presented to renowned Urdu poet Professor Akhlaq Mohammad Khan Shahryar  for his distinguished contribution in enriching Indian literature. He received the Sahitya Academy Award in 1987 for which of the following?

(1) Ism-e-azam

(2) Khwab ka Dar Band Hai

(3) Kahin Kuchh Kam Hai

(4) Hijr ke mausam

Ans: (2)

45. Astronomers discovered that the planet named TrES-2b is blacker than any planet in our solar system. Astronomers made this observation after using NASA’s__spacecraft.

(1) Kepler

(2) Freedom 7

(3) Faith 7

(4) Discovery

Ans: (1) Kepler

46. Government panel headed by Planning Commission member Arun Maira in its report presented on 27 September 2011 suggested giving more powers to which of the following bodies with respect to mergers and acquisitions in the pharmaceutical sector?

(1) Competition Commission of India

(2) Finance Ministry

(3) Reserve Bank of India

(4) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry

Ans: (1)

47. Union Government on 26 September 2011 announced the reconstitution of the National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council (NMCC) under whose chairmanship to energise and sustain the growth of manufacturing industries and help in the implementation of strategies by the government?

(1) V. Krishnamurthy

(2) Pranab Mukherjee

(3) U K Sinha

(4) Dr D Subbarao

Ans: (1)

48. Who was honoured with the Swiss Ambassador's award for exceptional leadership and his contribution to strengthening bilateral ties between India and Switzerland on 16 October 2011?

(1) Anil Ambani

(2) Rattan Tata

(3)Narayan Murthy

(4)G D Birla

Ans: (2)

49. The Indian kabaddi team lifted its first-ever Circle Style Asian kabaddi title by defeating which team at Tabriz in Iran on 27 September 2011?

(1) Phillipines

(2) Japan

(3) Pakistan

(4) Iran

Ans: (3)

50. Name the Kenyan athlete who on 25 September 2011 shattered the world men's marathon record by 21 seconds when he clocked two hours three minutes 38 seconds in Berlin course?

(1) Japheth Kimutai

(2) Reuben Kosgei

(3) Patrick Makau

(4) Musa Amer Obaid

Ans: (3)