Aryavarta Gramin Bank Clerk Exam, 2011

General English 

(Held on 20-11-2011)

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there was a stork that lived by catching fish from a particular tank. As the years went by, the stork grew older and weaker and its ability to catch fish diminished. At times it would even starve. The stork knew that it had to do something to survive.

One day it stood by the side of the tank with a very forlorn look on its face. The frogs, fish and crabs wondered why it was not trying to catch any food. A big crab asked the stork what the matter was. The stork answered that it was sad because all the fish in the tank were going to die and so it would have to starve. The stork said that it had heard that people were going to fill the tank with mud and grow crops over it. The fish were very worried and asked the stork to help them.

The stork offered to take all of them to a bigger tank some distance away. But it said that it needed to rest between trips because of old age. It would only be able to carry a few fish at a time.

On its first trip, the stork took a beakful of fish. It flew to a big rock and had a good meal. Thereafter, it rested for a while, and when it was hungry again, the stork took a second trip. In this manner, the stork took a trip each time it was hungry.

The big crab in the tank also wanted to save itself and it requested the stork to take it too. The stork thought it was a good idea to try a new dish. It agreed to take the crab on its next trip.

After the stork flew up with the crab, the crab looked down to see what the new surroundings would be like. All it could see was dry land. When the crab questioned the stork about this, the stork laughed wickedly and pointed to the rock below where the crab saw a heap of fish bones. The crab realized that it was to be the stork’s next meal. So the crab dug its claws into the stork’s neck and would not let go till the stork fell to the ground and died. The crab then cut off the stork’s head and returned home to show it to all the other fish and share the story of its adventure with the stork.

Directions—(Q. 1–3) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

1. REALIZE
(A) Confess
(B) Conclude
(C) Solve
(D) Dream
(E) Confuse
Ans : (B)

2. ADVENTURE
(A) Incident
(B) Decision
(C) Saviour
(D) Scheme
(E) Friendship
Ans : (A)

3. CATCHING
(A) Teasing
(B) Holding
(C) Detecting
(D) Sipping
(E) Eating
Ans : (E)


Directions—(Q. 4–5) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

4. DIMINISHED
(A) Praised
(B) Developed
(C) Agitated
(D) Excited
(E) Lessened
Ans : (B)

5. FORLORN
(A) Serious
(B) Satisfied
(C) Wicked
(D) Helpful
(E) Cheerful
Ans : (E)

6. How did the crab kill the stork ?
(A) The crab dug its claws into the stork’s neck until it fell on the ground.
(B) The crab poisoned the stork’s meal at the rock.
(C) The crab starved the stork to death.
(D) The crab cut the stork’s head.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Why did the stork agree to take the crab along ?
(A) It wanted to try a new dish
(B) It wanted to prove that it was still young
(C) It wanted to save the crab
(D) It was blackmailed by the crab
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the story ?
(A) The foolish fish
(B) The brave stork
(C) The crab’s adventure with the stork
(D) The innocent stork and the fish
(E) The lazy crab
Ans : (B)

9. Why did the stork have to remain hungry ?
(A) There were not fish in the tank.
(B) The stork’s capacity to catch fish had diminished.
(C) The stork had lost its teeth due to old age.
(D) The fish had learnt to trick the stork.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

10. As per the stork what had the people being saying about the tank ?
(A) The tank would dry due to immense heat.
(B) The tank would be poisoned by the people.
(C) They would trap the fish and take them to aquariums.
(D) They would fill the tank with mud and cultivate crops.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–20) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B) (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may either be misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

11. Will you be able (A) to obtain (B) the necessary (C) information immeediately. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

12. Although (A) I was angry, (B) I controlled (C) myself. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

13. He came (A) at a time (B) when I was (C) too buzy (D) to see him. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

14. Have (A) you posted (B) the latter (C) to the lawyer ? (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

15. Every habbit (A) of the parent (B) was found (C) in the child. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

16. He is not (A) as intelligent (B) a man as I accpected (C) him to be. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

17. I did (A) not see (B) the and (C) of the play. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

18. It is indeed (A) very clever (B) of him to have reefused (C) to do the task. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

19. Due to unfourseen (A) circumstances, we shall have (B) to leave earlier (C) than planned. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

20. There (A) were several (B) questions before (C) the committee. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) in the proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below :
(1) These books are collectively called Euclid’s elements.
(2) Euclid has included his findings in one of the volumes of Euclid’s elements.
(3) Euclid is known as the father of modern geometry.
(4) This information was systematically presented by him in a set of 13 books.
(5) He complied information on geometry that was already available.

21. Which of the following should be the FOURTHsentence ?
(A) 5
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 3
(E) 4
Ans : (C)

22. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence ?
(A) 3
(B) 1
(C) 5
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (E)

23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 2
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

24. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence ?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 1
Ans : (C)

25. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence ?
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 3
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (E). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

26. If you does (A) / not work (B) / hard, you (C) / will not succeed. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

27. The candidate (A) / tried to convince (B) / the panel of the (C) / genuinely of his case. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

28. He ran so hardly (A) / that he (B) / was out (C) / of breath. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

29. Mohan was very (A) / concerned about (B) / is health which (C) / was deteriorating day by day. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

30. He dealing (A) / sternly (B) / with the (C) / offender. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

31. The man who (A) / was run on (B) / has been taken (C) / to the hospital. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

32. We started (A) / at a (B) / rapidity of pace (C) / towards the shore. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

33. She is (A) / the tallest (B) / of the (C) / two girls. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

34. He went (A) / to finding (B) / the buried (C) / treasure. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

35. No matter what (A) / they get some (B) / man always (C) / seem dissatisfied. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–45) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Dilip Kumar’s train was late and it …(36)… Mumbai a little after midnight. It was his first …(37)… to the city and the did not …(38)… where to go. He thought he would go to a dormitory where he would not have to pay any …(39)… but he did not know how to find one at that hour. He asked a porter to get him a cheap room. The porter asked him for fifty rupees, but Dilip waved him away and walked out of the station. He …(40)… through the streets and asked a number of people, but could not find a room cheap enough. He sat down on a bench in a park to …(41)… of what he should do next. He was very tired and fell …(42)… on the bench. He woke up the next morning, stiff on every limb, but he …(43)… when he …(44)… that it was the …(45)… night lodging that he had ever had.

36. (A) leave
(B) arrived
(C) halted
(D) reached
(E) went
Ans : (D)

37. (A) ambition
(B) visit
(C) parking
(D) rest
(E) check
Ans : (B)

38. (A) want
(B) know
(C) guess
(D) ask
(E) imagine
Ans : (B)

39. (A) rent
(B) interest
(C) lease
(D) allowance
(E) hire
Ans : (A)

40. (A) crept
(B) wandered
(C) across
(D) search
(E) go
Ans : (B)

41. (A) eat
(B) free
(C) think
(D) escape
(E) rest
Ans : (C)

42. (A) sound
(B) asleep
(C) above
(D) upon
(E) right
Ans : (D)

43. (A) amazed
(B) thought
(C) smiled
(D) cried
(E) shocked
Ans : (C)

44. (A) confusion
(B) reassured
(C) regretted
(D) realised
(E) resolved
Ans : (E)

45. (A) cheapest
(B) easy
(C) comfortable
(D) reliable
(E) free
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

46. They ……… very pleased to see us.
(A) foresee
(B) ignore
(C) find
(D) looks
(E) seem
Ans : (E)

47. The seating arrangement makes it difficult for the pupils to talk to ……… other.
(A) every
(B) among
(C) all
(D) for
(E) each
Ans : (E)

48. The university has ……… the government a lot of money.
(A) sanction
(B) cost
(C) asked
(D) labelled
(E) wasted
Ans : (C)

49. We ……… the whole day shopping.
(A) enjoy
(B) left
(C) had
(D) happened
(E) spent
Ans : (C)

50. I was sitting in a cafe, ……… for my friend.
(A) hoping
(B) knowing
(C) seeing
(D) waiting
(E) asking
Ans : (D)

Indian Economic Service / Indian Statistical Service General English Question Paper 2010

General English

Time Allowed: Three Hours
Maximum Marks: 100

Instructions

Candidates should attempt ALL questions unless otherwise directed.
The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.
Answers must be written only in English.
Candidates are requested to write clear, legible and concise answers and to adhere to word limits whenever indicated. Irrelevance, diffuseness and disorganization will be penalized. Failure to adhere to word limit will also be penalized.
précis question must be attempted only on the special précis sheet provided, which should  thereafter be fastened securely inside the answer book.

1. Write an essay on any one of the following topics in about 1000 – 1200 words.   40
(a) Causes and remedies for the Maoist- insurgency in the North – Eastern states.
(b) India’s Major Problem is not unemployment, rather ‘Unemployable educated’.
(c) Consequences of Global warming – Myth and reality.
(d) Where injustice Prevails, it is crime to be a silent spectator.

2. Write a précis of the following passage in about one-third of the original length using your own words as for as possible.
Please state the number of words used in your précis and suggest a suitable title.
(Note: the précis must be written only on the special sheet provided for this purpose – One word in each blocks – and the sheet should be fastened securely inside the answer book.)    20

“No matter how eloquently a dog may bark, he cannot tell you that his parents were poor but honest,” Said Bertrand Russell once. What the famous Philosopher asserted in effect is that language is the exclusive property of the human species. The idea of talking animals is as old and as
Wide spread among human societies as language itself. All cultures have legends in which some animal plays a speaking role.  All over West Africa, Children listen to folk tales in which a “spider man “is the hero. “Coyote” is a favourite figure in many Native American tales, and many an animal takes the stage in Aesop’s famous fables. The fictional Doctor Doolittle’s forte was communicating with all manner of animals, from giant snails to tiny sparrows.

If language is viewed only as a system of communication, than many species communicate.  Humans also use systems other than language to relate to each other and to send and receive “massage” like so called “body language.” The question is whether the communication system used by other species are at all like human linguistic knowledge, which is acquired by children with no external instruction, and which is used creatively rather than in response to internal or external stimuli.

Most humans who acquire language use speech sound to express meanings, but such sound are not a necessary aspect of language, as evidence by the sign languages. The use of speech sound is therefore not a basic part of what we have been calling language. The chirping of birds, the  squeaking of dolphins, and the dancing of bees may potentially represent systems similar to human languages. If animal communication systems are not like human languages, it will not be due to a lack of speech.

Conversely, when animals vocally imitate human utterances, it does not mean they possess language. Language is system that relates sounds or gestures to meanings. Talking birds such as parrots and mynah birds are capable of faithfully reproducing words and pharses of human languages that they have heard, but their utterances carry no meaning. They are speaking neither English nor their own language when they sound like us.

Talking birds do not dissect the sound of their imitations into discrete units. Polly and Molly do not rhyme for a parrot. They are as different as hello and goodbye. One property of all human languages is the discreteness of the speech of gestural units, which are ordered and recordered, combined and split apart. Generally, a parrot says what it is taught, or what it hears, and no more. If Polly learns “ Polly wants a cracker” and “ Polly wants a chocolate and also learn to imitiate the single words “ Cake” and “bun” she will not spontaneously produce, as children do,  “Polly wants a cake” or “polly wants a bun” or “Polly wants a cake and a bun.” If she learns Cat and Cats, and dog and dogs, and then learns the word parrot, she will be unable to form the plural parrots as children do by the age of three; nor can a parrot form an unlimited set of utterances from a finite set of units, nor understand utterances never heard before. Therefore, the ability to produce sounds similar to those used in human language, even if meanings are realated to these sounds, cannot be equated with the ability to acquire the complex grammer of human language.

3. Write a single  paragraph of about 200 words on any one of the following:   10
(a) Struggle with your mind is the greatest struggle.
(b) Sweet are the uses of adversity.
(c) Time heals even the deepest wound.
(d) Fortune Favours only the brave.

4. Use each of the following words to make sentences that brings out the meaning of each clearly. Do not change the form of the words. No marks will be given for vague or ambiguous sentences :    2x5 = 10
(a) Meltdown
(b) Imbroglio
(c) Cerebral
(d) Convergance
(e) Obligation

5. Rewrite each of the following sentences as directed without changing the meaning of each :  2x5 = 10
(a) The judgement was heard with rapt attention.
(Change the voice of the verb)

(b) The Kashmir problem is too complex to allow any amicable solution,
(Rewrite using “so….that”)
(c) The government banned all processions. Yet, the defiant workers took out a long procession.
(Combine the sentences to form ‘One simple sentence)
(d) The high command ousted the rebels. They formed a new party, They urged their friends also to resign from the old party.
(Combine the sentences to form one complex sentence)
6. Correct the following sentences without changing their meaning. Please do not make unnecessary change in the original sentence in each case.
In case you think there is no error, then write down the sentence as it is ; 1x10 = 10
(a) The women told me that there was no place in the compartment.
(b) Many computer professionals wear half pants these days.
(c) Mr. Amitabh Bachan is a tall gentleman.
(d) During the vacation, try to spend some time with your family members.
(e) The front side of the house looks impressive.
(f) Whenever Mary visits the Marina, she takes a bath in the sea.
(g) The new servant takes troubles to do his work.
(h) The class IV employees took insult at being called peons.
(i) As we climbed the mountain, we enjoyed the sceneries around.
(j) The students of third standard are learning a new poetry.

Prathama Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2011

English Language

(Held on 25-9-2011)

Directions–Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/expressions are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The Battle of Gettysburg was fought during the first three days of July, 1863. During the night of July 4, Lee began to retreat southward while storm clouds' deluged the country with rain. When Lee reached the Potomac river with his defeated army, he found a swollen, impassable river in front of him, and a victorious Union army behind him. Lee was in a trap. He couldn't escape. US President, Abraham Lincoln saw that. Here was a golden, heaven-sent opportunity - the opportunity to capture Lee's army and end the war immediately. So, with a surge of high hope, Lincoln ordered General Meade not to call a council of war but to attack Lee immediately. Lincoln telegraphed his orders and then sent a special messenger to Meade demanding immediate action.

And, what did General Meade do ? He did the very opposite of what he was told to do. He called a council of war in direct violation of Lincoln's orders. Finally the water receded and Lee escaped over the Potomac with his forces.

Lincoln was furious. "What does this mean ?" Lincoln cried "Great God ! What does this mean ? We had them within our grasp, and had only to stretch forth our hands and they were ours; yet nothing that I could say or do could make the army move. Under the circumstances, almost any general could have defeated Lee.

In bitter disappointment, Lincoln sat down and wrote Meade this letter. And remember, at this period of his life, he was extremely conservative and restrained in his phraseology. So this letter coming from Lincoln in 1863 was tantamount to the severest rebuke.

"My dear' General,

"I do not believe you appreciate the magnitude of the misfortune involved in Lee's escape. He was within our easy grasp, and to have closed upon him would, in connection with our other late successes, have ended the war. As it is, the war will be prolonged indefinitely. If you could not safely attack Lee last Monday, how can you possibly do so south of the river, when you can take with you very few -not more than two-thirds of the force you then had in hand ? It would be unreasonable to expect and I do not expect that you can now effect much. Your golden opportunity is gone, and I am distressed immeasurably because of it."

What do you suppose Meade did when he read that letter ?

Meade never saw that letter. Lincoln never mailed it. It was found among Lincoln's papers after his death.

My guess is – and this is only a guess – that after writing that letter, Lincoln looked out of the window and said to himself, "Just a minute. May be I ought not to be so hasty. It is easy enough for me to sit here in the quiet of the White House and order Meade to attack; but if I had been up at Gettysburg, and if I had seen as much blood as Meade had seen during the last week, and if my ears had been pierced with the screams and shrieks of the wounded and dying, maybe I wouldn't be so anxious to attack either."

1. Which of the following is the author's guess about the reason for Lincoln's withholding the letter to General Meade ?
(A) There was no point in lamenting over spilt milk as the matter was already over
(B) Decisions taken while sitting in ivory tower may not be as appropriate as those taken after witnessing the battle field
(C) The blood seen at the battle field and the shrieks of the dying heard by Lincoln
(D) General's views should be considered by President not-withstanding their merits
(E) He wanted to avoid confrontation with the General at that critical hour
Ans : (B)

2. What would have been the probable consequences had General Meade followed Lincoln's orders ?
(a) It would have prolonged the war further, indefinitely
(b) Lee's army would have got enough time for a safe escape
(c) The Council of war would not have granted permission to carry out the orders
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (a) and (c) only
(C) (b) and (c) only
(D) All the three (a), (b) and (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

3. Abraham Lincoln had ordered General Meade not to……………..
(a) attack Lee while he had been at a disadvantage due to flooded river
(b) let Lee escape so that the war could be ended immediately
(c) call a council of war to discuss the attack on Lee's forces
(A) All the three
(B) (a) and (b) only
(C) (a) and (c) only
(D) (b) and (c) only
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


4. In the context of the passage, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT……………..
(A) General Meade would have found it difficult to win the war after Lee's safe escape
(B) General Meade failed to end the war because of the swollen Potomac river
(C) Abraham Lincoln's orders were violated by General Meade
(D) When Potomac river was in spate, Lincoln considered it as a golden opportunity
(E) Abraham Lincoln refrained from sending the letter to General Meade
Ans : (B)

5. What was the situation that made Lee uncomfortable on the fourth day of war while retreating ?
(A) His army had been defeated in a very humiliating manner
(B) He was trapped in an ambush laid down by the enemy's army
(C) His army was sandwiched between enemy's forces and a swollen river
(D) Storm clouds had deluged the country with heavy rains
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. What could be the probable reason why General Meade didn't follow Lincoln's orders ?
General Meade……………..
(A) knew that Lincoln was not empowered to issue such orders
(B) did not wish to terminate war so early
(C) was rule-bound and wanted to follow orders of Council of War
(D) having defeated the enemy, wanted to avoid further bloodshed
(E) was aware of the danger of crossing the swollen Potomac river
Ans : (D)

7. What was the outcome of General Meade' s inaction on Abraham Lincoln's orders ?
(a) Lee and his army could escape safely
(b) It infuriated Abraham Lincoln
(c) Lee's army was defeated and had to retreat
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (a) and (c) only
(C) (b) and (c) only
(D) All the three
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. The contents of the passage reveal which qualities of General Meade ?
(A) Timidity and arrogance
(B) Courage and humanitarian consideration
(C) Obedience and bravery
(D) Treachery and lack of patriotism
(E) Undue compassion for enemy and lawlessness
Ans : (B)

9. Abraham Lincoln was extremely annoyed with General Meade because…………….. (A) the latter had hurt his ego by violating his orders
(B) the General had procrastinated on his orders due to inertia
(C) a golden opportunity to win the war early was lost
(D) the latter had colluded with the enemy General
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 10-12) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST NEARLY THE SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold.
10. Conservative
(A) Traditional
(B) Negative
(C) Backward
(D) Biased
(E) Unsymmetrical
Ans : (A)

11. Distressed
(A) Relieved
(B) Annoyed
(C) Sad
(D) Anxious
(E) Devastated
Ans : (B)

12. Grasp
(A) Understand
(B) Seize
(C) Knowledge
(D) Reach
(E) Assimilate
Ans : (B)

Directions–(Q. 13-15) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold.

13. Surge
(A) Thinning
(B) Flash
(C) Drought
(D) Iota
(E) Miniscule
Ans : (A)

14. Violation
(A) Breach
(B) Honouring
(C) Obedient
(D) Confirmation
(E) Regulation
Ans : (B)

15. Receded
(A) Accumulated
(B) Extended
(C) Deflated
(D) Reflected
(E) Advanced
Ans : (E)

Directions–(Q. 16-20) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) What made him one of the richest men in the USA ?
(b) He had hundreds of men working for him.
(c) And he knew how to handle these knowledgeable men.
(d) What made Andrew Carnegie a successful businessman?
(e) They knew far more about steel than he did.
(f) He was called the steel king, yet he himself knew little about manufacture of steel.

16. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (B)

17. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (E)

18. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (A)

19. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (f)
(B) (e)
(C) (d)
(D) (c)
(E) (b)
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (f)
(B) (e)
(C) (d)
(D) (c)
(E) (b)
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 21-25) Against each question number, an incomplete statement is provided. In the next column, there are fillers denoted by (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h) and (i). You have to find out which one, two or more of these can grammatically and meaningfully complete the incomplete statement provided against the question number. Accordingly, mark your answer where .answer choices are provided against question number repeated below the statement and fillers.
(a) he had to pay what the vendor had insisted on.
(b) yet, he seldom wins any easy bargain.
(c) yet, he somehow manages to maintain a win-win situation.
(d) and therefore, he always gets an edge over others.
(e) still, he rarely succeeds in being a beneficiary.
(f) but he refrains from seeking any benefits out of that strength.
(g) people are carried away by his perceived quality.
(h) he uses it for the society and not for self
(i) how can one expect him to benefit ?

21. His misunderstanding is that he acquired a good trick of the trade…………..
(A) (i) only
(B) Either (d) or (e)
(C) (g) only
(D) (d) only
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

22. He projects himself as a likeable person without really being so…………..
(A) (e) only
(B) (g) only
(C) (c) only
(D) (a) only
(E) Either (c) or (g)
Ans : (B)

23. His persuasive skills are of a higher order…………..
(A) (i) only
(B) (a) only
(C) (c) only
(D) (g)only
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

24. Despite being good at negotiations…………..
(A) (a) only
(B) (b) only
(C) Either (a) or (c)
(D) Either (a) or (b)
(E) Either (b) or (c)
Ans : (A)

25. He has serious limitations in convincing others…………..
(A) (e) only
(B) (a) only
(C) (c) only
(D) (d) only
(E) Either (d) or (e)
Ans : (C)

Directions –(Q. 26-35) Which of the following phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer i.e. "No Correction Required".

26. Favourable changes would be visible if proper information will be shared without any reservations.
(A) will be visible if proper information would be shared
(B) would be visible if proper information is shared
(C) would be visible through proper share of information
(D) were visible after share of information will be proper
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (B)

27. In the monsoon, large branches of trees suddenly break up and fall, wreck parked cars or a passing pedestrian.
(A) break up and fall suddenly, wreck
(B) suddenly break up, fall and wreck
(C) suddenly break off and fall, wrecking
(D) suddenly wreck, fall and break off
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

28. People had been motivated to join the movement to fight poverty and use the armed struggle to get social justice.
(A) are motivated to join
(B) were motivated to joining
(C) had motivation for joining
(D) had been motivated for joining
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)

29. The Government discovered that though the scientist's seniority was entitled the highest grade in the service, his claims had been over-looked.
(A) scientist was entitled to the I highest grade by his seniority
(B) seniority of the scientist had been entitled to the highest grade .
(C) highest grade was entitled to the scientist with his seniority
(D) seniority was a factor to decide entitlement of the scientist to highest grade
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (A)

30. Through the experiment, the boy, had gained just enough knowledge to whet his appetite for more.(A) just enough knowledge to his appetite whetting for more
(B) enough knowledge just to whet his appetite much more
(C) just enough knowledge for whetting more and more appetite
(D) knowledge enough to whet is much more appetite
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)

31. The relationship has perceived by people of both countries as mutually beneficial and rewarding, so that they will develop trust and confidence.
(A) perception of relationship between people
(B) perceived relationship among people
(C) relationship as perceived by people
(D) relationship has to perceived by people
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (D)

32. While acknowledging his knowledge and technical competence, the official sources lay down stress on his Integrity.(A) lay upon stress on the integrity
(B) lay off stress on his integrity
(C) lay stress on his integrity
(D) lay stress on him being a person on integrity
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

33. There is an impact assessment zone where radiation levels are regularly monitoring.
(A) level is regularly monitoring
(B) level is regular to monitor
(C) levels are regularly monitored
(D) level is monitoring regularly
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)

34. What should they do with the enormous wealth is their lookout.
(A) they should have done with the enormous wealth have
(B) should they do if the wealth is enormous is
(C) should they be doing for the enormous wealth is
(D) they should do with the enormous wealth is
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)

35. Those who voted for change in the region now wonder about its whereabouts.(A) are now wonderful about its whereabouts
(B) have now wondered of its whereabouts
(C) now wonder at whereabouts of themselves
(D) wonder about their whereabouts now
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 36-40) In each sentence below there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence, there are five pairs of words denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair best fits 'in the blanks in the same serial order to make the sentence meaningfully complete. The letter of that pair is the answer.

36. She had done her graduation and has……………..working in the company……………..nearly twenty years.
(A) is, since
(B) is, from
(C) was, since
(D) been, for
(E) started, about
Ans : (D)

37. Although I was……………..in front of the house, I could not……………..it due to lot of changes around.
(A) facing, find
(B) standing, recognize
(C) right, believe
(D) working, help
(E) alighted, sense
Ans : (B)

38. Spending time is not a……………..as there are numerous……………..to keep me busy.
(A) boon, action
(B) disaster, works
(C) difficulty, occasions
(D) solution, problems
(E) problem, activities
Ans : (E)

39. He realized that poverty can be……………..not by raising slogans, but by……………..more and more jobs for the unemployed.
(A) eliminated, doing
(B) handled, enhancing
(C) eradicated, creating
(D) elevated, assigning
(E) dealt, offering
Ans : (C)

40. When the suppliers came to know that the li1aterial we purchased was for……………..work, they offered generous discount and also made free……………..
(A) relief, delivery
(B) personal, supply
( C) our, manufacture
(D) exceptional, resources
(E) trivial, passage
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 41-50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The latest official figures of 2010 on ...(41)... say this: "A typical Indian worker is male,
...(42)... working in his midtwenties, is presumably better educated than before, ...(43)... most likely to find work as casual labour the ...(44)... secure of jobs. He is also more likely to ...(45)... a job, less likely to be interested in one, and will surely earn better money. His wife is less likely to work."

This is just the sort of ...(46)... that the government cautions observers not to paint, pointing to the formidable armies of the self-employed-those who ...(47)... your shoes, sell you roadside tea, and build a dhaba or a mechanic's shop-in the workforce. But be it the 'casual" workers or the self-employed, these are not the big, sweeping. ..( 48) ...that one expects to see 20 years after a big country starts liberalizing. ...(49) ..., the pro-portion of Indians in manufacturing jobs hasn't changed significantly ...(50)... the 90's.

41. (A) development
(B) economy
(C) employment
(D) education
(E) statistics
Ans : (C)

42. (A) decides
(B) starts
(C) neglects
(D) avoids
(E) pretends
Ans : (B)

43. (A) yet
(B) hence
(C) obviously
(D) and
(E) although
Ans : (A)

44. (A) financially
(B) more
(C) certainly
(D) least
(E) better
Ans : (D)

45. (A) assign
(B) seek
(C) create
(D) get
(E) delegate
Ans : (B)

46. (A) image
(B) guess
(C) riddle
(D) happening
(E) forecast
Ans : (A)

47. (A) wear
(B) polish
(C) handle
(D) sell
(E) steal
Ans : (B)

48. (A) realities
(B) tones
(C) alarms
(D) events
(E) changes
Ans : (A)

49. (A) Hence
(B) Liberally
(C) Subsequently
(D) Luckily
(E) Sadly
Ans : (E)

50. (A) before
(B) in
(C) since
(d) during
(E) over
Ans : (D)

Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2011

General English

(Held on 13-3-2011) 

Directions–(Q. 1 to 10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

The chasm between India's flourishing cities and bleak rural hinterland is narrowing. Spread across 650,000 villages, with an average population of l,100, rural villagers were long ...(1)... by city dwellers as primitive, impoverished and irrelevant, something to drive past on the way to something else. That is no longer the ...(2) ... Anew prosperity is ...(3)... in rural India, with tens of millions entering the pressure-cooker-and-tele-vision-owning class and tens of thousands becoming sippers of Scotch, ...(4)... of premium tractors and drivers of multiple sedans.

The opening of this new frontier of consumer demand from 700 million people could tip India's role in the global economy from seller to buyer, from a vendor of outsourced skills to a source of consumers for the world's ...(5)....Mulinational corporations, appear increasingly ...(6)... to understand Indian villagers. Rural dwellers are now nearly twice as likely to be crorepatis as city dwellers in Bangalore, the high-technology hub, according to the National Council for Applied Economic Research. It may be a trickle, but India's urban prosperity is flowing to the countryside and well-to-do villages are early testing grounds of ...(7)... the benefits of India's economic makeover and opening to the world will flow to its villagers, many of them living in its poorest rural nooks. The ...(8)... of such villages will also add fuel to the debate over democracy's influence on economic development. India has been faulted for growing more lethargically than China, in part because of its democracy. But the new rural prosperity ...(9)... that the high cost democracy also has a hidden benefit. By compelling each politician to ...(10)... results to his own narrow constituency, democracy spreads economic change more thinly. But that in turn broadens the consensus in favour of change, perhaps making liberalization more sustainable in India than in China.

1. (A) wished
(B) awaited
(C) imagined
(D) abolished
(E) drawn
Ans : (C)

2. (A) question
(B) case
(C) feature
(D) issue
(E) views
Ans : (B)

3. (A) emerged
(B) visual
(C) associating
(D) sprouting
(E) instilling
Ans : (D)


4. (A) sellers
(B) owners
(C) makers
(D) marketers
(E) hirers
Ans : (B)

5. (A) price
(B) wares
(C) stuff
(D) commodity
(E) today
Ans : (E)

6. (A) aware
(B) disinterested
(C) keen
(D) intend
(E) tough
Ans : (C)

7. (A) really
(B) about
(C) since
(D) if
(E) whether
Ans : (A)

8. (A) transformation
(B) propensity
(C) downfall
(D) revolution
(E) decrease
Ans : (D)

9. (A) suggests
(B) narrates
(C) says
(D) show
(E) remarks
Ans : (E)

10. (A) derive
(B) distribute
(C) give
(D) seek
(E) deliver
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 11 to 15) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

11. NA8ARD has the responsibility of lay down the policies for the RRBs, to oversee their operations, provide refinance facilities, to monitor their performance and to attend their problems.
(A) to laid down
(B) of laying down
(C) on lays down
(D) for lay downs
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

12. Groundwater and surface water are traditionally concerned of rural communities, as those communities are almost exclusively served by well water.
(A) a tradition of concern
(B) traditions of concerning
(C) traditionally concerns
(D) tradition for concerned
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

13. The very publicised mid day meal scheme meant to reduce dropout rates in schools seems to be not yielding the desired results.
(A) much publicised
(B) many publicity
(C) too public
(D) little publicity of
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

14. No like the urban schools and colleges, the schools in rural areas do not encourage the children to excel in extra-curricular activities.
(A) Similarly to
(B) Inspite of
(C) Unlike
(D) Despite
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

15. The government said that the iron levels in groundwater were higher than that prescribe in 254 districts.
(A) then those prescribe
(B) then that prescribed
(C) prescription
(D) than those prescribed
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 16 to 20) Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
(1) Therefore, it is important to source a large part of economic growth in agriculture, in rural non-agricultural activities and in productive expansion of the informal sector which all have high employment elasticities, as well as in an export strategy based on labour intensive exports.
(2) It is important because it creates more resources and has the potential of creating more space for the involvement of the poor.
(3) If the growth is sourced upon those sectors of the economy or those activities that have a natural tendency to involve the poor in their expansion, such growth helps poverty eradication.
(4) Economic growth is important.
(5) But this involvement depends on the sources of growth and the nature of growth.

16. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

17. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 1
Ans : (D)

18. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

19. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(6) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 1
Ans : (C)

20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(6) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 21 to 25) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. A model-based approach has been …………….to identify the factors that are …………….for the problems faced by the rural areas.
(A) pursued, guilty
(B) placed, accountable
(C) approved, made
(D) identified, liable
(E) adopted,. Responsible
Ans : (E)

22. Farm living is dependent on …………….environmental conditions, and in times of drought, flood or pestilence, survival becomes extremely …………….
(A) irregular, simple
(B) sedentary, dangerous
(C) erratic, easy
(D) unpredictable, problematic
(E) impulsive, tough
Ans : (D)

23. It is also a …………….of industrialization that farms become more mechanized, putting many labourers out of …………….
(A) result, work
(B) point, city
(C) idea, labour
(D) consequence, bounds
(E) cause, employment
Ans : (A)

24. since their inception, regional rural banks (RRBs) have taken …………….roots and have become a sort of. …………….part of the rural credit structure in India.
(A) many, frivolous
(B) to, vital
(C) several, small
(D) all, essential
(E) deep, inseparable
Ans : (E)

25. Any new proposal in the education sector should …………….the chances for the rural poor to have a …………….education at par with their urban counter parts in their villages themselves.
(A) increase, well
(B) improve, good
(C) search, standard
(D) glorify, better
(E) lessen, regular
Ans : (B)

Directions–(Q. 26 to 35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i. e. 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

26. Neither the opera singers or (A) the general public had seen as (B) much glitter (C) in years as they did during Turandot, the finale (D) of the opera season. No error (E)
Ans : (A)

27. His story about the strange beings (A) in a space ship was so (B) incredulous (C) that (D) no one believed him. No error (E)
Ans : (C)

28. The hot air ballon had burst as they were preparing (A) for launch, (B) and the platform had broke (C) as a result. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

29. I fail to understand (A) why (B) you are seeking my council (C) after the way you ignored (D) my advice last week. No error (E)
Ans : (C)

30. Ann Landers, whose (A) name is a household word to millions of (B) readers, are (C) well-known (D) for family advice. No error (E)
Ans : (C)

31. Between you and I, (A) the highway department must review bridge construction across the country (B) in order to (C) avoid major catastrophes resulting from (D) mental fatigue. No error (E)
Ans : (A)

32. Child custody in surrogate mother cases is just one of the many (A) controversial issues which (B) are (C) currently being decided upon (D) in the courts. No error (E)
Ans : (D)

33. John usually eats a quick lunch, ignoring (A) the question of whether (B) what (C) he eats is healthy or (D) not. No error (E)
Ans : (E)

34. If (A) you continue to drive so recklessly, (B) you are likely (C) to have a serious accident in the very (D) near future. No error (E)
Ans : (E)

35. The general along with (A) the members of his general staff (B) seem (C) to favour immediate retaliation (D) at this time. No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 36 to 43) Read the passage carefully and answers the questions correctly.

This is a time when the demography of our population is changing significantly to drive organized retail growth. India now has a large young working population with a median age of 24. The number of nuclear families in urban areas is growing fast. Then there is the increase in working women population. Add to these the emerging opportunities in the service sector. Lifestyle habits are shifting from austerity to complete self-indulgence and Indians are now unapologetic about spending lavishly on non-essential goods such as luxury watches, cars, and hi-tech products.

India can be said to have entered the second phase of retail growth when there is high-speed growth. There are retail chains along with global players which are trying to tap the country's vast potential. Bringing all these under one roof are mega malls. Now, top names in inter-national malls are also eyeing the Indian market. It is only later that the retailing scene will move to the other phases when the fruits of rapid growth will result in economies of scale and greater efficiency leading finally to consolidation through mergers and acquistions. Thus, retailing in India has a very long haul ahead.

In India for a long time a large chunk of retail outlets were grocery shops. This pattern had been changing in recent years, in urban and rural markets. Of late, India's largely rural population has also caught the eye of retailers looking for new areas of growth. A slew of supermarket chains are set to storm the rural areas of the country as corporates realize the huge potential of the untapped market. A well-known brand launched the country's first rural mall, offering a diverse product range from FMCG to electronic appliances to automobiles, attempting to provide farmers a one-stop destination for all of their needs. Other companies are launching 'one-stop shops' for farmers and their communities too.

As clear from the story of some of the companies already established, organized retail sector can bring a revolutionary change in rural India unless it goes for quick short-term gains. With Walmart famous for its 'Always Low Prices' coming to India, Indian farmers and rural craftsmen can hope for a better direct deal. Retailing does not benefit just the consumer. It can give huge benefits to other industries, to government, and to the entire economy.

The rural market is no longer a non-player in the retail game. It is now accounting for about one-third of the market for most durable and non-durable products. Even manufacturers are developing new products with the rural consumer in mind besides using village-oriented marketing strategies for brand promotions. Whether it is an actress promoting a chocolate of a cricketer wowing village lads with a soft drink, both ad makers as well as top company honchos know where to put their money and how. The rural market is no longer of hypothetical empirical value but is well researched and reached by most companies looking to tap India's vast and abundant bounty.

The Indian retail scenario is poised for a quantum leap. Not only are newer names set to dot the retail landscape but also new and emerging retail formats will drive the diversity of the fast-changing retail backdrop. Organized Retail means 'Big Stores' a common myth. ..nothing can be further from the truth. In its very essence, organized retailing is about "aggregating value" and what shape, size and configuration your customer facing entity takes is largely a function of your offer and proposition. A growing population, a young workforce and zooming consumer confidence will fuel the expansion of the retail sector. As organized retail in rural India awaits the arrival of known companies, current majors are expanding their retail operations by setting up more stores, entering new states and offering newer product categories. A shift from selling agri-inputs will help these stores target the non-farming segments. It is a little known fact that, while 25% of the rural population is not engaged in agriculture, it earns 50% of the rural income. The retail
market is the next growth frontier for corporate India. It offers an opportunity for a large player to build a Rs. 40,000 cr retail business spanning multiple categories by 2015 (at current prices). However, to capitalize on the opportunity, a player needs to be aggressive in his outlook and build scale quickly.

36. What according to the author is 'Organized Retailing' ?
(A) Setting up a number of stores in a short span of time in order to achieve visibility
(B) Selling the same products under different names
(C) Assigning a higher value to all products so that a greater margin of profit is attained in a shorter span of time
(D) Adapting one's strategy of selling or making products according to customer needs and demands
(E) Building bigger stores to attract more number of people
Ans : (D)

37. What according to the author, is not well known ?
(A) Encouraging the retail industries to set up stores in the rural areas will lead to disaster
(B) Half of the income in rural areas comes from people engaged in non-agricultural activities
(C) People in the rural areas are unwilling to spend on products other than those related to
agriculture
(D) People in the rural areas have a very limited spending capacity because of low incomes
(E) Rural areas have a high potential for success of retail industries
Ans : (B)

38. Which of the following, according to the author, is/are the reason/s for the change in the spending habits of Indians ?
(1) Increase in the number of youngsters securing jobs
(2) Increase in the number of employed women
(3) Increase in the number of nuclear families
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (3)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (E)

39. Which of the following can aptly replace the phrase 'caught the eye of' as used in the passage ?
(A) made a demand for
(B) been painful to
(C) been noticed by
(D) paid attention to
(E) sought approval of
Ans : (C)

40. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) Retail Industry – The Way Ahead For Farmers
(B) Retail Industry – Growth Opportunities
(C) Walmart and the Retail Industry
(D) Challenges faced by the Retail Industry
(E) The History of Retail Industry
Ans : (B)

41. Which of the following is true about rural market, as given in the passage ?
(1) Product are being designed to suit rural requirements.
(2) Companies are taking into account rural settings while conceptualizing advertisements.
(3) It forms around 33 per cent of the consumers of most retail products.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (1)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (E)

42. Which of the following is true about Walmart, as given in the passage ?
(1) Walmart achieved a fair amount of success in smaller towns of the US.
(2) Walmart has presence in all the countries.
(3) Goods sold at Walmart are priced low.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (1)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) Only (3)
Ans : (E)

43. What is the present situation of retail growth in India ?
(A) The growth of the retail sector is progressing at a medium pace and India lacks the resources to capitalize on the potential market
(B) India's growth in the retail sector can be compared to the growth of the US in the same
(C) India has a huge untapped market for the retail sector which at present only the international companies are using to their advantage
(D) India is witnessing rapid growth in the retail sector with most companies trying to make maximum of the available market
(E) India is witnessing a lot of mergers and acquisitions in the retail sector
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 44 to 47) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

44. NUCLEAR
(A) One
(B) Central
(C) Single
(D) Extended
(E) Joint
Ans : (C)

45. ZOOMING
(A) Fast
(B) Whizzing
(C) Increasing
(D) Burning
(E) Quick
Ans : (B)

46. AGGRESSIVE
(A) Forceful
(B) Hostile
(C) Violent
(D) Antagonistic
(E) Destructive
Ans : (C)

47. DURABLE
(A) Perishable
(B) Existing
(C) Settlement
(D) Long-lasting
(E) Ever-lasting
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 48 to 50) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

48. DIVERSITY
(A) Fairness
(B) Uniformity
(C) Reliability
(D) Difference
(E) Equality
Ans : (B)

49. UNAPOLOGETIC
(A) Guilty
(B) Reformed
(C) Unrepentant
(D) Ignorant
(E) Accountable
Ans : (A)

50. UNTAPPED
(A) Over-insistent
(B) More frequent
(C) Available
(D) Intact
(E) Over-exploited
Ans : (E)

UPSC Special Class Railway Apprentices' Examination 2012

A competitive examination for recruitment of candidates as Special Class Apprentices in Mechanical Department of Indian Railways will be held by the Union Public Service Commission in accordance with the Rules published by the Ministry of Railways (Railway Board).
Important Dates

• Opening date for online registration: 22 October 2011
• Closing date for online registration: 21 November 2011 till 11.59 PM
• Date of written examination: 29 January 2012
• Declaration of Written Examination Result: March/ April 2012

Eligibility Criteria
Educational Qualification
Candidates must have passed in the first or second division, the Intermediate or an equivalent Examination of a University or Board approved by the Government of India with Mathematics and at least one of the subjects Physics and Chemistry as subjects of the examination. Graduates with Mathematics and at least one of the subjects Physics and Chemistry as their degree subjects may also apply; OR
Must have passed in the first or second divsion, the Higher Secondary (12 years) Examination under 10 plus 2 pattern of School Education with Mathematics and at least one of the subjects Physics and Chemistry as subjects of the examination; OR
Must have passed the first year Examination under the three year degree course of a university or the first examination of the three year diploma course in Rural Service of the National Council for Rural Higher Education or the third year Examination for promotion to the 4th year of the four year BA/BSc (Evening College) Course of the Madras University with Mathematics and at least one of the subjects Physics and Chemistry as subjects of the examination provided that before joining the degree/ diploma course he/she passed the Higher Secondary Examination or the Pre-University or equivalent examination in the first or second division.
Candidates who have passed the first/second year examination under the three-years degree course in the first or second division with Mathematics and either Physics or Chemistry as subjects of the Examination may also apply; provided the first/ second year examination is conducted by a University; OR
Must have passed in the first or second division the Pre-Engineering Examination of a University, approved by the Government of India; OR
Must have passed in the first or second division the Pre-Professional/ Pre-Technological Examination of any Indian University or a recognised Board, with Mathematics and at least, one of the subjects Physics and Chemistry as subjects of the examination conducted one year after the Higher Secondary or Pre-University stage; OR
Must have passed the first year examination under the five year Engineering Degree Course of a University: Provided that before joining the Degree Course, he/she passed the Higher Secondary Examination or pre-University or equivalent Examination in the first or second division.
Candidates who have passed the first year Examination of the five-year Engineering Degree Course in the first or second division may also apply provided the first year Examination is conducted by a University; OR
Must have passed in the first or second division the Pre-Degree Examination of the Universities of Kerala and Calicut with Mathematics and at least one of the subjects Physics and Chemistry as subjects of the Examination.
Age Limit (as on 1 January 2012): Minimum 17 years; Maximum 21 years
Application Fee: Application Fee for General and OBC category candidates is Rs 100 either by remitting the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using net banking facility of SBI or by using Visa/ Master Credit/ Debit Card. Female/ SC/ ST/ PH candidates are exempted from payment of Fee.
Selection Procedure: The competitive examination for the Special Class Railway Apprentices' Examination 2012 comprises of the following

• Written Examination (600 marks)

	Subjects	Code No.	Time Allowed	Maximum Marks
Paper-I	General Ability Test (English, General Knowledge and Psychological Test)	01	2 Hours	200
Paper-II	Physical Sciences (Physics and Chemistry)	02	2 Hours	200
Paper-III	Mathematics	03	2 Hours	200
Total				600 marks

•  Interview (200 marks)

How to Apply: Interested Candidates may apply Online by using the website http://www.upsconline.nic.in/ De
 For more information; please CLICK HERE or refer Employment Newspaper dated 22 October- 28 October 2011

Uttar Pradesh Lecturer Recruitment Exam.

English 

1. Which poem of Keats has the following lines ?
Heard Melodies are sweet, but those unheard Are sweeter : therefore, ye soft pipes, play on.
(A) Ode on a Grecian Urn
(B) Ode to a Nightingale
(C) Ode on Melancholy
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. When was Lamb born ?
(A) 1775
(B) 1834
(C) 1744
(D) 1829
Ans : (A)

3. Which pseudonym was adopted by Lamb for his essays ?
(A) Elia
(B) Charles
(C) Lamb
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Which of the following is not a work by Lamb ?
(A) John Woodvil
(B) The Old Familiar Faces
(C) Hester
(D) Lalla Rookh
Ans : (D)

5. How many acts are there in Shelley’s lyrical drama Prometheus Unbound ?
(A) One
(B) Three
(C) Four
(D) Five
Ans : (C)


6. Who was the father of Matthew Arnold ?
(A) Edwin Arnold
(B) Thomas Arnold
(C) A. H. Clough
(D) None of them
Ans : (B)

7. Whose death was commemorated by Arnold in Thyrsis ?
(A) Arthur Hugh Clough
(B) Tennyson
(C) Edwin Arnold
(D) None of them
Ans : (A)

8. Arnold’s celebrated poem ‘The Scholar Gipsy’ is based on an old legend, narrated by Glanvil in—
(A) The Schoolmaster
(B) Palmerin of England
(C) The Vanity of Dogmatizing
(D) The Shepherd of Salisbury Plain
Ans : (C)

9. In whose memory was ‘In Memoriam’ written ?
(A) Arthur H. Hallam
(B) Alexander Pope
(C) Robert Browning
(D) None of them
Ans : (A)

10. Which poem of Tennyson contains the following lines ?
Yet all experience is an arch wherethro’
Gleams that untravelled world, whose margin fades
For ever and for ever when I move.
(A) Crossing the Bar
(B) Ulysses
(C) Tears, Idle Tears
(D) The Lotos-Eaters
Ans : (B)

11. Which is the first section of Eliot’s The Waste Land ?
(A) The Burial of the Dead
(B) A Game of Chess
(C) The Fire Sermon
(D) Death By Water
Ans : (A)

12. In which critical essay did Eliot make the following statement ?
“The historical sense compels a man to write not merely with his own generation in his bones, but with a feeling that the whole of the literature of Europe from Homer has a simultaneous existence and composes a simultaneous order.”
(A) Tradition and the Individual Talent
(B) The Metaphysical Poets
(C) Both of these
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

13. What is the title of Kamala Das’ autobiography ?
(A) Summer in Calcutta
(B) The Descendants
(C) My Story
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

14. Which poem of Kamala Das has the following expression ?
“Why not leave Me alone, critics, friends, visiting cousins,
Every one of you ? Why not let me speak in Any Language I like ?”
(A) The Maggots
(B) The Doubt
(C) An Introduction
(D) Luminol
Ans : (C)

15. When was Robert Frost born ?
(A) 1874
(B) 1963
(C) 1706
(D) 1790
Ans : (A)

16. Which one of the following is not a pastoral elegy ?
(A) Milton’s Lycidas
(B) Shelley’s Adonais
(C) Arnold’s Thyrsis
(D) Pope’s the Rape of the Lock
Ans : (D)

17. Which of the following is correctly matched ?
(A) Hyperbole—A figure of speech in which emphasis is achieved by deliberate exaggeration.
(B) Oxymoron—A figure of speech consisting generally of two apparently contradictory terms that express a startling paradox
(C) Metaphor—A figure of speech in which two unlike objects are compared by identification or by the substitution of one for the other.
(D) All of three options are matched correctly
Ans : (D)

18. When was Shakespeare born ?
(A) 1564
(B) 1616
(C) 1671
(D) 1713
Ans : (A)

19. Who has spoken the following words in Shakespeare’s Macbeth ?
The sleeping and the dead Are but as pictures; tis the eye of childhood That fears a painted devil.
(A) First witch
(B) Second witch
(C) Third witch
(D) None of them
Ans : (D)

20. Which of the following is a poem by Wordsworth ?
(A) Daffodils
(B) On first looking into Chapman’s Homer
(C) The Forsaken Merman
(D) The Last Ride Together
Ans : (A)

21. Keats dropped the first stanza of one of his ‘Odes’. It was from—
(A) Ode to Psyche
(B) Ode to Melancholy
(C) Ode to Apollo
(D) Ode on Indolence
Ans : (C)

22. ‘The Old Playhouse’ by Kamala Das is a poem of—
(A) Surrender to male domination
(B) Protest against male domination
(C) Harmony between husband and wife
(D) Jealousy
Ans : (B)

23. Who among the Indian politicians was inspired by the following lines ?
The woods are lovely, dark and deep,
But I have promises to keep,
And miles to go before I sleep.
And miles to go before I sleep.
(A) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) M. K. Gandhi
(D) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
Ans : (A)

24. Point out the figure of speech in the following line—
Like a patient etherised upon a table.
(A) Metaphor
(B) Climax
(C) Simile
(D) Personification
Ans : (D)

25. Which of the following novel is not by Mulk Raj Anand ?
(A) Untouchable
(B) Coolie
(C) Two Leaves and a Bud
(D) The Second Wife
Ans : (D)

26. Choose the correctly spelt word—
(A) Farenheit
(B) Ferenheit
(C) Fahrenheit
(D) Fahrenheight
Ans : (C)

27. ‘Archaic’ means—
(A) Decent
(B) Clumsy
(C) Modern
(D) Primitive
Ans : (D)

28. The antonym of BELLIGERENT is—
(A) Cooperative
(B) Peaceful
(C) Revolutionary
(D) Uninterested
Ans : (B)

29. Choose the most appropriate preposition—
A good judge never jumps …… the conclusion.
(A) to
(B) into
(C) on
(D) for
Ans : (A)

30. Mark the part which contains an error in the following sentence. If there is no error in it, mark (D) as your choice—
Although (A) there are some similarities in the qualifications of the two candidates, (B) the differences among (C) them are quite pronounced. No error (D)
Ans : (C)

31. Choose the most appropriate preposition—
The patient was disappointed ……… not finding the doctor in his seat.
(A) at
(B) on
(C) from
(D) in
Ans : (B)

32. The synonym of VANGUARD is—
(A) Watchmen
(B) Protectors
(C) Security men
(D) Forefront
Ans : (D)

33. The antonym of UNIMPEACHABLE is—
(A) Corruptible
(B) Blameworthy
(C) Calculating
(D) Mysterious
Ans : (B)

34. Choose the most appropriate preposition—
Your conduct smacks ……… recklessness.
(A) in
(B) from
(C) with
(D) of
Ans : (D)

35. Choose the correctly spelt word—
(A) Souvenir
(B) Suvenire
(C) Suvenir
(D) Souvenire
Ans : (A)

36. ‘Abysmal’ means—
(A) Vigour
(B) Explosion
(C) Horrifying
(D) Mixed
Ans : (C)

37. ‘Harangue’ implies—
(A) Lecture
(B) Quarrel
(C) Beautify
(D) Run
Ans : (B)

38. ‘Goulash’ stands for—
(A) Top
(B) Stew
(C) Shoe
(D) Play
Ans : (B)

39. ‘Impromptu’ means—
(A) Unimportant
(B) Unreal
(C) Offhand
(D) Effective
Ans : (C)

40. The synonym of PONTIFICAL is—
(A) Boastful
(B) Wordy
(C) Splendid
(D) Advisory
Ans : (C)

41. A teetotaller is—
(A) One who totally abstains from wine
(B) One who does not take any intoxicating drinks
(C) One who is very fond of sensuous enjoyments
(D) One who has irresistible desire for alcohol
Ans : (B)

42. Replace the italicized portion in the following sentence with one phrase—
In the present times, the real sufferers are the people belonging to the middle classes of society.
(A) Bourgeoisie
(B) Elite
(C) Inter alia
(D) Proletarian
Ans : (A)

43. What is the correct meaning of the idiom “To meet one’s Waterloo” ?
(A) To meet a new person
(B) To visit a new place
(C) To meet one’s final defeat
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

44. What do you mean by the idiom “Yeoman’s Service” ?
(A) Private work
(B) Govt. work
(C) Meanest work
(D) Excellent work
Ans : (D)

45. Fill in the blank with correct article—
Ganga is ……… sacred river.
(A) the
(B) a
(C) an
(D) none
Ans : (B)

46. Fill in the blank with most appropriate choice—
The sun ………, the fog disappeared.
(A) is rising
(B) have risen
(C) having risen
(D) rises
Ans : (C)

47. Which kind of sentence is the following ?
He confessed that he had committed the crime.
(A) Complex
(B) Compound
(C) Simple
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. What is the meaning of the word ‘Demagogue’ ?
(A) An unprincipled popular leader
(B) A leader who changes political parties
(C) A leader who is committed to the nation
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

49. ‘Menagerie’ is the place for—
(A) Fish and water plants
(B) Wild animals and birds
(C) Ammunition and weapons
(D) Invalids to enjoy good health
Ans : (B)

50. Choose the correct antonym of the word ‘Prodigality’—
(A) Parsimony
(B) Frugal
(C) Economical
(D) Spendthrift
Ans : (C)

51. Who was ‘Machiavelli’ ?
(A) A Florentine Statesman
(B) An American Statesman
(C) An Italian Statesman
(D) A French Statesman
Ans : (C)

52. For whom Keats used the term ‘Egotistical Sublime’ ?
(A) Coleridge
(B) Shelley
(C) Byron
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (D)

53. Who was the father of ‘Eassais’ ?
(A) Montaigne
(B) Rousseau
(C) Wyatt
(D) Dowden
Ans : (A)

54. The essay ‘South Sea House’ has been written by—
(A) Bacon
(B) Lamb
(C) Stevenson
(D) Addison
Ans : (B)

55. Who used the epithet ‘gentle hearted Charles’, for Charles Lamb ?
(A) Wordsworth
(B) Keats
(C) Browning
(D) Coleridge
Ans : (D)

56. In which poem do the following lines occurs ?
“They flash upon that inward eye Which is the bliss of solitude.”
(A) The Education of Nature
(B) Daffodils
(C) The World is Too Much with Us
(D) Tintern Abbey
Ans : (B)

57. ‘Sir Bedivere’ figures in the poem—
(A) Morte D’Arthur
(B) The Princess
(C) Locksley Hall
(D) Jean, Idle Jean
Ans : (A)

58. Who is the author of the poem ‘Shakespeare’ ?
(A) Tennyson
(B) Browning
(C) Matthew Arnold
(D) Wordsworth
Ans : (C)

59. Who has been regarded as a representative Victorian novelist ?
(A) Charles Dickens
(B) Charles Reade
(C) Charles Kinsley
(D) Thackeray
Ans : (A)

60. ‘Under the Greenwood Tree’ is a novel by—
(A) Thomas Hardy
(B) Charles Dickens
(C) Thackeray
(D) George Eliot
Ans : (A)

61. Ernest Hemingway was awarded the Nobel prize for the novel—
(A) For Whom the Bell Tolls
(B) The Old Man and the Sea
(C) A Farewell to Arms
(D) The Sun also Rises
Ans : (B)

62. The character ‘Robert Jordan’ figures in—
(A) For Whom the Bell Tolls
(B) The Old Man and the Sea
(C) In Our Times
(D) A Farewell to Arms
Ans : (D)

63. From which poem of Whitman are the following lines taken ?
O powerful western fallen star !
O shades of night-O moody, tearful night !
(A) O Captain ! My Captain !
(B) When Lilacs Last in the Dooryard Bloomed
(C) Crossing Brooklyn Ferry
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

64. From which poem of Robert Frost are the following lines taken ?
“They click upon themselves As the breeze rises, and turn many coloured ….”
(A) Birches
(B) After Apple Picking
(C) Mending Wall
(D) The Road Not Taken
Ans : (B)

65. Which play of Shakespeare opens with the line
“If music be the food of love, play on :” ?
(A) The Tempest
(B) Twelfth Night
(C) Macbeth
(D) Romeo and Juliet
Ans : (B)

66. When did the first edition of Lyrical Ballads appear ?
(A) 1698
(B) 1798
(C) 1898
(D) 1794
Ans : (B)

67. To whom is Wordsworth’s autobiographical poem The Prelude addressed ?
(A) Jane Austen
(B) Coleridge
(C) Pope
(D) Dr. Johnson
Ans : (B)

68. In ‘Three Years She Grew’, the litle girl will be sportive as—
(A) The Lawn
(B) The Fawn
(C) Stars
(D) Rivulets
Ans : (B)

69. Which work was described by Keats as ‘a feverish attempt rather than a deed accomplished’ ?
(A) Endymion
(B) Hyperion
(C) The Eve of St. Agnes
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

70. When did Keats die ?
(A) 1795
(B) 1789
(C) 1821
(D) 1777
Ans : (C)

71. Shelley’s ‘Alastor’ is also called—
(A) The Spirit of Solitude
(B) Queen Mab
(C) Stanzas Written in Dejection Near Naples
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

72. Whose death is mourned by Shelley in Adonais ?
(A) Keats
(B) Wordsworth
(C) Coleridge
(D) None of them
Ans : (A)

73. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) When the lips have spoken, Loved accents are soon forgot — When the Lamp is Shattered
(B) Nothing beside remains Round the decay Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare, The lone and level sands stretch far away — Ozymandias
(C) Oh, lift me as a wave, a leaf, a cloud ! I fall upon the thorns of life ! I bleed ! — Ode to the West Wind
(D) A heavy weight of hours has chained and bowed One too like thee : tameless, and swift, and proud —Adonais
Ans : (D)

74. Which of the following is not by Dickens ?
(A) The Cricket on the Hearth
(B) The Old Curiosity Shop
(C) Barnaby Rudge
(D) Old Fortunatus
Ans : (A)

75. Which of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Thomas Gradgrind—Hard Times
(B) Richard Carstone—Bleak House
(C) Ada Clare—Bleak House
(D) Abel Magwitch—Oliver Twist
Ans : (D)

76. Which is / are the novel / novels by Hardy ?
(A) The Trumpet Major
(B) Desperate Remedies
(C) Jude the Obscure
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

77. What is the title of Hardy’s epic drama ?
(A) The Dynasts
(B) The Mayor of Casterbridge
(C) Far from the Madding Crowd
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

78. Which one of the following is not a drama by Eliot ?
(A) Ash Wednesday
(B) Murder in the Cathedral
(C) The Family Reunion
(D) The Cocktail Party
Ans : (A)

79. Who has written the book The Art of T. S. Eliot ?
(A) Elizabeth Drew
(B) Helen Gardner
(C) T. S. Eliot
(D) Grover Smith
Ans : (B)

80. When was T. S. Eliot born ?
(A) 1888
(B) 1905
(C) 1906
(D) 1907
Ans : (A)

81. One of the characters of Shakespeare has been called the fourth witch. She is—
(A) Ophelia
(B) Lady Macbeth
(C) Emilia
(D) Juliet
Ans : (B)

82. Point out the figure of speech in the following line—
O World ! O Life ! O Time !
(A) Apostrophe
(B) Climax
(C) Pun
(D) Personification
Ans : (A)

83. Who is the author of ‘Tintern Abbey’ ?
(A) Matthew Arnold
(B) John Keats
(C) William Wordsworth
(D) Coleridge
Ans : (C)

84. Michael Henchard began his life as a—
(A) Driver
(B) Carpenter
(C) Weaver
(D) Hay-trusser
Ans : (D)

85. Who has composed the following line ?
To me that cup has been dealt in another measure.
(A) John Keats
(B) Shakespeare
(C) Robert Southey
(D) P. B. Shelley
Ans : (D)

86. Hemingway, the novelist was—
(A) An American
(B) A British
(C) A Canadian
(D) A South African
Ans : (A)

87. T. S. Eliot’s ‘The Waste Land’ was published in—
(A) 1910
(B) 1918
(C) 1930
(D) 1922
Ans : (D)

88. Point out the figure of speech in the following line—
Where Beauty cannot keep her lustrous eyes.
(A) Pun
(B) Personification
(C) Simile
(D) Oxymoron
Ans : (B)

89. Who has penned the following lines ?
I am sinner,
I am saint. I am the beloved and the Betrayed.
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Nissim Ezekiel
(C) Kamala Das
(D) Sarojini Naidu
Ans : (C)

90. The idiom ‘hush money’ means—
(A) The money spent at midnight
(B) The bribe paid to keep some matter secret
(C) The money received in a dark room
(D) The money received in paper currency
Ans : (B)

91. Mark the part which contains an error in the following sentence. If there is no error in it, mark (D) as your choice—
One should (A) take advantage of opportunities to talk with native orators if one wants (B) to improve his (C) English. No error (D)
Ans : (C)

92. Mark the part which contains an error in the following sentence. If there is no error in it, mark (D) as your choice—
The great poet and dramatist, the Kalidas, is regarded (A) as the (B) Shakespeare (C) of India. No error (D)
Ans : (A)

93. The antonym of ALACRITY is—
(A) Inaptitude
(B) Hesitation
(C) Uncertainty
(D) Inability
Ans : (B)

94. The synonym of AVIARY is—
(A) Prison
(B) Reformatory
(C) Large cage for birds
(D) Zoo officer
Ans : (C)

95. What is the meaning of the idiom ‘a flying visit’ ?
(A) A very short visit
(B) A visit to the space
(C) A visit by an aeroplane
(D) A visit on a gas-filled balloon
Ans : (A)

96. Choose the most appropriate preposition—
The Indian magpie indulges …… a long flight.
(A) with
(B) in
(C) at
(D) on
Ans : (B)

97. ‘Seethe’ suggests—
(A) spill
(B) catch
(C) dry
(D) boil
Ans : (D)

98. The synonym of SARDONIC is—
(A) Miserable
(B) Cruel
(C) Scornful
(D) Noisy
Ans : (C)

99. The antonym of ESOTERIC is—
(A) Clear
(B) Transparent
(C) Simple
(D) Apparent
Ans : (C)

100. The meaning of the idiom “a brain wave” is—
(A) A wave passing through one’s brain
(B) Sudden inspiration
(C) A big fuss
(D) An invention
Ans : (B)

101. Choose the most appropriate preposition—
The doctor advised him to abstain……all alcoholic drinks.
(A) at
(B) from
(C) by
(D) in
Ans : (B)

102. A person who hates the institution of marriage is called—
(A) Misogamist
(B) Pacifist
(C) Philogynist
(D) Pessimist
Ans : (A)

103. A speech which is delivered without any previous preparation is called—
(A) Maiden
(B) Extempore
(C) Meticulous
(D) Matin
Ans : (B)

104. One who eats everything is called—
(A) Herbivorous
(B) Gregarious
(C) Credulous
(D) Omnivorous
Ans : (D)

105. An imaginary name assumed by an author for disguise is called—
(A) Pseudonym
(B) Neologism
(C) Loquacious
(D) Veteran
Ans : (A)

106. Fill in the blank with suitable conjunction—
Though he is suffering much pain, ……… he does not complain.
(A) yet
(B) but
(C) else
(D) as
Ans : (A)

107. Which of the following sentences is correct ?
(A) He entered into the room
(B) He entered the room
(C) He entered in the room
(D) He entered to the room
Ans : (B)

108. Which of the following sentences is correct ?
(A) The meeting was adjourned owing to the want of quorum
(B) The meeting was adjourned due to want of quorum
(C) The meeting was adjourned for want of quorum
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

109. Fill in the blank with correct pronoun—
Our soldiers are better than ……… of the enemies.
(A) those
(B) these
(C) that
(D) themselves
Ans : (A)

110. Fill in the blank with suitable adjective—
The book contains many ……… quotations.
(A) Martial
(B) Ambitious
(C) Biblical
(D) Ulterior
Ans : (C)

111. Choose the correct figure of speech in the following sentence—
“The camel is the ship of desert.”
(A) Metaphor
(B) Simile
(C) Hyperbole
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

112. Choose the correct figure of speech in the following sentence—
“The quality of mercy is not strained.
It droppeth as the gentle rain from heaven.”
(A) Metaphor
(B) Hyperbole
(C) Synecdoche
(D) Simile
Ans : (D)

113. Change the following into an indirect statement and indicate the correct one—
He said to me, “What are you doing ?”
(A) He said to me that what he was doing
(B) He said to me that what I was doing
(C) He asked me what I was doing
(D) He asked me what he was doing
Ans : (C)

114. Which one of the following is the correct spelling ?
(A) Haemorrhage
(B) Haemorhage
(C) Heamorrhage
(D) Heamorhage
Ans : (A)

115. Which one of the following is the correct spelling ?
(A) Ceasarean
(B) Caesaraen
(C) Caesarean
(D) Ceasaraen
Ans : (C)

116. In which Magazine were published the first series of ‘The Essays of Elia’ ?
(A) British Magazine
(B) Swiss Magazine
(C) American Magazine
(D) London Magazine
Ans : (D)

117. French revolution broke out in the year—
(A) 1789
(B) 1798
(C) 1880
(D) 1785
Ans : (A)

118. In which poem of Shelley do the following lines occur ?
“Alas ! I have no hope nor health Nor peace within nor calm around ……….”
(A) Ode to West Wind
(B) Stanzas Written in Dejection
(C) To a Skylark
(D) Adonais
Ans : (B)

119. By whom Shelley has been called as ‘perfect singing God’ ?
(A) Rossettee
(B) Arnold
(C) Swinburne
(D) Morris
Ans : (B)

120. Who wrote the following line for Shelley ?
“… he is a beautiful and ineffectual angel, beating in the void his luminous wings in vain.”
(A) Compton Rickett
(B) Walter Pater
(C) Dr. Johnson
(D) Matthew Arnold
Ans : (D)

121. What is the real name of the poetess Kamla Das ?
(A) Madhavi Kutty
(B) Ratnavalli
(C) Kalluri Devi
(D) None of them
Ans : (D)

122. Nissim Ezekiel is a born—
(A) British
(B) American
(C) Swiss
(D) Jew
Ans : (B)

123. Who is the author of the poem ‘Enterprise’?
(A) Kamla Das
(B) Ezekiel
(C) Ramanujan
(D) None of them
Ans : (B)

124. The theme of alienation is central to the poetry of—
(A) Nissim Ezekiel
(B) Kamla Das
(C) Robert Frost
(D) Walt Whitman
Ans : (A)

125. Whitman’s poem ‘Crossing Brooklyn Ferry’ contains—
(A) Nine sections
(B) Eleven sections
(C) Thirteen sections
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

Institute of Advanced Management [(H.M.) Kolkata] Exam., 2009

English Language Proficiency 

(Exam Held on 12-4-2009) 

Directions—(Q. 1–5) In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are given in bold. Only one bold part in each sentence is not acceptable in Standard English. Find out that part and darken the circle having its letter A, B C or D in your Answer-Sheet.

1. If the government is bent on (A) conciliatory measures their (B) intention has produced no effect (C) on the insurgents. (D)
Ans : (B)

2. Our strongest (A) reason for siding (B) with (C) the Communists is because (D) our father is a Communist.
Ans : (D)

3. He ordered (A) the servants to prepare (B) a feast, had the gates opened (C) and to fire (D) a salute.
Ans : (C)

4. The whole (A) block of flats including (B) two shops were (C) destroyed in (D) fire.
Ans : (C)

5. Those who (A) are desirous (B) of applying for the post they (C) should do on forms (D) supplied by the office.
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 6–10) Each of the following words in capital letters is followed by four likely synonyms. One of them is not the correct synonym. Pick-up that.

6. ABRIDGE
(A) Contract
(B) Venerate
(C) Abstract
(D) Abbreviate
Ans : (B)

7. COGNIZANT
(A) Aware
(B) Conscious
(C) Vindict
(D) Informed
Ans : (C)

8. FISSURE
(A) Slit
(B) Chasm
(C) Ravine
(D) Fusion
Ans : (D)

9. INNOCUOUS
(A) Immoral
(B) Harmless
(C) Unobjectionable
(D) Impeccable
Ans : (A)

10. PERENNIAL
(A) Ceaseless
(B) Perishable
(C) Recurrent
(D) Continual
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Each of the following words in capital letters is followed by four likely antonyms. One of them is not the correct antonym. Pick that up.

11. LATENT
(A) Apparent
(B) Exposed
(C) Manifest
(D) Officious
Ans : (D)

12. NAIVE
(A) Crafty
(B) Diplomatic
(C) Brave
(D) Wily
Ans : (A)

13. REGAL
(A) Legal
(B) Beggarly
(C) Slavish
(D) Poor
Ans : (A)

14. TRANQUILITY
(A) Calmness
(B) Excitement
(C) Agitation
(D) Disturbance
Ans : (A)

15. AMALGAMATE
(A) Dissociate
(B) Unravel
(C) Untangle
(D) Seethe
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Select the lettered pair of words which are related in the same way as the capitalised words are related to each other.

16. TEPID : HOT : :
(A) winter : summer
(B) pat : slap
(C) pink : blue
(D) paper : page
Ans : (A)

17. MODESTY : ARROGANCE : :
(A) obese : fat
(B) soldier : army
(C) debility : strength
(D) shout : speak
Ans : (C)

18. GERM : DISEASE : :
(A) man : woman
(B) doctor : medicine
(C) shopkeeper : goods
(D) war : destruction
Ans : (D)

19. BOUQUET : FLOWER : :
(A) skin : body
(B) chain : link
(C) product : factory
(D) page : book
Ans : (B)

20. ENCOURAGE : RESTRICT : :
(A) deprive : supply
(B) gain : succeed
(C) detain : deny
(D) laugh : smile
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Fill in the blanks by selecting appropriate alternative.

21. It was time for us………preparation to leave.
(A) start to make
(B) starting to make
(C) start to making
(D) to start making
Ans : (D)

22. We……… start now to work for our project.
(A) had better
(B) better
(C) have better
(D) are better
Ans : (A)

23. He took up the letter from the table and……… it aloud to his father.
(A) was reading
(B) had read
(C) read
(D) has been reading
Ans : (C)

24. When I met him he was walking ………the crowded street.
(A) upon
(B) into
(C) against
(D) down
Ans : (D)

25. He is the only boy in the class who………a book whenever he gets time.
(A) reads
(B) has read
(C) is reading
(D) has been reading
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Each sentence below has one or two blanks. Choose the word or set of words that best completes the sentence meaningfully.

26. If you come to the conference table with such an………attitude, we cannot expect to reach any harmonious agreement.
(A) exemplary
(B) indolent
(C) adamant
(D) unwonted
Ans : (C)

27. This well-documented history is of importance because it carefully……… the………accomplishments of Indian artists who are all too little known to the public at large.
(A) recognizes, negligible
(B) overlook, purported
(C) scruitinizes, illusory
(D) substantiates, considerable
Ans : (C)

28. Because he is so……… we can never predict what course he will take at any moment.
(A) incoherent
(B) superficial
(C) capricious
(D) conventional
Ans : (C)

29. He was convinced that people were driven by……… motives and there was no such thing as a purely unselfish act.
(A) sentimental
(B) personal
(C) ulterior
(D) intrinsic
Ans : (B)

30. He found himself in the………position of appearing to support a point of view which he abhorred.
(A) obvious
(B) anomalous
(C) enviable
(D) innocuous
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) For these questions a paragraph with many numbered blanks is given. Read the paragraph carefully and for each question choose the appropriate word from the given alternatives to fill up the blank. Mark your answer in the answer-sheet as instructed.

Primitive man was perhaps more concerned with fire as a source of warmth and as a means of cooking food than as a source of light …(31)… he discovered less laborious ways of making fire, he had to …(32)… it and whenever he …(33)… on a journey he carried …(34)… firebrand with him. His discovery …(35)… the firebrand, from which …(36)… torch may well have developed, …(37)… used for illumination was …(38)… accidental to the primary purpose …(39)… preserving a flame. Lamps too probably developed by accident. Early man …(40)… his first conception of a lamp while watching a twig or fibre burning in the molten fat dropping from a roasting carcass.

31. (A) as soon as
(B) no sooner
(C) as
(D) before
Ans : (C)

32. (A) conserve
(B) keep
(C) preserve
(D) retain
Ans : (B)

33. (A) did go
(B) went
(C) had gone
(D) was going
Ans : (B)

34. (A) a
(B) some
(C) such
(D) any one
Ans : (A)

35. (A) of
(B) that
(C) as
(D) once
Ans : (A)

36. (A) a
(B) our
(C) a new
(D) the
Ans : (A)

37. (A) could
(B) can be
(C) is
(D) could be
Ans : (D)

38. (A) presumably
(B) probably
(C) perhaps
(D) supposedly
Ans : (B)

39. (A) of
(B) for
(C) to
(D) in
Ans : (D)

40. (A) have had
(B) had had
(C) may have had
(D) might have had
Ans : (D)