R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) EXAM., 2008

Political Science

(Held on 7-1-2009) 

1. Who among the following supported ‘partyless democracy’ ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mao-Tse Tung
(C) Jayaprakash Narayan
(D) Lal Bahadur Shastri

2. Who among the following identified democracy with corruption, machine politics and gangsterism ?
(A) Pareto
(B) Laski
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) C. W. Mills

3. Who among the following is associated with the ‘Iron Law of Oligarchy’ ?
(A) Michels
(B) Mosca
(C) Mills
(D) Laski

4. Who among the following gave the concept of ‘mass mind’ ?
(A) Pareto
(B) Mosca
(C) Michels
(D) Gassef

5. A constitutional government stands for—
(A) a limited government
(B) a government run according to the provisions of the constitution
(C) a government run according to the wishes of the rulers
(D) a government run according to the wishes of the party bosses

6. Who said, “Man is born free but everywhere he is in chains.” ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Marx

7. Which one of the following is the main feature of deliberative democracy ?
(A) Parliamentary sovereignty
(B) Executive supremacy
(C) Judicial autonomy
(D) People’s effective participation

8. Which one of the following is not a Political Right ?
(A) Right to vote
(B) Right to contest election
(C) Right to equality before Law
(D) Right to form a political party

9. Which one of the following is not a state ?
(A) Nepal
(B) Bhutan
(C) Tibet
(D) Iraq

10. Who said, “The history of all hitherto existing society is the history of class struggle.” ?
(A) Engels
(B) Marx
(C) Lenin
(D) Trotsky

11. Who among the following was a great supporter of the Divine Theory of Origin of the State ?
(A) Bentham
(B) J. S. Mill
(C) Hobbes
(D) James I

12. Marx advocated the establishment of a—
(A) Classless society
(B) Stateless society
(C) Casteless society
(D) Classless and Stateless society

13. Marx propounded the theory of class struggle mainly in—
(A) The Economic and Political Manuscript
(B) The Communist Manifesto
(C) Das Capital
(D) The Poverty of Philosophy

14. Which one of the following is not a Civil Right ?
(A) Right to life
(B) Right to speech
(C) Right to equality
(D) Right to hold public office

15. Who said, “Socialism in like a hat that has lost its shape, because everybody wears it.” ?
(A) Laski
(B) Joad
(C) Marx
(D) Gandhi

16. Which one of the following is regarded as a landmark event in the development of socialism ?
(A) The Glorious Revolution of 1688
(B) The French Revolution of 1789
(C) The American Declaration of Independence of 1776
(D) The Russian Revolution of 1917

17. Who said, “Means are after all everything. As the means, so the end; there is no walls of separation between means and ends.” ?
(A) Nehru
(B) Marx
(C) Tilak
(D) Gandhi

18. Who called Mahatma Gandhi ‘a half-naked fakir ?
(A) Stalin
(B) Nehru
(C) Roosevelt
(D) Churchill

19. Which one of the following is not a statement of Karl Marx ?
(A) The state will wither away
(B) There will be a classless and stateless society
(C) Capitalism digs its own grave
(D) Globalisation is another form of capitalism

20. Which of the following were the first two states to introduce the Panchayati Raj ?
(A) Rajasthan and Punjab
(B) Rajasthan and Bihar
(C) Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh

21. Marx borrowed Dialectical Method from—
(A) Locke
(B) Rousseau
(C) Hegal
(D) Green

22. In a parliamentary form of government, ministers are appointed by—
(A) the head of the State at his discretion
(B) the head of the government
(C) the legislature
(D) the head of the state on the recommendation of the head of the government

23. Which one of the following is an essential feature of the presidential system ?
(A) Collective responsibility
(B) Fixed term
(C) Accountability to legislature
(D) Nominal head of the state

24. The Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers in a Parliamentary form of Government remain in office—
(A) so long as they enjoy the confidence of the head of the state
(B) so long as they enjoy the confidence of the voters
(C) so long as they fulfill promises made to the electorate
(D) so long as they enjoy the confidence of the popular house of the legislature

25. In a parliamentary system, the accountability of the Prime Minister to the Lower House is—
(A) direct and continuous
(B) indirect
(C) intermittent
(D) only during the sitting of the Lower Hosue

26. Bicameralism is an essential feature of—
(A) Parliamentary system
(B) Presidential system
(C) Federal system
(D) Unitary system

27. Who gave the Slogan of ‘do or die’ in 1942 ?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai
(D) Mahatma Gandhi

28. According to Lucian Pye, the elements of political development are—
(A) Participation, integration and industrialization
(B) Political unification, participation and national welfare
(C) Political unification, economic development and national welfare
(D) Equality, capacity and differentiation

29. Who among the following talked of ‘development trap’ ?
(A) Lucian Pye
(B) Fred Riggs
(C) Myron Weiner
(D) Edward Shils

30. The split between the moderates and the extremists of the Indian National Congress took place at the—
(A) Surat session
(B) Delhi session
(C) Calcutta session
(D) Bombay session

31. The first President of the Indian National Congress was—
(A) A. O. Hume
(B) W. C. Banerjee
(C) Surendra Nath Banerjee
(D) Madan Mohan Malviya

32. Which one of the following was not a feature of the Government of India Act, 1935 ?
(A) It abolished dyarchy in the provinces
(B) It abolished the Federal Court
(C) It introduced bicameralism
(D) It further extended the principle of communal representation

33. Who among the following is an acclaimed analyst of political parties ?
(A) Lasswell
(B) Laski
(C) Huntington
(D) Duverger

34. The Montague-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of—
(A) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(B) The Government of India Act, 1919
(C) The Government of India Act, 1935
(D) The Indian Independence Act, 1947

35. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the—
(A) Lok Sabha alone
(B) Rajya Sabha alone
(C) Either House of Parliament
(D) Joint sitting of Parliament

36. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The President of India is elected for a term of five years
(B) He can resign his office by writing under hand addressed to the Prime Minister of India
(C) He shall not hold any office of profit
(D) He shall not be a member of any House of Parliament

37. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) Lahore session of the Congress and opted a resolution of Purna Swaraj
(B) Simon Commission was appointed in 1927
(C) Dyarchy was introduced by the 1919 Act
(D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was elected President of the Constituent Assembly in 1946

38. Who among the following administered the Oath of Office to Jawaharlal Nehru as the first Prime Minister of India ?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Lord Mountbatten
(D) Chief Justice of Federal Court

39. Which one of the following was not a feature of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 ?
(A) It ended the British rule
(B) It provided for the partition of India
(C) It abolished the office of the Secretary of State for India
(D) It abolished the office of the Governor-General

40. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) The Union Ministers are appointed by the President of India
(B) They hold office during the pleasure of the President
(C) The President cannot appoint any one not recommended by the Prime Minister
(D) The Constitution provides for individual and collective responsibility of Ministers

41. There is a single Constitution for the Union and the States with the exception of—
(A) Nagaland
(B) Manipur
(C) Sikkim
(D) Jammu and Kashmir

42. One-third members of the Rajya Sabha retire after—
(A) two years
(B) four years
(C) five years
(D) six years

43. There were two Deputy Prime Ministers during the Prime Ministership of—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) V. P. Singh
(D) Chandrashekhar

44. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Organisation of the High Courts —Union list
(B) Police —State list
(C) Price control —Concurrent list
(D) Stock exchange —State list

45. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Article 17—Abolition of Untouchability
(B) Article 21—Protection of Life and Personal liberty
(C) Article 24—Right to elementary education
(D) Article 29—Protection of culture of minorities

46. Who among the following became the first acting President of India ?
(A) B. D. Jatti
(B) V. V. Giri
(C) M. Hidayatullah
(D) C. Rajagopalachari

47. What is the proper order of the following stages in the enactment of Budget ?
1. Voting of the demands for grants.
2. General discussion.
3. Finance Bill.
4. Appropriation Bill.
Select the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 2, 1, 4 and 3
(B) 3, 2, 1 and 4
(C) 3, 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 4 and 3

48. Which one of the following committees does not consist of representatives of both the Houses of Parliament ?
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) Committee on Subordinate Legislation

49. Which one of the following is not the jurisdiction of the High Court of a State ?
(A) Original jurisdiction
(B) Appellate jurisdiction
(C) Supervisory jurisdiction
(D) Advisory jurisdiction

50. Who among the following has been Chief Minister for the Longest period ?
(A) Bansilal
(B) N. D. Tiwari
(C) Sheikh Abdullah
(D) Jyoti Basu

51. Which one of the following devices calls the attention of a Minister towards a matter of public importance ?
(A) Short duration discussion
(B) Calling attention notice
(C) Half-an-hour discussion
(D) Censure motion

52. Which one of the following is not a constitutional body ?
(A) Finance Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Union Public Service Commission

53. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments has made the advice of the Council of Ministers binding on the President ?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 45th
(D) 46th

54. Who among the following decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill ?
(A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(B) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) The President of India
(D) The Minister for Parliamentary Affairs

55. Which one of the following Committees/Commissions suggested the creation of local Finance Commission ?
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission (I)
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) Balwantrai Mehta Committee
(D) Ashok Mehta Committee

56. Sarkaria Commission was set up for reviewing the relations between the—
(A) President and the Prime Minister
(B) Legislature and the Executive
(C) Executive and the Judiciary
(D) Centre and the States

57. The government of which Prime Minister had fallen in the Lok Sabha during debate for want of just one vote ?
(A) Morarji Desai
(B) Charan Singh
(C) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(D) V. P. Singh

58. The traditional view of the scope of International Politics does not include the study of—
(A) International Law
(B) International Organisations
(C) Geo-politics
(D) Political Economy

59. Who among the following uses the terms ‘International Relations’ and ‘International Politics’ interchangeably ?
(A) Hans Morgenthau
(B) John Burton
(C) Schwarzenberger
(D) Palmer and Perkins

60. Which one of the following is not a natural element of power ?
(A) Political parties
(B) Resources
(C) Population
(D) Geography

61. Who is the exponent of Realist Theory ?
(A) Mortan Kaplan
(B) Hans Morgenthau
(C) Martin Shubik
(D) John Burton

62. Who among the following is the exponent of Game theory ?
(A) Martin Shubik
(B) Karl Deutsch
(C) Palmer and Perkins
(D) Joseph Frankel

63. Which one of the following, according to Morgenthau, is not a vital component of national interest ?
(A) Physical identity
(B) Political identity
(C) Cultural identity
(D) Individual identity

64. Which one of the following Committees has admitted the existence of a nexus between the politicians, bureaucrats and criminals ?
(A) Vohra Committee
(B) Santhanam Committee
(C) Narshimhan Committee
(D) Kripalani Committee

65. C.T.B.T. was signed in—
(A) 1994
(B) 1996
(C) 1997
(D) 1998

66. Which one of the following is not a method of peaceful settlement of disputes ?
(A) Limited arms conflict
(B) Negotiations
(C) Arbitration
(D) Mediation

67. Which one of the following is not a regional organisation ?
(A) NATO
(B) ASEAN
(C) OAU
(D) NPT

68. Which one of the following is not the concern of UNESCO ?
(A) Climate change
(B) Education
(C) Culture
(D) Science

69. The 14th SAARC summit was held at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Dhaka
(C) Beijing
(D) Colombo

70. Who was the first Foreign Minister of India ?
(A) Rafi Ahmad Kidwai
(B) Maulana Azad
(C) Sardar Sawarn Singh
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru

71. Which one of the following is not a principle of Panchsheel ?
(A) Non-aggression
(B) Non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
(C) Peaceful co-existence
(D) Promotion of world peace

72. Which one of the following is not the objective of WTO ?
(A) Trade without discrimination
(B) Fair competition
(C) Price control
(D) Market access

73. Who among the following was elected as President of the UN General Assembly in 1953 ?
(A) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(B) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
(C) B. N. Chakravarty
(D) Krishna Menon

74. Which one of the following is not an element of Democratic Socialism ?
(A) Welfare state
(B) Mixed economy
(C) Social justice
(D) Revolutionary change

75. Who among the following initially mooted the policy of structural adjustments ?
(A) Third World Countries
(B) Developed Countries
(C) United States of America
(D) IMF and World Bank

76. Who among the following talked of ‘Political decay’ ?
(A) Huntington
(B) David Apter
(C) Organski
(D) Lucian Pye

77. A pressure group works for the welfare of—
(A) Weaker sections of the society
(B) All sections of the society
(C) Its members only
(D) Government employees

78. When did the Charter of the United Nations Organisation come into force ?
(A) 24 October, 1950
(B) 24 October, 1944
(C) 24 October, 1946
(D) 24 October, 1945

79. The oldest approach to the study of Political Science is—
(A) Historical approach
(B) Philosophical approach
(C) Legal approach
(D) Institutional approach

80. Who among the following defines politics in terms of ‘authoritative allocation of values’ ?
(A) Robert Dahl
(B) Laski
(C) David Easton
(D) Plato

81. “Who gets what, when and how” is the subject matter of politics.
Who among the following held the above view ?
(A) David Easton
(B) Lasswell
(C) Laski
(D) MacIver

82. Which one of the following does not pertain to Marxism ?
(A) Class struggle
(B) Surplus value
(C) Laissez faire
(D) Materialistic Interpretation of History

83. “The state originated for the bare needs of life and continues in existence for the sake of good life.” These are the words of—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Laski
(D) Garner

84. The traditional view of politics is concerned with the study of—
(A) State and Government
(B) Organisations and Groups
(C) Ideologies
(D) Institutions

85. Who among the following is called the ‘Father of Political Science’ ?
(A) Socrates
(B) Plato
(C) Aristotle
(D) Machiavelli

86. “The state is prior to the individual.”
This was the view of—
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Garner
(D) MacIver

87. Who said that life in the nature of state was solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and short ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Machiavelli

88. Who among the following supported positive liberty ?
(A) T. H. Green
(B) Karl Marx
(C) J. S. Mill
(D) H. Laski

89. Which one of the following is not a function of political parties ?
(A) Political socialization
(B) Regulation of behaviour of the people
(C) Interest articulation
(D) Interest aggregation

90. Who among the following regarded right to life, right to liberty and right to property as natural rights ?
(A) Hobbes
(B) Locke
(C) Rousseau
(D) Mill

91. Who among the following defined law as “a command given by a superior to an inferior” ?
(A) Bodin
(B) Austin
(C) Dicey
(D) Bryce

92. Who among the following held the view that equality is unnatural and undesirable ?
(A) Plato
(B) Aristotle
(C) Gandhi
(D) Laski

93. “Will, not force, is the basis of the state.” These are the words of—
(A) Aristotle
(B) Hegal
(C) Green
(D) Mill

94. Who among the following is an exponent of popular sovereignty ?
(A) Bodin
(B) Austin
(C) Hobbes
(D) Rousseau

95. Austin described the theory of sovereignty in his book—
(A) Lectures on Jurisprudence
(B) Two Treatises on Government
(C) De Republica
(D) Grammar of Politics

96. Who among the following is the author of ‘Aspects of Political Development’ ?
(A) Lucian Pye
(B) David Easton
(C) Laski
(D) David Apter

97. According to Herbert Morrison, bureaucracy is the price of—
(A) Monarchy
(B) Federalism
(C) Dictatorship
(D) Parliamentary democracy

98. The traditional home of ‘patronage bureaucracy’ has been—
(A) China
(B) U.S.A.
(C) India
(D) U.K.

99. Which one of the following is not a feature of Max Weber’s theory of bureaucracy ?
(A) Hierarchy
(B) Division of work
(C) Promotion
(D) Commitment to ruler

100. Who among the following formulated the most systematic doctrine of sovereignty ?
(A) Grotius
(B) Bodin
(C) Austin
(D) Locke

Answers with Hints
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (B) 6. (C) 7. (D)
8. (C) Right to equality before law is a civil right.
9. (C) Tibet is not a state because it does not possess the sovereignty, which is the most important attribute of state. Although, it has three other attributes of state-government, population and territory.
10. (B) 11. (D) 12. (D)
13. (B) The first sentence of the Communist Manifesto, begins with “The history of all hitherto existing society is the history of class struggle.”
14. (D) The right to hold public office is a political right.
15. (B)
16. (D) The Russian Revolution of 1917 was organised by Lenin and was largely based on the ideas of Karl Marx. The Russian Revolution was the first successful socialist revolution in the world, which led to the establishment of the first socialist state in Russia.
17. (D) 18. (D)
19. (D) Globalisation, as a dominant tendency is a phenomenon of late 20th century. This tendency was not visible during Marx’s times.
20. (C) The Panchayati Raj was inaugurated by Jawahar Lal Nehru on 2nd Oct., 1959 at Nagaur, Rajasthan. Andhra Pradesh also organised Panchayati Raj in 1959 itself. This new pattern of Panchayati Raj was based on the recommendations of Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, 1957.
21. (C)
22. (D) India has adopted the parliamentary form of government. In India, the President is the head of the state and the Prime Minister is the head of the government.
23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A)
26. (C) Bicameralism denotes the two chambers of the legislature. In federal system, the central legislature consists of two houses. The Upper House consists of the representatives of the states.
27. (D)
28. (D) According to Lucian Pye, the political development is the result of interaction among three elements—level of equality in general political process, capacity of the political system and level of differentiation in the structures of the system.
29. (B) The concept of ‘development trap’ was given by Fred Riggs, which refers to the imbalance between the elements of equality and capacity in the process of political development.
30. (A) 31. (B)
32. (B) The Government of India Act, 1935 did not abolish the Federal Court, but provided for the establishment of a Federal Court under the proposed Federation. However, the Federal part of the Act was never enforced. It should be noted that bicameralism at the central level was introduced by the Act of 1919, however, the Act of 1935 introduced bicameralism at provincial level.
33. (D) 34. (B) 35. (B)
36. (B) The President submits his resignation to the Vice-President and vice-versa.
37. (D) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly whereas, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of Constituent Assembly in 1946.
38. (C) 39. (C)
40. (D) According to Art 75(1), the Ministers are appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. According to Article 75(2), Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. However, Article 75(3) provides for the collective responsibility of the Ministers, not for their individual responsibility.
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (B) 44. (D) 45. (C)
46. (B) V. V. Giri was the first acting President from 3 May, 1969 to 20 July, 1969. Thereafter the Chief Justice of Supreme Court, M. Hidayatullah became the acting President from 20 July, 1969 to 24 August, 1969.
47. (A)
48. (A) The Estimates Committee consists of 30 members, all from Lok Sabha.
49. (D) According to Article 143, the Advisory Jurisdiction is given to the Supreme Court.
50. (D) 51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (A) 55. (A)
56. (D) The Sarkaria Commission was constituted in 1983 and it submitted its report on Centre-State relations in 1988.
57. (C) 58. (D) 59. (D) 60. (A) 61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A)
67. (D) NPT or Non-Proliferation treaty, 1968 is a nuclear disarmamemt treaty. It is not an organisation.
68. (A)
69. (A) The 14th SAARC Summit was held on 3-4 April, 2007 and 15th Summit was held on 2-3 August, 2008 at Colombo.
70. (D) 71. (D) 72. (C) 73. (B)
74. (D) Democratic socialism believes in peaceful methods of change. It opposes revolutionary changes and violence.
75. (D) 76. (A) 77. (C) 78. (D) 79. (B) 80. (C) 81. (B)
82. (C) The idea of Laissez faire, the non-intervention of State is economic affairs, was given by Adam Smith. This idea is the core of negative liberalism.
83. (B) 84. (A) 85. (C) 86. (B) 87. (A)
88. (A) According to Green, the Liberty is the positive power of doing or enjoying something worth doing and enjoying.
89. (B) However, it should be noted that the interest articulation is also not the function of political parties in specific sense. Almond has Stated that interest articulation is the function of pressure groups.
90. (B) 91. (B)
92. (B) Aristotle did not support the idea of equality among people. In fact, he supported the system of slavery.
93. (C) 94. (D) 95. (A) 96. (A) 97. (D) 98. (B) 99. (D) 100. (C)

Uttar Pradesh G.I.C. for Lecturer Screening Exam.

Civics (Political Science)

1. The theory of Natural Rights holds that—
(A) Rights are a divine creation
(B) Rights came from pre-civil society
(C) Rights were granted by the king
(D) Rights are granted by the Constitution
Ans : (B)

2. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The Marxist view of freedom is different from liberal individualist view of freedom.
Reason (R) : According to Marxist view, freedom is not something that an individual can enjoy in isolation.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

3. Who among the following supports the principle of natural inequality ?
(A) Polybius
(B) Cicero
(C) Rousseau
(D) Plato
Ans : (D)

4. The ideal of ‘positive liberty’ was first conceived by—
(A) Aristotle
(B) Hegel
(C) Green
(D) Laski
Ans : (C)

5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer, using the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Justice is the interest of stronger.
(b) Justice is doing one’s own work which is in consonance with one’s own nature.
(c) Public utility is the sole origin of Justice.
(d) Justice means judicious distribution of primary goods.
List-II
1. Rawls
2. Thrasymachus
3. Plato
4. Hume
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 2 3 4 1
Ans : (D)


6. The best adjustment of liberty and equality can be achieved in a regime of—
(A) Liberalism
(B) Socialism
(C) Democratic Socialism
(D) Idealism
Ans : (C)

7. “Political liberty without economic liberty is a myth.” Who has made this statement ?
(A) Aristotle
(B) T. H. Green
(C) J. S. Mill
(D) H. J. Laski
Ans : (D)

8. “The passion for equality made vain the hope for liberty.” Who has made this statement ?
(A) J. S. Mill
(B) Jeremy Bentham
(C) V. I. Lenin
(D) Lord Acton
Ans : (D)

9. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : Justice is highest good of political life.
Reason (R) : Justice provides man his due and sets right wrongs either by compensation or by punishment.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

10. The liberal thinker who had put forward the theory of “Social Engineering” is—
(A) C. B. Macpherson
(B) Karl J. Popper
(C) John Rawls
(D) L. T. Hobhouse
Ans : (B)

11. By the materialistic interpretation of history Marx explains—
(A) The course of history remains unchanged
(B) The course of history is determined by the leaders of society
(C) The course of history is determined by the consciousness of men
(D) The course of history is determined by the mode of production
Ans : (D)

12. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : Marx is the only writer whose works can be termed scientific.
Reason (R) : Where Marxism ends, Anarchism begins.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (B)

13. Who is the author of the famous book ‘History of Early Institutions’ ?
(A) Proudhan
(B) Maxey
(C) Machiavelli
(D) Sir Henry Maine
Ans : (D)

14. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : Gandhi was against using the impure means.
Reason (R) : According to him, impure means do not help in achieving the ends.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

15. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, then whose decision is final ?
(A) President’s decision
(B) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court’s decision
(C) Auditor and Comptroller General of India’s decision
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha’s decision
Ans : (D)

16. Which of the following attributes of Gandhian theory of Non- Violence are correct ?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. It is not passivity.
2. Its basic principle is truth.
3. It is the weapon of the weak.
4. It is a means of mass participation.
Codes :(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)

17. Which of the following was not on the agenda of Non-cooperation Movement ?
(A) To boycott foreign goods
(B) To boycott law courts
(C) To defy the laws of the land
(D) To boycott elections under the Government of India Act, 1919
Ans : (C)

18. The alternative to socialism in Gandhian Philosophy is—
(A) Non-violence
(B) Trusteeship
(C) Panchayati Raj
(D) Truth
Ans : (B)

19. Which of the following books has not been written by Marx ?
(A) The Communist Manifesto
(B) Das Capital
(C) Wealth of the Nations
(D) The Critique of Political Economy
Ans : (C)

20. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : There is no stable party system in India.
Reason (R) : Indian political parties reflect the complexity of Indian society.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

21. Which one of the following is not a demerit of party system ?
(A) Parties fight for their own interest
(B) Party system destroys the individuality of man
(C) Parties produce unnatural divisions
(D) Parties harmonise the organs of Government
Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following statements are correct ?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. Pressure groups are different from Political parties.
2. Political parties and Pressure groups do not differ.
3. Pressure groups do not contest elections.
4. Pressure groups do not try to capture political power directly.
Codes :(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 3, 2 and 4
Ans : (C)

23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer, using the codes given below—
List-I(a) Charles Mariam
(b) M. P. Follet
(c) Arthur Bentley
(d) A. Appadorai
List-II
1. The Process of Government
2. The Substance of Politics
3. The New State
4. New Aspect of Politics
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (D)

24. “Never has any one ruled on earth by basing his rule essentially other than the public opinion.” Who has made this statement ?
(A) Jose Ortegag Gassel
(B) J. S. Mill
(C) Lord Bryce
(D) Morris Ginsberg
Ans : (A)

25. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : Political parties are the lifeline of Modern Politics.
Reason (R) : Political Parties came into existence with the growth and development of representative institutions and expansion of suffrage.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

26. Who among the following tried to establish co-relation between party system and electoral system ?
(A) H. J. Laski
(B) M. Duverger
(C) H. M. Finer
(D) Lord Bryce
Ans : (B)

27. Who describes the pressure groups as the Third House of the Legislature ?
(A) Lord Bryce
(B) H. M. Finer
(C) G. D. H. Cole
(D) Dicey
Ans : (B)

28. “The State in which all authority and powers are vested in a single centre, whose will and agents are legally omnipotent over the whole area” is known as—
(A) Unitary Government
(B) Federal Government
(C) Parliamentary Government
(D) Presidential Government
Ans : (A)

29. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : A federal system invariably provides for an independent judiciary.
Reason (R) : It settles the disputes between the centre and the constituent units.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

30. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The growing strength of Central Government in a federal set-up is natural.
Reason (R) : Five factors contribute to the growth of a powerful centre in the federation, namely, war politics, depression politics, Techno-politics, Grantsin-Aid politics and party politics.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

31. In Presidential Government, the President is—
(A) Independent of the Legislature
(B) Dependent on the Legislature
(C) Dependent on the Judiciary
(D) Bound by the advice of Council of Ministers
Ans : (A)

32. A Parliamentary Government cannot function without—
(A) Written Constitution
(B) Rigid Constitution
(C) Political Parties
(D) Independent Judiciary
Ans : (C)

33. Members of the Executive under Presidential System of Government—
(A) Are drawn both the Houses of Legislature
(B) Are taken from the popular House
(C) Are not members of either House of Legislature
(D) Become members of Legislature after their appointment as Ministers
Ans : (C)

34. Governments are classified as Parliamentary and Presidential on the basis of—
(A) Relations between the Centre and the States
(B) Relations between the Legislature and the Executive
(C) Relations between the Executive and the Judiciary
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

35. Who has opined that, “The Constitution limits the arbitrary actions of the Government” ?
(A) Dicey
(B) Rousseau
(C) Garner
(D) Strong
Ans : (A)

36. “A State without a Constitution would not be a State, but a regime of anarchy.” This is stated by—
(A) Aristotle
(B) Bryce
(C) Jellineck
(D) Dicey
Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following is not a feature of Unitary System of the Government ?
(A) Administrative unity
(B) Administrative empowerment
(C) National unity
(D) A coordination between national unity and Local self administration
Ans : (B)

38. Who raised the demand for ‘Swarajya’ for the first time through his writings ?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Ram Krishna Param Hans
(C) Swami Vivekanand
(D) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
Ans : (D)

39. During Civil Disobedience Movement, soldiers of Garhwal Regiment refused to fire on demonstrators at—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Dehradun
(C) Nainital
(D) Peshawar
Ans : (D)

40. Commenting on the sudden suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement in February 1922, who among the following remarked—
“To sound the order of retreat just when public enthusiasm was reaching the boiling point was nothing short of a national calamity” ?
(A) Motilal Nehru
(B) Subhash Chandra Bose
(C) C. R. Das
(D) Mohammad Ali
Ans : (B)

41. Who wrote the book, ‘India Divided’ ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) M. A. Jinnah
(C) Sardar Patel
(D) Shyama Prasad Mukherji
Ans : (A)

42. Whose time has been described as the ‘Seedling time of Indian Nationalism’ ?
(A) Lord William Bentinck
(B) Lord Rippon
(C) Lord Lytton
(D) Lord Curzon
Ans : (C)

43. By whom was the ‘Objectives Resolution’ presented in the Constituent Assembly of India ?
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) G. B. Pant
(C) Sardar Patel
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans : (D)

44. Mahatma Gandhi’s first experience with mass movement in India was at—
(A) Champaran
(B) Bardoli
(C) Chauri-chaura
(D) Dandi
Ans : (A)

45. The Swadeshi Movement was launched—
(A) As a protest against the partition of Bengal in 1905
(B) Following division of Congress in 1907
(C) Following the Lucknow Session
(D) To mark the entry of Mahatma Gandhi in National Movement
Ans : (A)

46. Who among the following moderate leaders had been called, ‘a silver tongued orator’ ?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(D) M. G. Ranade
Ans : (B)

47. Which one of the following proposed a three-tier polity for India ?
(A) Nehru Report
(B) Simon Commission Report
(C) Cripps Proposal
(D) Cabinet Mission Plan
Ans : (D)

48. Who was the first Woman President of Indian National Congress ?
(A) Smt. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Smt. Annie Besant
(C) Smt. Kamla Nehru
(D) Smt. Indira Gandhi
Ans : (B)

49. When was Mahatma Gandhi President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) 1923
(B) 1924
(C) 1925
(D) 1926
Ans : (B)

50. Who described for the first time, the revolt of 1857 as “The First War of Indian Independence” ?
(A) V. D. Savarkar
(B) R. C. Majumdar
(C) Bipin Chandra
(D) Sir John Lawrence
Ans : (A)

51. What was the real objective behind the ‘Partition of Bengal’ ?
(A) Create a division among the ranks of Indian Nationalists
(B) Stop the tide of Nationalism in Bengal
(C) Build up separate Administrative units for better efficiency of administration
(D) Appease the large majority of Muslims
Ans : (C)

52. The place where Navy openly revolted in 1946 against British rule in India is—
(A) Bombay (Mumbai)
(B) Calcutta
(C) Madras
(D) Cochin
Ans : (A)

53. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The Indian Independence Act, 1947 ended the British rule in India.
Reason (R) : The Indian Independence Act, 1947 laid down a new constitution for India providing for every detail.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

54. Who among the following is called, “The Prophet of Indian Nationalism and Father of modern India.” ?
(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(B) Swami Vivekanand
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans : (A)

55. Which of the following statements about the Vice-President of India are correct ?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
1. He is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. He must be member of the Rajya Sabha for his election as Vice-President.
3. He is elected by the members of both the Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.
4. If the President resigns or dies, the Vice President officiates as President for not more than six months.
Codes :(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

56. Who of the following linked the Directive Principles with a cheque payable at the convenience of the Bank ?
(A) A. K. Aiyar
(B) H. Kunzru
(C) H. V. Kamath
(D) K. T. Shah
Ans : (D)

57. Who among the following was elected President of India with second preference votes ?
(A) Gyani Zail Singh
(B) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(C) Zakir Hussain
(D) V. V. Giri
Ans : (D)

58. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution put limi tation on Legislative powers of Parliament and State Legislatures ?
(A) Article 13
(B) Article 245
(C) Article 246
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

59. Which prominent leader had opposed the Champaran Satyagrah of 1917 because it was led by Mahatma Gandhi ?
(A) N. G. Ranga
(B) T. K. Madhavan
(C) Champak Raman Pillai
(D) E. M. S. Namboodiripad
Ans : (A)

60. Who among the following has the right to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of the Parliament without being a member of the Parliament ?
(A) Solicitor-General of India
(B) Attorney-General of India
(C) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(D) Chief Justice of India
Ans : (B)

61. The guardianship of Indian Constitution is vested in—
(A) The President
(B) The Cabinet
(C) The Lok Sabha
(D) The Supreme Court
Ans : (D)

62. “India that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.” The word ‘Union’ is derived from the Constitution of—
(A) U. S. A.
(B) Switzerland
(C) Canada
(D) Australia
Ans : (A)

63. The President of India can be removed from his office by—
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The Parliament
(C) The Supreme Court
(D) The Chief Election Commissioner
Ans : (B)

64. A Federal Court was established in India under the Act of—
(A) 1892
(B) 1909
(C) 1919
(D) 1935
Ans : (D)

65. The Article of the Indian Constitution which empowers the Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship is—
(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 11
Ans : (D)

66. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for Ad-hoc Judges in the Supreme Court ?
(A) 124
(B) 125
(C) 126
(D) 127
Ans : (D)

67. Which of the following decides the disputes regarding the election of the President of India ?
(A) The Rajya Sabha
(B) The Lok Sabha
(C) The Supreme Court
(D) The Chief Election Commissioner
Ans : (C)

68. Which of the following words were added to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment ?
(A) Republic, Sovereign
(B) Secular, Democratic
(C) Secular, Socialist
(D) Democratic, Sovereign
Ans : (C)

69. While a resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration—
1. The Speaker shall have right to speak.
2. He shall not preside.
3. He shall be entitled to vote only in the first instance.
4. He shall not be present in the House.
Select your answer from the codes—
(A) 2 and 4 are correct
(B) 1, 2, 3 are correct
(C) Only 1 is correct
(D) 2 and 3 are correct
Ans : (B)

70. Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution is related with—
(A) Anti-Defection Provisions
(B) Indian Languages
(C) Panchayati Raj
(D) Union List, State List and Concurrent List
Ans : (C)

71. In Indian Federation the division of power in three lists has been derived from—
(A) U. S. A.
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans : (C)

72. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The Prime Minister in the Indian Political system is very powerful.
Reason (R) : There is Parliamentary system of Government in India.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

73. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I(a) Poona Pact
(b) August Proposal
(c) Wardha Proposal
(d) Wavell Plan
List-II
1. 8 August 1940
2. 14 July 1942
3. 4 June 1945
4. 26 September 1932
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (B)

74. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj System ?
(A) 71st
(B) 72nd
(C) 73rd
(D) 74th
Ans : (C)

75. Who among the following Congress members rejected the Mountbatten Plan ?
(A) J. B. Kripalani
(B) G. B. Pant
(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Sardar Patel
Ans : (C)

76. In Which part of the Indian Constitution relations between the Union and the States have been mentioned ?
(A) Part X
(B) Part XI
(C) Part XIV
(D) Part XV
Ans : (B)

77. What is true about the Governor of a State ?
(A) He has no discretionary power
(B) Validity of his discretion can be questioned
(C) For his discretionary functions he is not responsible to the President
(D) High Court may inquire into the advice tendered by Ministers to the Governor
Ans : (C)

78. Which of the following States was the first to establish the Panchayat Raj Institutions ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Bihar
(D) U. P.
Ans : (A)

79. The Constitutional Government means—
(A) Government according to the terms of the Constitution
(B) Government based on the rule of the law
(C) A Democratic Government
(D) All these
Ans : (D)

80. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the Parliament legislate on any subject in the State list ?
(A) Article 229
(B) Article 230
(C) Article 248
(D) Article 249
Ans : (D)

81. A constitutional reason to make the centre strong in India is—
(A) Directive Principles of State Policy
(B) Centralised Planning
(C) Zonal Councils
(D) Union List
Ans : (D)

82. One common point of agreement between Indian and U.S. Federalism is that—
(A) Residuary powers belong to the Centre
(B) Residuary powers belong to the States
(C) There is provision for concurrent jurisdiction in certain matters
(D) The Supreme Court is the arbiter in the event of conflict between the Centre and the States
Ans : (D)

83. Which one of the following qualifications is common to Presidential candidates in both India and the U. S. A. ?
(A) Citizenship
(B) Minimum age
(C) Residential requirement
(D) Eligibility to become member of the popular house of the legislature
Ans : (B)

84. Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution of India may be made by the President—
(A) According to his own judgement
(B) On the request of the Lok Sabha
(C) On the recommendation of the Prime Minister
(D) On the written advice of the Council of Ministers
Ans : (D)

85. The system of Judicial review is found in—
(A) Only in India
(B) Only in Britain
(C) Only in U.S.A.
(D) In both India and U.S.A.
Ans : (D)

86. Who has referred Indian Federation as ‘Paramount Federation’ ?
(A) C. H. Alexandrowicz
(B) M. P. Sharma
(C) K. Santhanam
(D) A. C. Banerjee
Ans : (C)

87. Dadabhai Naoroji has described his theory of ‘Drain of Wealth’ in the book—
(A) Poverty and unBritish rule in India
(B) Exploitative nature of British Rule in India
(C) British Rule and its consequences
(D) Nature of British Colonial Rule
Ans : (A)

88. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) State is abstract but the government is concrete
(B) Society is wider than the State
(C) Government is the agent of the State
(D) Membership of the State is optional
Ans : (D)

89. “It is true that there is no State where there is no over-ruling force. But the exercise of force does not make a State otherwise a pirate ship or the mutinous army would be a State.” Who has made this statement ?
(A) Fredrick Angels
(B) Robert MacIver
(C) H. J. Laski
(D) Max Weber
Ans : (D)

90. Which of the following thinkers does not regard territory as an essential element of the State ?
(A) Plato
(B) Locke
(C) Maotse Tung
(D) Seeley
Ans : (D)

91. Who among the following opines that ‘public service’ and not sovereignty is the essential characteristic of the State ?
(A) Otto Von Gierke
(B) Leon Duguit
(C) Ernest Barker
(D) A. D. Lindsay
Ans : (B)

92. “The State is the product and manifestation of the irreconcilability of class antagonism.” Who holds the above view ?
(A) Marx
(B) Lenin
(C) Bakunin
(D) Stalin
Ans : (A)

93. The word ‘Polis’ relates to—
(A) Police
(B) Civil Administration
(C) City State
(D) Public opinion
Ans : (C)

94. “Liberty is increased when sovereignty is put into the right hands.” Who has made this statement ?
(A) Friedman
(B) Hayek
(C) I. Berlin
(D) L. Strauss
Ans : (C)

95. Who among the following is, associated with ‘Civic-Sovereignty’ Theory ?
(A) John Devey
(B) John Strachy
(C) R. H. Tawney
(D) S. G. Hobson
Ans : (C)

96. Which one of the following ideologies considers political party as ‘a vanguard of the social class’ ?
(A) Idealism
(B) Individualism
(C) Fabianism
(D) Marxism
Ans : (D)

97. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The concept of sovereignty could not be developed during Middle Ages.
Reason (R) : The social system during the Middle Ages was decentralized and permeated by Christianity.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

98. Who among the following makes a distinction between society and state ?
(A) Pareto
(B) MacIver
(C) Bryce
(D) Charles Merriam
Ans : (B)

99. Which pair is not correctly matched ?
(A) George Sorel—Syndicalism
(B) Hegel—Individualism
(C) G.D.H. Cole—Guild socialism
(D) Laski—Pluralism
Ans : (B)

100. Who among the following was the first to propound the Pluralistic Theory of Sovereignty ?
(A) H. J. Laski
(B) Jean Bodin
(C) MacIver
(D) Otto Von Gierke
Ans : (D)

101. Identify the correct chronological sequence of the following political philosophers.
(A) Hobbes, Locke, Rousseau and Montesquieu
(B) Hobbes, Rousseau, Montesquieu and Locke
(C) Locke, Hobbes, Montesquieu and Rousseau
(D) Hobbes, Locke, Montesquieu and Rousseau
Ans : (D)

102. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : According to Monists, the sovereignty is supreme, absolute and unlimited.
Reason (R) : In every full-fledged or independent state, there is an ultimate authority, an authority from which there is no appeal.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

103. Who defined sovereignty as the supreme authority which is independent of any other earthly authority ?
(A) Kelsen
(B) Willoughby
(C) Oppenheim
(D) Bentham
Ans : (C)

104. The form of oath of office for a Minister for the Union in India is enshrined in—
(A) First Schedule of the Indian Constitution
(B) Second Schedule of the Indian Constitution
(C) Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution
(D) Fourth Schedule of the Indian Constitution
Ans : (C)

105. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below—
List-I (Author)(a) Robert Nozick
(b) D. L. Hobman
(c) Titmuss
(d) Alexander Entreaves
List-II (Book)
1. Essay on Welfare State
2. The Welfare State
3. Anarchy, State and Utopia
4. The Notion of the State
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (B)

106. Who among the following thinkers made the statement that, “Covenant without sword are but words and of no strength to secure men at all.” ?
(A) Pufendorf
(B) Hobbes
(C) Locke
(D) Rousseau
Ans : (B)

107. Which theory advocates only ‘night watchman role’ of the State ?
(A) Welfare State Theory
(B) Liberal Theory
(C) Socialist Theory
(D) Idealist Theory
Ans : (B)

108. Who has said that a welfare state is “a state that provides for its citizens a wide range of social services” ?
(A) G.D.H. Cole
(B) H. J. Laski
(C) Abraham
(D) T. W. Kent
Ans : (D)

109. Who among the following has maintained that the modern liberal democratic state has become an industrial state ?
(A) Galbraith
(B) MacPherson
(C) Keynes
(D) Roosevelt
Ans : (B)

110. Which one of the following ideologies aims at the spiritualisation of Politics ?
(A) Marxism
(B) Socialism
(C) Sarvodaya
(D) Pluralism
Ans : (C)

111. The term ‘Socialism’ was first used by—
(A) Robert Owen
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Lenin
(D) Bernstein
Ans : (A)

112. Which of the following thinkers is associated with Evolutionary Socialism ?
(A) Lenin
(B) Gramsci
(C) Bernstien
(D) Engels
Ans : (C)

113. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). In the context of these statements, select the correct answer from the codes mentioned below—
Assertion (A) : The ‘positive libralism’ assigns certain functions to the state to perform.
Reason (R) : It assigns state to promote the ‘social welfare’ of the society as a whole.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

114. The best exposition of Liberal concept of nature and functions of the state is found in the writings of—
(A) John Locke
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Bernard Bosanquet
(D) Norman Angel
Ans : (A)

115. Which of the following is a correct statement ?
(A) A welfare state has to be a socialist state
(B) A capitalist state can also be a welfare state
(C) A socialist state can be a liberal state
(D) A liberal state must control means of production
Ans : (B)

116. Regarding the functions of the state, who among the following has used the phrase, “to hinder the hindrances” ?
(A) Mill
(B) Green
(C) Hobbes
(D) Hegel
Ans : (B)

117. Which theory holds that, “the right of the personality is the most important right of the man” ?
(A) The Theory of Natural Rights
(B) The Legal Theory of Rights
(C) The Historical Theory of Rights
(D) The Idealistic Theory of Rights
Ans : (D)

118. Hobbes gives individual the right to disobey the sovereign for—
(A) Self preservation
(B) Protection of Freedom
(C) Removing oppression
(D) Removing injustice
Ans : (A)

119. The credit for advocating the legal theory of right goes to—
(A) Austin
(B) Locke
(C) Barker
(D) Laski
Ans : (A)

120. Who has remarked that, “All restraint qua restraints is an evil … leaving people to themselves is always better than controlling them” ?
(A) Green
(B) Mill
(C) Barker
(D) Popper
Ans : (B)

Civil Services (Pre.) Exam., 2009

Political Science 

(Held on 17-2-2009)
 

1. Which one of the following thinkers proposed the criterion of falsifiability as the measure of scientific truth ?
(A) Levi-Strauss
(B) Max Weber
(C) Karl Popper
(D) Karl Marx
Ans : (C)

2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) The State comes into existence for the bare needs of life and continue to exist for the sake of good life.
(b) Rights are the conditions of social life without which no man can seek in general to be himself at his best.
(c) Greatest happiness of the greatest number.
(d) From each according to his ability to each according to his needs.
List-II
1. Harold Laski
2. Bentham
3. Aristotle
4. Marx
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 3 1 2 4
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (C)

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Approach)
(a) New Institutionalism
(b) Neo-Liberalism
(c) Communitarianism
(d) Behaviouralism
List-II (Scholar)
1. Michael Walzer
2. David Apter
3. Milton Friendman
4. Douglass North
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (A)

4. For Aristotle, the State should be governed by a political statesman having which one of the following virtues ?
(A) Reason
(B) Knowledge
(C) Prudence
(D) Wealth
Ans : (C)

5. Which one of the following is correct with regard to all theorists of social contract ?
(A) Erasing the distinction between law and morality
(B) The principle of separation of powers
(C) Formation of public authority with social consent
(D) Belief in innate rights
Ans : (C)

6. With regard to conservatism, which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Society is an achievement, which despite all its imperfections, is preferable to the state of nature.
2. Individuals are a product of historical and social conditions.
3. Customs and values play an important role in defining the identity of the individual.
4. Power should be vested in the office rather than the individuals holding the office.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

7. Who among the following has coined the term power elite ?
(A) Robert Dahl
(B) C. Wright Mills
(C) Karl Marx
(D) V. Pareto
Ans : (B)

8. Antonio Gramsci establishes a strong link between which one of the following four sets of concepts ?
(A) Ideology—Leadership—Domination—Religion
(B) Ideology—Leadership—War of Manoeuvre—Domination
(C) Ideology—Leadership—Domination—Passive Revolution
(D) Ideology—Leadership—Domination—Intellectuals
Ans : (D)

9. Which one of the following is suggested by the concept of universal citizenship ?
(A) Identical rights for all persons
(B) Identical rights for all citizens
(C) Common rights for all with some special rights for minorities
(D) Single citizenship in the world
Ans : (D)

10. Which one of the following is not correct with regard to ethnicity and nationalism ?
(A) Both trace common bonds across their members
(B) Both distinguish between we and they
(C) There is unanimity among scholars today that both are imagined relations
(D) While nationalism tends towards Nation-State, ethnicity seeks the recognition of its distinct identity
Ans : (C)

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Natural Right
(b) Legal Right
(c) Moral Right
(d) Cultural Right
List-II
1. Immanuel Kant
2. Jeremy Bentham
3. Will Kymlicka
4. H. L. A. Hart
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans : (A)

12. Which one of the following political philosophers is an advocate of positive liberty ?
(A) Isaiah Berlin
(B) Iris Marion Young
(C) John Stuart Mill
(D) T. H. Green
Ans : (D)

13. Consider the following statements—
In his theory of justice, John Rawls :
1. reconciles a liberal conception of political obligation with a redistributive conception of social justice.
2. affirms the utilitarian principle for determining what is goot and desirable.
3. uses the instrument of the social contract to ensure fairness.
4. maintains that the concern for redistribution trumps individuals liberty.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 3 only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : (C)

14. The New Right rejects the principle of social justice because it—
1. violates liberty
2. is against merit
3. is not conducive to efficiency
4. does not respect different wants and needs
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (D)

15. According to Rawls, which of the following sets of social primary goods is likely to be pursued by all human beings ?
(A) Income and wealth, opportunities and powers, rights and liberties, and social bases of selfrespect
(B) Income and wealth, opportunities and powers, healths and intelligence, and social bases of self-respect
(C) Rights and liberties, income and wealth, health and intelligence, and social bases of selfrespect
(D) Income and wealth, health and imagination, opportunities and powers, and social bases of self-respect
Ans : (A)

16. Public institutions may not cope with the expansion of democratic participation leading to political decay. Which one of the following scholars draws attention to such a consequence ?
(A) Rajni Kothari
(B) Samuel Huntington
(C) Robert Dahl
(D) David Held
Ans : (B)

17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Idea of Justice)
(a) Treating likes alike
(b) Fairness
(c) Net aggregate satisfaction
(d) Interest of the stronger
List-II (Thinker)
1. Rawls
2. Aristotle
3. Thrasymachus
4. Bentham
5. Nozick
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 5 3
(B) 2 1 3 5
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (D)

18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Concept of Civil Society)
(a) Civil society as the arena of cultural politics
(b) Civil society as the arena of civic associations
(c) Civil society as the zone between family and State
(d) Civil society as the space for the emergence of public opinion independent of the State and the Church
List-II (Thinker)
1. Hegal
2. de Tocqueville
3. Gramsci
4. Jurgen
5. Habermas
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans : (C)

19. Consider the following statements—
1. In the Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a conception of good life for the individuals as well as the society.
2. The Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the experience of Gandhi’s prolonged struggle against Colonial Raj in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

20. Who among the following argues that fault lines of civilizations are the breeding grounds of conflict in 21st Century ?
(A) Francis Fukuyama
(B) Samuel Huntington
(C) Henry Kissinger
(D) Sanjay Subramaniam
Ans : (B)

21. Consider the following classics of Marxism—
1. The German Ideology (Marx and Engels)
2. The Paris Commune (Marx)
3. The Critique of the Gotha Programme (Marx)
4. State and Revolution (Lenin)
Which of the above are a strong endorsement of direct democracy ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (A)

22. The concept of civil disobedience is not central in the thought of who of the following ?
(A) John Rawls
(B) M. K. Gandhi
(C) Leo Tolstoy
(D) Michel Foucault
Ans : (A)

23. Which one of the following theories considers democracy not as a government of the people but as ‘the iron law of oligarchy’ ?
(A) The Pluralist
(B) The Marxist
(C) The Elitist
(D) The Idealist
Ans : (C)

24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Theories of Democracy)
(a) Elite theory
(b) Pluralist theory
(c) Radical theory
(d) Neo-Liberal theory
List-II (Champions)
1. C. B. Macpherson
2. Robert Nozick
3. Vilfredo Pareto
4. Robert Dahl
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (C)

25. Consider the following statements—
Liberal feminists advocate:
1. equality before the law for women
2. same rights for men and women
3. special representation for women in decision-making bodies
4. assault on patriarchy
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

26. The public can private spheres came to be strongly demarcated in which one of the following ideological orientations ?
(A) Fascism
(B) Liberalism
(C) Feminism
(D) Marxism
Ans : (C)

27. Which one of the following books makes value and meaning crucial determinants of human action ?
(A) Rousseau’s ‘Discourse on the Origin of Inequality
(B) Marx’s ‘On the Jewish Question’
(C) Weber’s ‘Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism’
(D) Paine’s ‘Rights of Man’
Ans : (C)

28. According to Lenin, what are the three sources of Marxism ?
(A) Russian anarchism, French socialism and British economy
(B) German philosophy, British political economy and French socialism
(C) French philosophy, British economy and German socialism
(D) Hegelian dialectics, Blanqui’s socialism and Ricardo’s political economy
Ans : (B)

29. In which one of the following texts is the concept of ‘dialectics’ examined ?
(A) Imperialism, the Highest Stage of Capitalism (Lenin)
(B) The Eighteenth Brumaire of Louis Bonaparte (Marx)
(C) Social Reform or Revolution (Luxemburg)
(D) For Marx (Althusser)
Ans : (A)

30. Consider the following concepts—
1. Epistemological break
2. Relative autonomy of the superstructure
3. Economy in the last instance
4. Paradigm shift Althusser is credited with which of the above concepts ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

31. Consider the following—
1. Decentralization
2. Labour-intensive industry
3. Promotion of Indian languages vis-a-vis English
4. Opposition to caste system
Which of the above were the central tenets of Lohia-inspired socialism in India ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

32. Consider the following statements—
1. Truth is a subjective quality, available only to a few gifted people, whose will or spirit or personality is greater than that of the masses.
2. Non-violence is the law of our species as violence is the law of brute.
Which political ideologies are reflected in the statements 1 and 2 above respectively ?
(A) Marxism in 1 and Gandhism in 2
(B) Syndicalism in 1 and Gandhism in 2
(C) Fascism in 1 and Liberalism in 2
(D) Fascism in 1 and Gandhism in 2
Ans : (D)

33. Consider the following propositions—
1. Trusteeship implies making use of resources at one’s command for the welfare of all.
2. Nayee (Nai) Taleem (Basic Education) is integration of learning with work.
3. Satyagraha is holding on to truth even at one’s cost.
With which of the above propositions did Gandhi disagree ?
(A) None
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 only
(D) 3
Ans : (A)

34. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi’s Ideas —C. F. Andrews
(B) The Gandhian Way —J. B. Kriplani
(C) Marx, Gandhi and Socialism —Ram Manohar Lohia
(D) Gandhi’s Political Philosophy —B. R. Nanda
Ans : (D)

35. Consider the following countries—
1. Sri Lanka
2. Malaysia
3. Australia
4. Canada
Which of the above countries has/have formally declared itself/themselves as multicultural ?
(A) 2, 3 and 4 only
(B) 2 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (C)

36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Country)
(a) Egypt
(b) Nigeria
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) Syria
List-II (Party)
1. National Democratic Party
2. People’s Democratic Party
3. United National Party
4. Baath Party
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 4 3 2 1
Ans : (A)

37. Which one of the following was the first country-wide pressure group of the organized Indian working class ?
(A) All India Trade Union Congress
(B) Indian National Trade Union Congress
(C) Indian Mining Federation
(D) Hind Mazdoor Sabha
Ans : (A)

38. With which one of the following is the expression ‘gift of grace’ associated ?
(A) Legal-rational authority
(B) Traditional authority
(C) Charismatic authority
(D) Autocratic authority
Ans : (C)

39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Exponent)
(a) Eva Balfour
(b) W. W. Rostow
(c) A. G. Frank
(d) Samir Amin
List-II (Theory)
1. Stages of development
2. Centre-periphery theory
3. Environmental theory
4. Development of underdevelopment
5. Sustainable development
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 5 1 4 2
(B) 3 4 1 5
(C) 5 4 1 2
(D) 3 1 4 5
Ans : (A)

40. Which of the following is/are the major theme(s) of New International Economic Order (NIEO) ?
1. Self-reliance
2. Globalization and liberalization
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (D)

41. Consider the following statements—
The New Social Movements
1. do not seek ‘total’ change
2. are not class-based
3. do not believe in direct action
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 3 only
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

42. Consider the following International Women’s Conferences—
1. Nairobi
2. Mexico
3. Copenhagen
4. Beijing
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above Conference ?
(A) 3, 2, 4 and 1
(B) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(C) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(D) 2, 3, 1 and 4
Ans : (D)

43. Who of the following Presidents of India was associated with the Trade Union Movement in India ?
(A) V. V. Giri
(B) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(C) K. R. Narayanan
(D) Zakir Hussain
Ans : (A)

44. Which one of the following political theorists finds the concept of ‘imagined community’ inadequate to describe nationalism in post-colonial societies ?
(A) Partha Chatterjee
(B) V. R. Mehta
(C) Hans Cohn
(D) Ernest Gellner
Ans : (A)

45. Consider the following events—
1. OPEC’s Oil Embargo
2. Accession of UK, Ireland and Denmark to the European Economic Community (EEC)
3. Demand for a New International Economic Order by developing countries in the General Assembly of the United Nations
4. Suez Crisis
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ?
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 1
(C) 4, 2, 1 and 3
(D) 4, 3, 2 and 1
Ans : (C)

46. The key to Gramsci’s analysis of the failure of socialist revolution to take off in the West is the concept of—
(A) ideology
(B) intellectuals
(C) hegemony
(D) civil society
Ans : (C)

47. The zero-sum game as employed by the supporters of the game theory assumes that—
(A) the loss of one player is the gain of the other
(B) the loss of one player is the loss of the other as well
(C) the gain or the loss of one player has nothing to do with the gain or the loss of the other
(D) the gain of one player is the gain of the other player
Ans : (A)

48. Consider the following developments—
1. Outsourcing of services
2. Shrinking of geographical distance
3. Rise of ethnic identity
4. Emergence of regional associations
Which of the above developments are associated with globalization ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

49. The old institutional approach to the study of political and government systems lays emphasis on—
(A) they study of formal aspects of government and politics
(B) finding out principles underlying all political activites
(C) the search for regularities and for making generalizations
(D) transcendental ideals embodying different views of ‘what ought to be’
Ans : (A)

50. Which of the following statements regarding behavioural approach are correct ?
1. It is interdisciplinary in nature.
2. It is more descriptive and less empirical.
3. It is value neutral.
4. It puts emphasis on qualitative judgement.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 1 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

51. The Supreme Court of India enjoys the power of ‘judicial review’, which means the power to—
(A) review the judgements of State High Courts
(B) review the functioning of the Council of Ministers
(C) advise the President of India
(D) decide the Constitutionality of an Act (or part thereof) passed by the Legislature
Ans : (D)

52. Consider the following statements—
The Supreme Court judgement in S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India has been interpreted to mean that the Governor can dismiss a Council of Ministers or the Chief Minister
1. at his pleasure on his subjective estimate of the strength of the Chief Minister in the Assembly.
2. when the Legislative Assembly has expressed its want of confidence in the Council of Ministers.
3. when a measure of the Council of Ministers has been defeated on the floor of the Assembly.
4. when a censure motion against the Council of Minister has been rejected in the Legislative Assembly.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

53. Which of the following best perform the function of interest articulation in a political system ?
1. Trade unions and ethnic associations
2. Organizations of businessmen and civic groups
3. Judiciary and law-making institutions
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3 only
(C) 1 and 2 only
(D) 1 only
Ans : (C)

54. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Approach and Theory)
(a) Structural-Functional approach
(b) Communication theory
(c) General System theory
(d) Rational Choice
List-II (Political Scientist associated with)
1. Davi Easton
2. Karl Deutsch
3. Antony Downs
4. Gabriel Almond
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (D)

55. According to Gabriel Almond, which of the following are the basic characteristics of a system ?
1. Comprehensiveness and interdependence
2. Interdependence and existence of boundaries
3. Existence of boundaries and allocation of values
4. Allocation of values and goal attainment
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1 and 2
Ans : (D)

56. Which one of the following was not identified by Almond as a stage of conversion process of a political system ?
(A) Interest articulation
(B) Interest aggregation
(C) Political recruitment
(D) Rule adjudication
Ans : (D)

57. Consider the following political system—
1. Czech Republic
2. Malaysia
3. South Africa
4. Sri Lanka
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above opting to a sustained competitive electoral democracy ?
(A) 2, 4, 3 and 1
(B) 2, 3, 4 and 1
(C) 4, 2, 1 and 3
(D) 4, 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (C)

58. Consider the following statements—
The classification of authoritarian systems made by Almond and Powell includes
1. radical and conservative totalitarian
2. pre-mobilized authoritarian and pre-mobilized democratic
3. conservative and modernizing authoritarian
4. secularized City-States and pyramidal systems
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans : (D)

59. Consider the following—
1. Timocracy and oligarchy
2. Democracy and tyranny
3. Republics and autocracy
4. Theocracy and polity
Which of the above are included in Plato’s classification of governments ?
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 2 and 4
Ans : (A)

60. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Institutions/Units of Government)
(a) Laender
(b) Procuratorates
(c) Privy Council
(d) Commissions de modernization
List-II (Countries associated)
1. France
2. China
3. Great Britain
4. German Federal Republic
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (D)

61. In the US House of Representatives, the second reading of a Bill is undertaken in which one of the following Committees ?
(A) Select Committee
(B) Standing Committee
(C) Conference Committee
(D) Committee of the Whole House
Ans : (B)

62. When the Senate of the United States sits for a trial for impeachment of the US President, the House is presided over by the—
(A) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(B) President of the House
(C) Vice-President of the United States
(D) Senator representing the largest province of the United States
Ans : (A)

63. In several States of the US, the Jim Crow Legislation was responsible for—
(A) segregation of different communities
(B) reparations for previously segregated communities
(C) common schools for blacks and whites
(D) ban of civil rights movement
Ans : (C)

64. The final outcome of the French presidential election is on the completion of (run of election) second ballot among—
(A) all the candidates
(B) top two candidates
(C) top three candidates
(D) top four candidates
Ans : (B)

65. Consider the following statements—
The charge of violation of the Constitution by the President of India for his impeachment cannot be preferred by a House unless :
1. a resolution containing the proposal is moved after a 7 days’ notice in writing signed by not less than 1
4th of the total number of members of that House
2. the resolution is passed by a majority of not less than 2 3rd of the total membership of that House
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (B)

66. During the cultural revolution in China, public security organs known as workers provost corps were created for which of the following ?
1. Dealing with counter-revolutionary activities
2. Keeping surveillance over the activities of the Red Guard
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

67. The National Assembly of South Africa, by a resolution adopted with a supporting vote of at least two-thirds of its members, can remove the President from the office on which of the following grounds ?
1. Serious violation of the Constitution or the Law
2. Serious misconduct
3. Moral corruption
4. Inability to perform the functions of the office
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 2 and 4 only
(C) 3 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

68. Which of the following are included in the Right to Privacy under the Constitution of South Africa ?
Right not to have :
1. person or home searched
2. property searched
3. possession seized
4. privacy of their communication infringed
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(D) 3 and 4 only
Ans : (D)

69. Which one of the following Committees/Commissions prepared the groundwork for the communal award granting separate representation to depressed classes in India ?
(A) Southborough Committee
(B) Simon Commission
(C) Nehru Committee
(D) Lothian Committee
Ans : (B)

70. Consider the following statements with respect to the Rajya Sabha—
1. The origin of the Rajya Sabha can be traced back to 1919, when in pursuance to the Government of India Act, 1919, a second chamber known as the Council of States was created.
2. The Rajya Sabha has special powers to declare that it is necessary and expedient in the national interest that Parliament may make laws with respect to a matter in the State List.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

71. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
State — No. of Members in the Rajya Sabha
(A) Maharashtra — 19
(B) Tamil Nadu — 18
(C) Bihar — 18
(D) West Bengal — 16
Ans : (C)

72. Which one of the following is a Constitutional Body ?
(A) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(B) National Commission for Minorities
(C) National Commission for Women
(D) Planning Commission
Ans : (A)

73. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the following ways can a person become a citizen of India ?
1. By birth
2. By descent
3. By registration
4. By nationalization
5. By incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(D) 3, 4 and 4 only
Ans : (C)

74. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen according to Article 51A of the Constitution ?
1. To believe in socialism, secularism and democracy
2. To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem
3. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
4. To preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture
5. To help the poor and weaker sections of the society
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 3, 4 and 5
(D) 1, 4 and 5
Ans : (B)

75. Which of the following are considered as basic structure of the Indian Constitution ?
1. Republican and democratic form of Government
2. Secular character of the Constitution
3. Division between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Federal character of the Constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes give below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (D)

76. To whom does the Chairperson of every Metropolitan Planning Committee forward the development
plan, as recommended by such a Committee ?
(A) The Planning Commission
(B) The Finance Minister, Government of India
(C) The Urban Development Minister, Government of India
(D) The Government of the State
Ans : (D)

77. Consider the following statements—
The Sarkaria Commission recommended :
1. the overlapping membership between Planning Commission and Finance Commission
2. that experts with established reputation for professional integrity be appointed to the Planning Commission
3. that centrally sponsored schemes should be kept to the minimum
4. that States should not be involved in the implementation of centrally sponsored schemes
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 2 and 3 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (A)

78. Under which of the following regimes was the Inter-State Council (ISC) set up ?
(A) Congress Government in 1975
(B) Janata Government in 1978
(C) Janata Dal led Government in 1990
(D) United Front Government in 1996
Ans : (C)

79. Parliament of India passed the States Reorganisation Act in 1956 to create—
(A) 16 States and 3 Union Territories
(B) 16 States and 5 Union Territories
(C) 14 States and 6 Union Territories
(D) 24 States and 9 Union Territories
Ans : (C)

80. Which of the following have caused the growth of cooperative federalism in India ?
1. Union-State collaboration in economic matters
2. Union-State legislative relations
3. Compulsion of development finance
4. Dynamics of electoral politics
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 1 and 4
Ans : (C)

81. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Content — Schedule in the Constitution of India
(A) Languages — Eighth Schedule
(B) The forms of oaths or affirmations — Second Schedule
(C) Allocation of seats in the Council of States — Fourth Schedule
(D) Provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection — Tenth Schedule
Ans : (B)

82. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Taxes belonging to the Union exclusively
(b) Taxes belonging to the State exclusively
(c) Duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States
(d) Duties levied as well as collected by the Union but assigned to the State
List-II
1. Sales tax
2. Customs
3. Excise duties on medicinal preparation
4. Duties on succession to property other than agricultural land
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 1 3 2
Ans : (B)

83. Consider the following statements—
1. Articles 64 and 89(1) of the Constitution of India provide that the Vice-President of India shall be Ex-officio
Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit.
2. There is no such office as that of the Vice-President of India in other parliamentary systems of Governments in Commonwealth countries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

84. Consider the following statements—
1. Interest aggregation is the activity in which the political demands of individuals and groups are combined
into policy programmes.
2. Large nations usually develop more specialized organisations for the specific purpose of aggregating interests and resources behind a policy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

85. Which one of the following judgements stated that secularism and federalism are the basic features of the Indian Constitution ?
(A) Keshavananda Bharati Case
(B) S. R. Bommai Case
(C) Indira Sawhney Case
(D) Minerva Mills Case
Ans : (A)

86. Consider the following statements—
1. The President nominates 12 members of the Rajya Sabha on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. The President has absolute power to appoint and remove the chairman and members of statutory bodies
at his discretion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

87. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India gives the right to Ministers and Attorney-General to speak in or to take part in the proceedings of either House ?
(A) Article 84
(B) Article 85
(C) Article 87
(D) Article 88
Ans : (D)

88. Which one of the following is not associated with the duties of the Prime Minister ?
(A) To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers
(B) To recommend to the President about the decision that a particular Bill may be certified as Money Bill
(C) To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for Legislations as the President may call for
(D) If the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister which has not been considered by the Council
Ans : (B)

89. The Kamraj Plan proposed—
(A) priority to agriculture over industry
(B) inducting senior leaders to party work
(C) election to all party offices
(D) an overhaul of the Congress Working Committee
Ans : (D)

90. Consider the following statements—
1. The representation of women in the Lok Sabha (up to 14th) has never exceeded 10 per cent of the total
strength.
2. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha envisaged by the Constitution is 552, which is made up by election of up to 530 members to represent the States, up to 20 members to represent the Union Territories and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

91. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to Parliamentary Committees ?
(A) To Public Accounts Committee and the Public Undertakings Committee are joint committees of both the Houses of Parliament
(B) 17 Departmentally Related Committees were set up in early 1990s
(C) There are Standing and Ad hoc Committees
(D) The Estimates Committee and the Public Accounts Committee are always headed by a senior leader of the rulling party/coalition
Ans : (D)

92. Which one of the following Parliamentary Committees consists exclusively of members of the Lok Sabha ?
(A) The Public Accounts Committee
(B) The Estimates Committee
(C) The Committee on Public Undertakings
(D) The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
Ans : (B)

93. ‘Rule of Lapse’ means—
(A) all pending Bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(B) the demand for grants of a Ministry lapses if the Departmentally Related Committee disapproves it
(C) the Appropriation Bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
(D) all appropriations voted by the Legislature expire at the end of the financial year
Ans : (D)

94. The Supreme Court has increased the ambit of the Right to life (Article 21) to include which of the following ?
1. Right to life includes the Right to live with dignity
2. Right to life includes the Right to livelihood
3. Right to life includes the Right to receive minimum wages
4. Right to life includes the Right to guaranteed employment for 100 days in a year
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 4 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (B)

95. Verdicts of the Supreme Court of India in which of the following cases have a direct bearing on Centre-State relations ?
1. S. R. Bommai Case
2. Keshavananda Bharati Case
3. Vishakha Case
4. Indira Sawhney Case
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1, 2 and 3 only
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (A)

96. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) ADM Jabalpur Case —Rights of citizens under emergency
(B) Vishakha Case —Centre-State relations
(C) Indira Sawhney Case —Rights of women at work
(D) Kartar Singh Case —Rights of minorities
Ans : (A)

97. Which Supreme Court Judge played a pivotal role in the introduction of Public Interest Litigation ?
(A) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
(B) Justice K. S. Hegde
(C) Justice A. N. Ray
(D) Justice P. B. Gajendragadkar
Ans : (A)

98. Which of the following States were reorganized in 1950s following strong demands for linguistic States ?
1. Karnataka
2. Maharashtra
3. Punjab
4. Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
Ans : (D)

99. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists—
List-I (Form of Citizen Interest Articulation)
(a) Voting in elections
(b) Informal group, social movement
(c) Direct contact
(d) Protest activity
List-II (Scope of Interest)
1. Highly expressive support for specific interests
2. Normally deals with specific, personal problem
3. Collective action focused on a common interest
4. Broad, collective decision on government leaders and their programmes
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (B)

100. Article 371(A) provides for special provisions with respect to which of the following States ?
(A) Maharashtra and Gujarat
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Nagaland
(D) Assam
Ans : (C)

101. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are not correct with regard to Jammu and Kashmir (J & K) ?
1. Provisions of Article 368 cannot be extended to J & K unless it is extended by an order of the President under Article 370(1).
2. No alteration of the boundaries of the State without the consent of the Legislature of the State of J & K.
3. The Union has power to make a proclamation of financial emergency with respect to the State of J & K under Article 360.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 only
(B) 1 only 2
(C) 3 only
(D) 1 and 3
Ans : (C)

102. Identify the characteristics of the ‘Congress System’ as described by Rajni Kothari—
(A) Faction-ridden party with charismatic leadership
(B) One-party dominance with weak opposition
(C) One-party dominance and factions in the party networking with the opposition
(D) One-party dominance and a strong regional leadership
Ans : (B)

103. Consider the following statements—
1. Article 86(1) of the Constitution provides that the President may address either House of Parliament or both the Houses assembled together.
2. The provision for Address by the Head of State to Parliament was made for the first time under the Government of India Act, 1935.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1 only
(B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

104. Consider the following political parties of India—
1. DMK
2. CPI(M)
3. AGP
4. TDP
Which one of the following is the correct chronology of their formation ?
(A) 1, 2, 4 and 3
(B) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 1, 4 and 3
(D) 4, 3, 2 and 1
Ans : (A)

105. Consider the following statements with respect to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment—
1. It envisages the Gram Sabha as the foundation of the Panchayati Raj System.
2. It ensures that Panchayat bodies will have an assured duration of five years.
3. It stipulates that the Chairperson of a Panchayat shall be elected by and from amongst the elected members thereof.
4. It has reserved 33 per cent of the seats to Other Backward Classes in Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 2, 3 and 4 only
(D) 1 and 4 only
Ans : (B)

106. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Movement)
(a) Chipko Movement
(b) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(c) Jharkhand Movement
(d) Bandhua Mukti Morcha
List-II (Person)
1. Sunderlal Bahuguna
2. Medha Patkar
3. Jaipal Singh
4. Swami Agnivesh
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (A)

107. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a) Democratic Decentralization
(b) Nagar Panchayats
(c) Panchayati Raj Elections
(d) Two-tier System
List-II
1. 73rd Amendment
2. 74th Amendment
3. B. R. Mehta Committee
4. Ashok Mehta Committee
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 4 1 2 3
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (D)

108. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to the 73rd Amendment to the Constitution of India ?
1. Constitutional status to Panchayats
2. Reservation of seats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes or as the case may be, the Scheduled Tribes
3. Providing permanent structures for district planning
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 only
(C) 2 only
(D) 3 only
Ans : (A)

109. Which one of the following States has the highest percentage of woman representatives in the Panchayati Raj Institutions ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Kerala
(D) Bihar
Ans : (B)

110. Which one of the following is not a part of the objectives of the Science and Technology Policy, 2003 ?
(A) To ensure food, agricultural, nutritional, environmental, water, health and energy security of the people on a sustainable basis
(B) Optimal utilization of existing physical and knowledge resources
(C) Restricting brain drain
(D) Development of innovative technologies
Ans : (C)

111. According to Paul Brass, which one of the following was the crucial factor for the occurrence of communal riots in India ?
(A) Absence of social trust
(B) Economic rivalry between communities
(C) Organized riot system
(D) Memories of cultural conflict
Ans : (D)

112. According to Census 2001, which of the following sets of States/Union Territories has the highest literacy rate in India ?
(A) Kerala–Mizoram–Himachal Pradesh–Maharashtra
(B) Mizoram–Manipur–Tamil Nadu–Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu-Andhra Pradesh–Karnataka–Goa
(D) Kerala–Mizoram–Lakshadweep–Goa
Ans : (D)

113. What is the correct sequence of States in terms of descending order of percentage of Scheduled Caste population to the total population of the concerned State ?
(A) Punjab–Uttar Pradesh–Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu–West Bengal–Uttar Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh–Karnataka–Tamil Nadu
(D) Andhra Pradesh–West Bengal–Kerala
Ans : (A)

114. On which of the following issues can a Governor make recommendation to the President ?
1. Dismissal of the State Council of Ministers
2. Removal of the Judges of the High Court
3. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
4. Declaration of the breakdown of the Constitution Machinery in the State
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (C)

115. Consider the following statements with respect to Governor of a State—
1. A Governor shall, notwithstanding the expiration of his term, continue to hold office until his successor enters upon his office.
2. No person shall be eligible for appointment as Governor unless he has completed the age of thirty years.
3. The question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the Governor shall not be inquired into in any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 1 and 3 only
(D) 3 only
Ans : (C)

Directions—The following five (5) items consists of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below.
Codes :
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false but R is true.

116. Assertion (A) : T.H. Marshall divided citizenship rights as civil, political and social.
Reason (R) : The civic virtue of citizenship is regarded as an important supplement to theories of institutional justice today.
Ans : (B)

117. Assertion (A) : As traditions and customs stabilize owing to their constant and continuous usage, they take the shape of rights.
Reason (R) : A legal right is a claim that is recognized by law and enforced by a court.
Ans : (B)

118. Assertion (A) : Preferential policies need not always violate the principle of fairness.
Reason (R) : Treating citizens as equals may require treating them differently.
Ans : (B)

119. Assertion (A) : The system of Proportional Representation may solve the problem of minority representatives to some extent.
Reason (R) : The system of Proportional Representation enables due representation to all types of groups based on ethnicity, gender interests and ideologies.
Ans : (A)

120. Assertion (A) : Nazism in Germany resorted to a relentless course of militarization and expansionism.
Reason (R) : Nazism subscribed to the belief of ‘master-race’ destined to world domination.
Ans : (A)