CAREER JOURNAL Headline Animator

Showing posts with label SOLVED PAPERS. Show all posts
Showing posts with label SOLVED PAPERS. Show all posts

Sunday, 4 March 2012

Delhi Police Constable Driver Exam 2009 Drivers Exam Paper

1. A number is greater than 7 but less than 19. It is also greater than 17 but less than 33. The number is?

(A) 19

(B) 18

(C) 31

(D) None of these

2. In a ‘Left Hand Drive’ vehicle, the steering wheel is located on the ?

(A) Left hand side

(B) In the centre

(C) Right hand side

(D) None of these

3. While driving in the city at night, the headlight should normally be kept?

(A)       Switched off

(B)       At low beam

(C)       At high beam

(D)       None of these

4.. In a round-about, who has the right of way?

(A) The traffic to your right

(B) The traffic to your left

(C) The faster moving vehicle

(D) All of the above

5. If there are 3 lanes in a carriage way, the overtaking lane is usually on the?

(A) On the left side

(B) In the middle

(C) On the right side

(D) None of the above

6. Before leaving a parked vehicle, you should

(A) Turn the ignition key off

(B) Stop the engine, lock the ignition, remove the key, and set the hand brake

(C) Stop the engine and lock the car

(0) None of the above

7. Double solid tines in the middle of the road indicate

(A) You may cross over while overtaking

(B) You may not cross over the lines unless there is an obstruction

(C) No overtaking

(D) One way traffic only

8. Flashing yellow light means?

(A) Slow down and proceed with caution

(B) Stop, if possible to do so safely

(C) Continue at the same speed

(D) None of the above

9. To top up the batterymeans?

(A) Acid is to be filled

(B) Distilled water is to be filled

(C) Mixture of both

(D) Mixture of distilled water and coolant is to be filled

10. The braking action has reduced after washing the vehicle, what can be done?

(A) Have the brakes adjusted at a workshop

(B) The vehicle is unserviceable and must be withdrawn from the traffic at once

(C) Normal braking action can be restored by operating the brakes several times at a slow driving speed

(D) None of the above

11. Ravi buys a bicycle for Rs. 1200 and later sells it to Ganesh at a loss of Rs. 200. Ganesh then sells it to Irfan for a loss of 10% . How much did Irfan pay for the bicycle?

(A) Rs.1100

(B) Rs. 950

(C) Rs. 1000

(D) Rs. 900

12. Petrol engine : Spark plug

Diesel engine:?

(A) Piston rings

(B) Crankshaft

(C) Heater plug

(D) Distributor

13. A bus leaves for Bhopal from Delhi every 40 min The last bus for Bhopal left 15 minutes back and right now it is 11-25 AM. At what time will the next bus for Bhopal leave?

(A) 11:50A.M.

(B) 12-05P.M.

(C) 11-40 A.M.

(D) 11-45 P.M.

14. The distance between Delhi and Lucknow is 520 km. A train has covered 70 km in the first hour. What will the total time taken for the journey if the train goes at a speed of 90 km per hour for the remaining distance?

(A) 5 hrs.

(B) 7 hrs.

(C) 5 hrs. 30 min

(D) 6hrs.

15. Mandatory traffic signs are in which shape?

(A) Triangle

(B) Circle

(C) Rectangle

(D) Can be of any shape


16. The choke can be used if the

engine is?

(A) Hot

(B) Cold

(C) Giving Smoke

(D)All of the above

17. In cold climate, kerosene can be mixed with?

(A) Petrol

(B) Diesel

(C) CNG

(D) All of the above

18. Every time engine oil is changed……must also be changed.

(A) Transmission oil

(B) Coolant

(C) Brake oil

(D) Oil filter

19. Informatory signs are usually in shape.

(A) Circle

(B) Triangle

(C) Rectangle

(D) No particular shape

20. 10% of the potatoes bought by a trader turned out to be rotten. He sold the rest of them for a profit of 20%. What per cent profit did he make on the whole deal?

(A)10%

(B) 12%

(C)8%

(D) 6%

21. Ustad Zakir Hussain is associated   with the—

(A)Sarod

(B) Sitar

(C)Tabla

(D) Flute

22. Amartya Sen is a famous Indian

(A)       Musician

(B)       Businessman

(C)       Economist

(D)       None of these

23. Overtaking from left side of another vehicle is permitted:

(A) Always

(B) Only when the driver ahead of you gives a signal

(C) Only when the vehicle ahead is going to take right turn and if there is no obstruction on left

(D) Only if you are in the left lane

24. The carburettor is found in—

(A) Diesel engine

(B) Petrol engine

(C) Both types of engines

(D) None of the above

25. Emperor Ashok was shocked by the pain and suffering he saw in the?

(A) Baffle of Plassey

(B) Magadha wars

(C) Battle of Lumbini

(D) Kalinga war

26.The vacuum booster in a vehicle is used to assist the—

(A)       Power

(B)       Braking

(C)       Fuel consumption

(D)       None of the above

27. The term of a member of the Rajya Sabha is for ?

(A) 5 years

(B) 6 years

(C) 4 years

(D) None of the above

28. The central office of the Reserve Bank of India is in?

(A) New Delhi

(B) Mumbai

(C) Kolkata

(D) Chennai

29. Complete the series:

23, 40, 57…….

(A)74

(B) 80

(C)77

(D) 93

Directions—(Q 30 to 33)

Find  the odd one out:

30. (A) Cow

(B) Goat

(C) Camel

(D) Dog

31. (A) Petrol

(B) Wood

(C) Diesel

(D) CNG

32. (A) Sun

(B) Moon

(C) Rainbow

(D) Stars

33.(A)Apple

(B) Potato

(C)Tomato

(D) Grapes

34. When starting a car, the accelerator should—

(A) Be kept pressed down fully

(B) Be pumped rapidly

(C) Normally not be pressed at all

(D) None of the above

35. Talking on the mobile phone while driving—

(A) Is permitted if a hands-free kit is used

(B) Is prohibited

(C) Is permitted if you are driving within the speed limit

(D) None of the above

36. A driving license issued in Rajasthan is valid

(A) Only in Rajasthan

(B) In Rajasthan and adjoining states

(C) All over India

(D) In all states of North India

37.Our body is made up predominantly of?

(A)Iron

(B) Muscle

(C)Bone

(D) Water

38. Which of these is not an eco friendly power source?

(A) Solar power

(B) Wind power

(C) Coal

(D) None of the above

39. Who has the right of way in the hills ?

(A) The vehicle going uphill

(B) The vehicle going downhill

(C) The heavier vehicle

(D) Depends on the situation

40. Which types of brakes are found in modern vehicles?

(A) Drum brakes

(B) Disc brakes

(C) Both of the above

(D) None of the above

41. Engine oil should be checked?

(A) When the engine is cold and vehicle is level

(B) When the engine is warm

(C) While the engine is running

(D) All of the above

42. Saina Nehwal is associated with ?

(A)Tennis

(B) Badminton

(C) Swimming

(D) Chess

43. The Delhi Police Act came into effect in the year?

(A)       1861

(B)       1951

(C)       1978

(D)      1975

44. Using a pressure horn

(A) Helps to clear the road

(B) Should be avoided at night

(C) Is illegal

(D) Is allowed only for  VIP vehicles

45. India is a member of?

(A) NATO

(B) SAARC

(C) UN Security Council

(D) All of the above

46…….. is the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.

(A) Deputy Speaker of LokSabha

(B) Vice-President of India

(C) Attorney General

(D) None of the above

47. A car runs 2480 km on 310 litres of petrol during the first 15 days of the month. During the next 15 days, it travels 2560 km on 320 litres of petrol. What is the distance travelled per litre during the entire month?

(A) 9 km

(B) 7 km

(C) 8.4 km

(D) 8 km

48. Abhinav Bindra won the Olympic gold medal in?

(A)Boxing

(B) Chess

(C)Wrestling

(D) Shooting

49. The port of Vishakhapatnam is on the coast of?

(A) The Bay of Bengal

(B) The Arabian Sea

(C) The Gulf of Khambat

(D) The Palk Straits

50………… is famous for its marble.

(A) Ranchi

(B) Makrana

(C) Bokaro

(D) Madurai

51. The oldest football tournament in India is the?

(A) Santosh Trophy

(B) Ranji Trophy

(C) Durand Cup

(D) None of these

52.The……. links jammu to the kashmir valley.

(A) Rohtang Pass

(B) Baralacha Tunnel

(C) Jawahar Tunnel

(D) Sela Pass

53. The Arnarnath cave is situated in?

(A)Jammu & Kashmir

(B)Himachal Pradesh

(C)Tibet

(D)Uttarakhand

54. Registration numbers of private cars are written in?

(A) Black letters on white back ground

(B) White letters on black back ground

(C) Black letters on yellow back ground

(D) Yellow letters on black back ground

55. The minimum age for applying for a learners license is—

(A) 21 years

(B) 18 years

(C) 16 years

(D) None of the above

56. A person who has consumed alcoholic drinks can drive if?

(A) He thinks he can control the car

(B) His house is close by

(C) He is an expert driver

(D) None of the above

57. A water tank has a capacity of 400 litres. It gets half-filled by putting 10 buckets of water in it. What is thecapacity of the bucket?

(A)10 litres

(B) 15 litres

(C)40 litres

(D) 20 litres

58. Keeping one foot on the clutch

(A) Helps in relaxing the leg

(B) Helps in changing gears

(C) Is a bad habit

(D) None of the above

59. Where is the famous Sun Temple located?

(A)Madurai

(B) Mathura

(C)Konark

(D) Calicut

60. A flashing red light means—

(A) Stop, and wait for the light to turn green

(B) Stop, and proceed when it is safe to do so

(C) Slow down the check for oncoming traffic and proceed when it is safe

(D) None of the above

61. It is illegal to park—

(A) On a footpath

(B) On a bridge or inside a tunnel

(C) In a bicycle lane

(D) All of the above

62. Your vehicle is involved in an accident hurting people, you should—

(A) Report to the nearest police station, and take the persons to the hospital

(B) First take the injured people to the hospital and then report to the police station

(C) Need not report to the police station but should take the persons to the hospital

(D) Inform PCR on 100 and continue your journey

63. Which lane must you be in, while making a right turn?

(A) Any lane

(B) Extreme left lane

(C) Extreme right lane

(D) Middle lane

64. While driving on a wet slippery road

(A) lyre pressure must be reduced

(B) Sudden braking or acceleration must be avoided

(C) Vehicle should be driven at a high speed

(D) All of the above

65. To drive a vehicle with expired insurance, one

(A) Shall drive cautiously to avoid any accident and subse quent loss to the third party

(B) Shall not drive in any case

(C) May drive if insurance policy covering the drivers personal insurance is valid

(D) All of the above

66. With which country did India sign a nuclear accord in 2008?

(A)China

(B) USA

(C)Pakistan

(D) Germany

67. Who built the Red Port?

(A) Akbar

(B) Aurangzeb

(C) .Jehangir

(D) Shah Jahan

68. Who is the President of Pakistan?

(A) General Kayani

(B) Pervez Musharraf

(C) Vusuf Gilani

(D) A. A. Zardari

69. The latest differences between the Ambani brothers are over?

(A) Natural gas

(B) Cotton textiles

(C) Mobile ptiones

70. The Kaziranga Wildlife Sanctuary is famous for its—

(A) Rhinocerous

(B) White Tigers

(C) Ghariyal

(D) Great Indian Bustard

71. The electric current in our households is—

(A) 220 volt AC

(B) 220 volt DC

(C) 440 volt AC

(D) None of these

72. Itanagar is the capital of?

(A) Mizoram

(B) Iripura

(C) Arunachal Pradesh

(D) Meghalaya

73. Car : Petrol: : Torch: ?

(A) Plastic

(B) Bulb

(C) Cell

(D) None of these

74.Neighborhood :  House::Student. : ?

(A) Class

(B) Books

(C) Uniform

(D) None of these

75 …..:Deer :: Cow :Grass

(A)Leaves

(B)Lion

(C)Jungle

(D)Zoo

76.Shared Needle:…..::Mosquito Bite : Malaria.

(A) Pain

(B) Injection

(C) HIV-AIDS

(D) Cancer

77. Cassette Tape : Audio ::

? : Digital Picture.

(A)       Photo film

(B)       Camera

(C)       Computer

(D)       None of these

Answers :

1          B

2          A

3          B

4          A

5          C

6          B

7          C

8          A

9          B

10        C

11        D

12        B

13        A

14        D

15        D

16        B

17        B

18        D

19        C

20        C

21        C

22        C

23        C

24        B

25        D

26        B

27        B

28        B

29        A

30        D

31        B

32        C

33        B

34        C

35        B

36        C

37        D

38        C

39        A

40        C

41        A

42        B

43        C

44        C

45        B

46        B

47        D

48        D

49        A

50        B

51        C

52        C

53        A

54        A

55        B

56        D

57        D

58        C

59        C

60        B

61        D

62        B

63        C

64        B

65        B

66        B

67        D

68        D

69        A

70        A

71        A

72        C

73        C

74        A

75        B

76        C

77        A

Saturday, 11 February 2012

FCI Management Trainee (General/Depot) Exam Paper

1. Who of the following brought the Sikh Kingdom of Punjab under direct British rule
by an official proclamation?
(A) Lord Hastings
(B) Lord Cornwallis
(C) Lord Minto
(D) Lord Dalhousie
Ans. (D)
2. India is comparatively not rich in which one of the following minerals compared to the other three?
(A) Bauxite
(B) Copper
(C) Iron
(D) Manganese
Ans. (B)
3. Among the following, which one has recorded the highest population growth rate during 1991-2001?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Manipur
(C) Nagaland
(D) Sikkim
Ans. (C)
4. In which one of the following regions does the Indus river originate?
(A) Laddakh
(B) Lahaul
(C) Nepal
(D) Tibet
Ans. (A)
5. What is the term used to denote the temperature at which the water vapour present in the atmosphere is sufficient to saturate?
(A) Condensation point
(B) Dew point
(C) Sublimation point
(D) Saturation point
Ans. (D)
6. The earth’s reflectivity of solar radiation, termed albedo, is highest in which one of the following?
(A) Cropland
(B) Forest area
(C) Sand desert
(D) Snow area
Ans. (D)
7. Who of the following wrote the book Precepts of Jesus?
(A) Raja Rammohan Roy
(B) Devendranath Tagore
(C) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar
(D) Keshab Chandra Sen
Ans. (A)
8. Who for the first time saw bacteria through a microscope made by himself?
(A) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
(B) Louis Pasteur
(C) Robert Hooke
(D) Robert Virchow
Ans. (A)
9. Which of the following contain enzymes for cellular respiration?
(A) Dictyosomes
(B) Endoplasmic reticula
(C) Lysosomes
(D) Mitochondria
Ans. (D)
10. To which of the following types of animals are Salamanders closely related ?
(A) Dolphins and Whales
(B) Frogs and Toads
(C) Prawns and Crabs
(D) Seals and Walruses
Ans. (B)
11. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A seed is a ripened —
(A) ovary
(B) flower
(C) gynoecium
(D) ovule
Ans. (D)
12. Historical materialism is a tenet of which one of the following political theories ?
(A) Capitalism
(B) Liberalism
(C) Fascism
(D) Marxism
Ans. (D)
13. What is ‘Look East Policy’ often in the news?
(A) Government of India’s initiative for the infrastructural development in the North Eastern States
(B) India’s search for oil and gas in its Eastern shoreline
(C) India’s collaboration with some East Asian countries in the exploration of oil and gas
(D) India’s continuing pursuit of close relations with South-East Asian countries
Ans. (D)
14. Who of the following published a famous pamphlet known as ‘Right of Mass’ and urged the people in England, America and France to fight for their liberty ?
(A) Thomas Jefferson
(B) Thomas Paine
(C) John Locke
(D) Jean Jacques Rousseau
Ans. (B)
15. Who of the following invented the cotton gin that separates the seeds from cotton three hundred times faster than by hand?
(A) Eli Whitney
(B) George Stephenson
(C) McAdam
(D) James Watt
Ans. (A)
16. Whose duty is it to recommend to the President of India on the issue of the distribution and allocation of the net proceeds of taxes in the context of Centre State fiscal relations ?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) National Development Council
(C) Union Ministry of Finance
(D) Finance Commission
Ans. (D)
17. In the Union Government, under whose charge is the Cabinet Secretariat?
(A) The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(B) The President of India
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) The Union Home Minister
Ans. (C)
18. Which Five-Year Plan had an objective of “Rapid Industrialization with particular emphasis on development of basic and heavy industries”?
(A) First
(C) Third
(B) Second
(D) Fourth
Ans. (B)
19. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the given rulers of ancient India?
(A) Ashoka — Kanishka — Milinda
(B) Milinda — Ashoka — Kanishka
(C) Ashoka — Milinda — Kanishka
(D) Milinda — Kanishka — Ashoka
Ans. (C)
20. Which one of the following is not a disease caused by virus?
(A) Bird-flu
(B) Chickenpox
(C) Cholera
(D) Dengue
Ans. (C)
21. In terms of the evolution of organisms, which one among the following is the most advanced?
(A) Bat
(C) Shark
(B) Pigeon
(D) Vulture
Ans. (A)
22. Which one of the following is not a genetic disorder?
(A) Colour blindness
(B) Down’s syndrome
(C) Hemophilia
(D) Xerophthalmia
Ans. (D)
23. Which one of the following is an enzyme?
(A) Gastrin
(B) Keratin
(C) Trypsin
(D) Vasopressin
Ans. (C)
24. In human body, which one of the following secretes hormones as well as digestive enzymes ?
(A) Oesophagus
(B) Pancreas
(C) Spleen
(D) Large intestine
Ans. (B)
25. In the human body, which of the following store / stores extra blood for release when
shortages occur?
(A) Liver
(B) Pancreas
(C) Spleen
(D) Lymph nodes
Ans. (C)
26. A bullet travelling horizontally hits a block kept at rest on a horizontal surface and gets embedded into it, the two together then move with a uniform velocity. Which one of the following conservation laws holds?
(A) Conservation of angular momentum
(B) Conservation of kinetic energy
(C) Conservation of linear momentum
(D) Conservation of velocity
Ans. (C)
27. Which one of the following is correct?
A negatively charged glass rod has always—
(A) less electrons than protons
(B) less electrons than neutrons
(C) less protons than electrons
(D) less neutrons than protons
Ans. (C)
28. Who among the following was sent by Lord Harding’s to South Africa to plead the cause of Indians led by the young Gandhi?
(A) B. G. Tilak
(B) G. K. Gokhale
(C) M. G. Ranade
(D) Motilal Nehru
Ans. (B)
29. Which one of the following is not a current of North Atlantic Ocean?
(A) Falkland Current
(B) Canary Current
(C) Labrador Current
(D) Gulf Stream
Ans. (A)
30. Which one of the following States does not share boundary with Jharkhand ?
(A) Chattisgarh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (B)
31. Through which States does Vamsadhara river flow?
(A) Andhra Pradesh and Chattisgarh only
(B) Chattisgarh and Orissa only
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa only
(D) Andhra Pradesh, Chattisgarh and Orissa
Ans. (C)
32. Whose entry into India resulted in the introduction of maize crop in India?
(A) Dutch
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Portuguese
Ans. (D)
33. The efforts of who of the following led to the “Age of Consent Act, 1891”?
(A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) M. G. Ranade
(C) Surendra Nath Bannerjee
(D) Mulbari
Ans. (D)
34. What was the name of the party formed by Subhas Chandra Bose after leaving Indian
National Congress?
(A) Congress Socialist Party
(B) Forward Bloc
(C) Indian National Conference
(D) Swaraj Party
Ans. (B)
35. Among the following who was a prominent leader of Khilafat Movement?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans. (B)
36. Who was the architect of the ‘Drain Theory’ and the author of the book Poverty and Un-British Rule in India?
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(B) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Ramesh Chandra Dutt
Ans. (A)
37. The Civil Disobedience Movement started with which of the following?
(A) No-tax campaign in Bardoli district
(B) Demonstration of Akali Sikhs at Nabha
(C) Demonstration against the Simon Commission
(D) Dandi March
Ans. (D)
38. The most abundant gas in the atmosphere is—
(A) Oxygen
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Carbon dioxide
Ans. (B)
39. Which dance form are Birju Maharaj and Gopi Krishna renowned for?
(A) Kathak
(B) Chhau
(C) Kathakali
(D) Odissi
Ans. (A)
401. Which is the official language of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep?
(A) Tamil
(B) Marathi
(C) Malayalam
(D) Konkani
Ans. (C)
41. Who is known as the ‘Father of India’s missile programme’?
(A) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) R. Santhanam
(C) Raja Ramanna
(D) Homi Bhabha
Ans. (A)
42. The birthday of which sportsperson is celebrated as National Sports Day?
(A) Sunil Gavaskar
(B) PT. Usha
(C) Prakash Padukone
(D) Dhyan Chand
Ans. (D)
43. Who among the following holds a record of the fastest 100 test wickets taken by an Indian bowler?
(A) Erapalli Prasanna
(B) Bhagawat Chandrasekhar
(C) Bishan Singh Bedi
(D) Kapil Dev
Ans. (D)
44 In which city were the first Asian Games held?
(A) Bangkok
(B) Kuala Lumpur
(C) New Delhi
(D) Moscow
Ans. (C)
45. The First Five Year Plan covered the period—
(A) 1951-56
(B) 1952-57
(C) 1947-52
(D) 1950-55
Ans. (A)
46. The breadth of the railway broad gauge is approximately—
(A) 1.67m
(B) 1.33m
(C) 2.00m
(D) 1.83m
Ans. (A)
47. Modulation used in a GSM mobile phone is—
(A) PSK
(B) BPSK
(C) MSK
(D) GMSK
Ans. (D)
48. The light in optical fibre cable propagates due to—
(A) Refraction
(B) Diffraction
(C) Total internal reflection
(D) Interference
Ans. (C)
49. When a TV receiver is switched n, the picture comes late, Why ?
(A) Video bandwidth is large
(B) Video signal takes longer to arrive
(C) Electron emission takes time
(D) All of the above.
Ans. (C)
50. Seismograph is used in the study of—
(A) Moon
(B) Earthquake
(C) Floods
(D) Tides
Ans. (B)

BEL Probationary Engineers 2010

 General Aptitude Solved Paper
  1. In which of the following movements ‘Vande Mataram’ was adotped for the first time as a slogan for agitation?
    (A) Revolt of 1857
    (B) Partition of Bengal in 1905
    (C) Non-cooperation Movement in 1922
    (D) Quit India Movement in 1942

    2. Who warned Gandhiji not to encourage fanaticism of Muslim religious leaders and their followers?
    (A) Agha Khan
    (B) AjmaI Khan
    (C) Hasan Imam
    (D) Mohammad Ali Jinnah

    3. Which one of the following is not correct about the Congress Session.of Lucknow, 1916?
    (A) Ambika Charan Majumdar was not the president of this session
    (B) In this session the reunion between the liberal and the extremist was established
    (C) Mahatma was apprised the problems of the peasants Champaran for the first time
    (D) None of the above

    4. Kanpur conspiracy case was against the leaders of?
    (A) Khilafat Movement
    (B) Non-cooperation Movement
    (C) Communist Movement
    (D) Revolutionary Movement

    5. In India “Currency Notes issue system” is based on?
    (A) Minimum reserve system
    (B) Proportional reserve system
    (C) Fixed exchange rate system
    (D) Full convertibility system

    6. ‘Disguised’ unemployment means?
    (A) Persons with no jobs
    (B) Unemployment among house wives
    (C) Unemployment among per sons above 60 years pf age
    (D) Employment of more persons in a job which lesser number of persons can perform

    7. Which of the following statements are true about the income tax in India?
    1. It is a progressive tax,
    2. It is a direct tax.
    3. It is collected by the Government.
    4. It is a proportional tax Select the correct answer from the code given below
    Codes:
    (A) 1 only
    (B) 1 and 2 only
    (C) 1,2and3only
    (D) 2, 3 and 4 only

    8. ‘SIDBI’ has been established to
    (A) Finance small scale industries
    (B) Finance cottage industries
    (C) Finance large scale industries
    (D) Finance public sector under takings

    9. Gangubai Hangal, who died a few months ago, was a?
    (A) Classical singer
    (B) Dancer
    (C) Painter
    (D) Sitar player

    10. Deep Joshi has recently been given Raman Magsaysay Award in the category of?
    (A) Government service
    (B) Public service
    (C) Community leadership
    (D) Emergent leadership

    11. The missing number in the following series:
    5,10,13,26,29, 58, 61,…
    Is?
    (A) 122
    (C) 128
    (B) 125
    (D) 131

    12. If 2 jeans and 3 shirts cost Rs. 4,000 and jeans and 2 shirts cost Rs. 3,500, how much does a jeans cost?
    (A) Rs. 1,500
    (B) Rs 1,000
    (C)Rs. 500
    (D) Rs. 2,000

    13. Which one of the following expresses error in computer data?
    (A) chip
    (B) byte
    (C) bug
    (D) bit

    14.Assertion (A) Graphite is a good lubricant.
    Reason (R) Graphite is good conductor of electricity.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below
    Codes:
    (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (A) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (B) Both (A) and (A) are true but (H) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (C) (A) is true but (R) is false
    (D) (A) is false but (A) is true

    15. Acid rain is caused by pollution ot environment by?
    (A) Carbon dioxide and Nitrogen
    (B) Carbon monoxide and Carbon dioxide
    (C) Ozone and Carbon dioxide
    (D) Nitrous oxide and Sulphur dioxide

    16.Which one of the following is called the ‘metal of future’?
    (A)Copper
    (B) Iron
    (C)Titanium
    (D) Aluminum

    17. The earliest coins of India were made of ?
    (A)Copper
    (B) Gold
    (C)Lead
    (D) Silver

    18. The Mongols appeared for the first time on the banks of Indus during the reign of?
    (A) Balban
    (B) Iltutrnish
    (C) Qutubuddin Aibak
    (D) Razia

    19. The first woman ruler of medieval India was?
    (A) Chand Bibi
    (B) Durgavati
    (C) Noorjahan
    (D) Razia

    20. The Moplah Rebellion (1921) took place in?
    (A) Malabar
    (B) Marathawada
    (C) Telengana
    (D) Vidarbha

    21. Which part of the Constitutions of India has been described as the:
    Soul of the Constitution ?
    (A) Directive principles of State policy
    (B) Fundamental rights
    (C) Preamble
    (D) Right to constitutional remedies

    22. The first state to implement the Panchayati Raj System in India was?
    (A) Uttar Pradesh
    (B) Rajasthan
    (C) Gujarat
    (D) Karnataka

    23. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any question of law?
    (A) Prime Minister
    (B) President
    (C) Any High Court
    (D) All of the above

    24. Consider the following statements about the Governor of a State
    1. He is appointed by the President.
    2. He holds office at the pleasure of the President.
    3. The executive power of the: State vests in him.
    4. Normally he holds office for five years.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below
    (A) l and 2
    (B) 1,2 and 3
    (C) 1,2 and 4
    (D) All the four

    25. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
    (A)Ahmedabad—Sabarmati
    (B) Lucknow —Gomti
    (C) Bhubaneshwar—Mahanadi
    (D) Ujjain-Shipra

    26.Dilwara Jain temple is situated at?
    (A)Palitana
    (B) Mount Abu
    (C)Sonagiri
    (D) Girinarji

    27. Which one of the following is the biggest shipping canal in the world?
    (A) Kiel Canal
    (B) Panama Canal
    (C) Soo Canal
    (D) Suez Canal

    28. Where was the battle of Plassey fought?
    (A)Karnal
    (B) Haldighati
    (C)Mysore
    (D) Bengal

    29. Who was the first Vice-President of India?
    (A)Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
    (B)Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    (C)C. V. Raman
    (D)Jawahar Lal Nehru

    30.. What was the reason behind the mutiny of 1857?
    (A) Cartridge containing fat
    (B) Frustration in soldiers
    (C) Failure of British Government
    (D) Administrative research

    31.. Which of the following is UHF?
    (A) 40MHz
    (C) 400 KHz
    (B) 400 MHz
    (D) 40 KHz

    32.. Mass of a particle is m and its momentum is p. Its kinetic energy will be?
    (A)mp
    (B) ppm
    (C) pp/m
    (D) pp/2m

    33. SI . unit of power is ‘watt. It is equivalent to which of the follow ing?
    (A) Kgms-2
    (B)Kgm-2s-2
    (C) Kgm-2s-3
    (D) None of these

    34. Who among the following cricketers scored the highest runs?
    (A) Brien Lara
    (B) Sanat Jaysurya
    (C) Sachin Tendulkar
    (D) Virendra Sehwag

    35. Which is the oldest Veda?
    (A) Samveda
    (B) Rigveda
    (C) Yajurveda
    (D) Atharvaveda

    36. Who was the founder of Pakistan ?
    (A) Mohammad Ali Jinna
    (B) Liyaquat AIi Khan
    (C) Gaffar Khan
    (D) Benazir Bhutto

    37. Who invented television?
    (A)J. L. Baird
    (B) Lawrance -
    (C) Frederick Trechithic
    (D) King Gillette

    38. Who invented wireless?
    (A)Marconi
    (B)Charles Caterin
    (C)George Cayley
    (D)Zenobe Gramme

    39 Which of the following was the battle strategy of Shivaji against Mughals?
    (A) Alert army
    (B) Large army
    (C) Political monopoly
    (D) Guerilla warfare

    40. Find out the next term of the series?
    1,2,4,7,11,………
    (A)16
    (B) 12
    (C) 9
    (D) 4

    41. Which of the following cities is termed as the Pink city?

    (A) Jaipur
    (B) Jodhpur
    (C) Ajrner
    (D) Delhi

    42. Who wrote the Meghdoot?
    (A)Kalidas
    (B) Vatsyayan
    (C) Chanakya
    (D) Premchand

    43. Which of the following is a creation of Maithili-Sharan Gupta?
    (A)Saket
    (B) Urvashi
    (C) Prempachisi
    (D) Gatha

    44. Which is the longest railway line of the world?
    (A) Trans-Siberian
    (B) Trans-Canadian
    (C) Orient Railway line
    (D) Railway line from London to Paris

    45. Which of the following states has the highest number of voters?
    (A) Uttar Pradesh
    (B) Bihar
    (C) Rajasthan
    (D) Gujarat
ANSWERS
1 B 2 B 3 A 4 C 5 A 6 D 7 B 8 A 9 A 10 C 11 A 12 C 13 C 14 B 15 D 16 C 17 A 18 B 19 D 20 A 21 D 22 B 23 B 24 D 25 C 26 B 27 D 28 D 29 A 30 B 31 B 32 D 33 C 34 C 35 B 36 A 37 A 38 A 39 D 40 A 41 A 42 A 43 A 44 A 45 A

KVS Trained Graduate Teacher Exam Paper - 2009


 Biology
1. Which of the following is a ‘club moss’ ?
(A) Selaginella
(B) Equisetum
(C) Lycopodium
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Raphe in Marsilea is present in—
(A) Female gametophyte
(B) Sporocarp
(C) Sporophyte
(D) Male gametophyte
Ans : (B)

3. The stele type occurring in Marsilea is—
(A) Solenostele
(B) Protostele
(C) Amphiphloic Siphonostele
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)

4. The morphological nature of rhizophore of Selaginella is—
(A) Root like
(B) Stem like
(C) Both root and stem like
(D) Rhizoid like
Ans : (C)

5. The Selaginella shows—
(A) Large and small leaves arranged spirally
(B) All leaves large
(C) All leaves small
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)


6. The anatomy of Pinus needle reflects the features of a—
(A) Mesophyte
(B) Xerophyte
(C) Hydrophyte
(D) Epiphyte
Ans : (B)

7. Girdling leaf traces are the characteristic feature of the stem of—
(A) Cycas
(B) Pinus
(C) Ephedra
(D) Gnetum
Ans : (A)

8. Pinus is a—
(A) Tree
(B) Shrub
(C) Herb
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

9. The recent era is—
(A) Cenozoic
(B) Mesozoic
(C) Proterozoic
(D) Archeozoic
Ans : (A)

10. Fossils are found in—
(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Quartz
(C) Soil
(D) Sedimentary rocks
Ans : (D)

11. Reserve food material in fungi is—
(A) Glycogen
(B) Starch
(C) Sucrose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (A)

12. Which is rootless fern ?
(A) Pteris
(B) Dryopteris
(C) Salvinia
(D) Adiantum
Ans : (C)

13. Which is common between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration ?
(A) Similar substrate
(B) Glycolysis
(C) Pyruvic acid
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)

14. Turpentine oil is obtained from—
(A) Coal
(B) Petroleum
(C) Cedarwood
(D) Pinus
Ans : (D)

15. Which alga was used by Calvin and his co-workers in their experiments of photosynthesis ?
(A) Chlamydomonas
(B) Chlorella
(C) Chara
(D) Volvox
Ans : (B)

16. Which is an oilseed crop ?
(A) Marigold
(B) Chrysanthemum
(C) Rose
(D) Sunflower
Ans : (D)

17. The first transgenic plant used for commercial production was—
(A) Cotton
(B) Tomato
(C) Tobacco
(D) Rice
Ans : (B)

18. Rare hybrid plants can be saved by—
(A) Pollen culture
(B) Embryo culture
(C) Protoplast culture
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. Which is not a category ?
(A) Ecotype
(B) Species
(C) Genus
(D) Order
Ans : (A)

20. Linnaeus published his concept of binomial nomenclature first in—
(A) Systema Naturae
(B) Species Plantarum
(C) Genera Plantarum
(D) Philosophia Botanica
Ans : (B)

21. When chlorophyll is burnt which element is obtained ?
(A) Ca
(B) Na
(C) Mg
(D) Mn
Ans : (C)

22. Iron deficiency results in—
(A) Leaf tip necrosis
(B) Small leaves disease
(C) Decreased protein synthesis
(D) Intervenal chlorosis appearing first in young leaves
Ans : (D)

23. A phytohormone is—
(A) Naturally produced
(B) Synthetic substance
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

24. During the seismonastic movement in Mimosa pudica turgor changes occur in—
(A) Leaflets
(B) Stipules
(C) Pulvinus leaf base
(D) Petiole and stem
Ans : (C)

25. Evergeen trees remain green through the year on account of—
(A) Cold climate
(B) Absence of leaf fall
(C) Leaves falling in small number interval
(D) Supply of moisture throughout year
Ans : (C)

26. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is—
(A) 15 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(D) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
Ans : (C)

27. The damaged ozone layer is situated in—
(A) Ionosphere
(B) Mesosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (C)

28. Which one of the following is ordinarily not an air pollutant ?
(A) CO2
(B) CO
(C) SO2
(D) Hydrocarbon
Ans : (A)

29. Genes are made by—
(A) Histones
(B) Lipoproteins
(C) Hydrocarbons
(D) Polynucleotides
Ans : (D)

30. The term ‘ecosystem’ was proposed by—
(A) Odum
(B) Tansley
(C) Whitker
(D) Goli
Ans : (B)

31. The first juvenile larva of Ascaris is known as—
(A) Filiform larva
(B) Rhabditiform larva
(C) Miracidium larva
(D) Microfilariae
Ans : (B)

32. Chromosomes contain—
(A) Protein only
(B) DNA and protein
(C) DNA, RNA and histone
(D) DNA, RNA, histone and non-histone proteins
Ans : (B)

33. Which are phagocytes in liver ?
(A) Kupffer cells
(B) Aciner cells
(C) Diter cells
(D) Hensen's cells
Ans : (A)

34. Termites digest wood with the help of an enzyme secreted by the—
(A) Salivary glands
(B) Cells in the midgut
(C) Symbiotic protozoa
(D) Bacteria and fungi outside the body
Ans : (C)

35. In honeybee colony the drones are produced by—
(A) Fertilized eggs
(B) Unfertilized eggs
(C) Larvae fed upon leaves
(D) Fasting larvae
Ans : (B)

36. Jacobson's organ is concerned with—
(A) Smell
(B) Burrowing
(C) Touch
(D) Vision
Ans : (A)

37. Body organisation in Hydra is of—
(A) Tissue grade
(B) Organ grade
(C) Cellular grade
(D) Organ system grade
Ans : (A)

38. Leech obtains continuous blood flow from its victim by pouring in it—
(A) Heparin
(B) Hirudin
(C) Insulin
(D) Pepsin
Ans : (B)

39. Spicules of Sponges are formed by—
(A) Procytes
(B) Pinacocytes
(C) Scleroblasts
(D) Thesocytes
Ans : (B)

40. Heterocoelous centrum is a characteristics of—
(A) Amphibia
(B) Reptilia
(C) Birds
(D) Mammalia
Ans : (C)

41. The exclusively sedentary protochordate animals are found in the class—
(A) Pterobranchia
(B) Larvacea
(C) Ascidiacea
(D) Thaliacea
Ans : (A)

42. Cytopyge is found in—
(A) Paramecium
(B) Entamoeba
(C) Amoeba
(D) Trypanosoma
Ans : (A)

43. Littoral form of animals is found—
(A) In fresh water
(B) In sea water near the shore
(C) In deep sea
(D) At the bottom of the sea
Ans : (D)

44. Bladder worm is a larva of—
(A) Obelia
(B) Silkmoth
(C) Taenia
(D) Nereis
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following secretions associated with digestion does not have enzymes ?
(A) Bile
(B) Gastric juice
(C) Saliva
(D) Pancreatic juice
Ans : (A)

46. Yellow fever is transmitted by—
(A) Female Culex
(B) Female Anopheles
(C) Female Aedes
(D) Housefly
Ans : (C)

47. The covering membrane of the vacuole is known as—
(A) Tonoplast
(B) Cell wall
(C) Plasma layer
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. Age of fishes was known as—
(A) Devonian
(B) Ordovician
(C) Crustaceous
(D) Silurian
Ans : (A)

49. ‘Quartan malaria’ is caused by—
(A) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Plasmodium malariae
(C) Plasmodium ovale
(D) Plasmodium falciparum
Ans : (B)

50. The word ‘species’ was coined by—
(A) John Ray
(B) Mayer
(C) J. Huxley
(D) C. Linnaeus
Ans : (A)

51. An embryo of chick with 7 pairs of somites is—
(A) 20 hours old
(B) 22 hours old
(C) 24 hours old
(D) 18 hours old
Ans : (C)

52. In the mammals, cleavage result formation of solid mass of cells known—
(A) Blastula
(B) Gastrula
(C) Morula
(D) Neurula
Ans : (C)

53. F1particles are found in—
(A) Lysosome
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgi Body
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans : (B)

54. The name ‘polytene chromosome’ suggested by—
(A) E.G. Balbiani
(B) Kollar
(C) Heitz
(D) Bauer
Ans : (A)

55. Centriole is found in—
(A) Animal cells
(B) Red algae
(C) Prokaryotes
(D) Flowering plants
Ans : (A)

56. The first phylum of animal kingdom exhibiting bilateral symmetry is—
(A) Arthropoda
(B) Annelida
(C) Mollusca
(D) Platyhelminthes
Ans : (D)

57. The fresh water sponge is—
(A) Spongella
(B) Grantia
(C) Euplectella
(D) Euspongia
Ans : (A)

58. Flame cells are related with—
(A) Excretory system
(B) Digestive system
(C) Circulatory system
(D) Respiratory system
Ans : (A)

59. The intermediate host in the life cycle of F. hepatica (Liver fluke) is—
(A) Sheep
(B) Snail
(C) Man
(D) Bird
Ans : (B)

60. Vitelline membrane is found in—
(A) Birds
(B) Tunicates
(C) Fishes
(D) Mammals
Ans : (A)

61. Two-pigment system theory of photosynthesis was proposed by—
(A) Hill Emerson
(B) Emerson
(C) Blackmann
(D) Hatch and Slack
Ans : (B)

62. Photosynthetic pigments in chloroplast are embedded in membrane of—
(A) Thylakoids
(B) Photoglobin
(C) Matrix
(D) Envelope of chloroplast
Ans : (A)

63. The rate of photosynthesis is maximum in—
(A) Green light
(B) Blue light
(C) Red light
(D) White light
Ans : (C)

64. All energy is trapped in pigment system-1 in—
(A) ATP
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) NADH2
(D) P-700
Ans : (D)

65. How many ATP molecules are produced, as a net gain, during the complete breakdown of glucose ?
(A) 36
(B) 28
(C) 12
(D) 18
Ans : (A)

66. Father of taxonomy is—
(A) De Candolle
(B) Hooker
(C) Linnaeus
(D) Aristotle
Ans : (C)

67. For entry in gene pool, a mutation occur in—
(A) Somatic cells
(B) Germ cells
(C) Plasma proteins
(D) Somatic DNA
Ans : (B)

68. Vessels diffier from tracheids—
(A) In being living
(B) In being derived from a single cell
(C) In having vertical row of cells and their cross wall dissolved
(D) Because they conduct water
Ans : (C)

69. Which one is true nut ?
(A) Walnut
(B) Cashewnut
(C) Groundnut
(D) Coconut
Ans : (B)

70. After transcription, the mRNA molecule—
(A) Disintegrates
(B) Moves into cytoplasm
(C) Replicates itself
(D) Reassociates to form its structure
Ans : (B)

71. Fossilization is also known by the—
(A) Acclimatzation
(B) Pasteurization
(C) Preservation
(D) Tyndallization
Ans : (C)

72. The branch that deals with the plants studies in the geological past is called—
(A) Pteridology
(B) Palaeobotany
(C) Neurology
(D) Archaeology
Ans : (B)

73. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany is situated at—
(A) Allahabad
(B) Delhi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)

74. In plants, largest egg is found in—
(A) Cycas
(B) Sequoia
(C) Pinus
(D) Selaginella
Ans : (A)

75. Which one of the following is an example of symbiosis ?
(A) Utricularia
(B) Agaricus
(C) Lichen
(D) Mango
Ans : (C)

76. Which of the following pteridophytes is known as ‘Horse-tail’ ?
(A) Rhynia
(B) Selaginella
(C) Equisetum
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

77. Marsilea is a—
(A) Homosporic pteridophyte
(B) Heterosporic pteridophyte
(C) Non-sporic pteridophyte
(D) Seeded pteridophyte
Ans : (B)

78. A plant bearing two types of spores is termed as—
(A) Heterospory
(B) Seed habit
(C) Homospory
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)

79. In Pinus present only—
(A) Male cone
(B) Female cone
(C) Male and female cones
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

80. Number of cotyledons found in the embryo of Cycas is—
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1
Ans : (B)

81. Bryophytes are—
(A) Aquatic
(B) Terrestrial
(C) Amphibious
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

82. Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte in—
(A) Algae
(B) Pteridophyta
(C) Fungi
(D) Bryophyta
Ans : (D)

83. In gametophytic phase of Bryophyta the last cell is—
(A) Gamete
(B) Spore
(C) Elater
(D) Zygote
Ans : (A)

84. In Funaria, the calyptra is formed by—
(A) Antheridium
(B) Columella
(C) Capsule
(D) Archegonium
Ans : (D)

85. A bryophyte differes from pteridophyte in—
(A) Archegonia
(B) Lack of vascular tissue
(C) Independent gametophyte
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

86. Acid rain is mainly a mixture of—
(A) Sulphuric acid and nitric acid
(B) Hexane and methane
(C) Acetic acid and bromine
(D) Ascorbic acid and citric acid
Ans : (A)

87. Ribosomes are sites for—
(A) Protein synthesis
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Fat synthesis
(D) Respiration
Ans : (A)

88. Pyramid of energy is—
(A) Alwayss inverted
(B) Always upright
(C) Sometimes inverted and sometimes upright
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

89. ATP is—
(A) An enzyme which brings about oxidation
(B) A hormone
(C) A molecule with high energy phosphate bond
(D) A protein
Ans : (C)

90. Which one of the following is not a feature of prokaryotic cell ?
(A) Absence of nuclear membrane and the nucleus
(B) Absence of cell organelles
(C) Absence of genetic material
(D) Absence of histone protein in the chromosome
Ans : (C)

91. Which one of the following is highly dangerous radioactive pollutant ?
(A) Phosphorus-32
(B) Sulphur-35
(C) Strontium-90
(D) Calcium-40
Ans : (C)

92. The indicator of SO2 pollution of air is—
(A) Lichen
(B) Fern
(C) Black mould
(D) Moss
Ans : (A)

93. The founder of cell theory was—
(A) Wolf
(B) Rudolf Virchow
(C) Myen, Von Moll and Raspail
(D) Schleiden and Schwann
Ans : (D)

94. Fats in our body are formed when—
(A) There is little glycogen in the body
(B) Blood sugar level becomes constant
(C) Glycogen storage in liver and muscles is completed
(D) Intake of protein is high
Ans : (C)

95. Liver performs several functions. One of these functions is—
(A) Histolysis
(B) Digestion of proteins
(C) Glycogenesis
(D) Maintaining salt balance
Ans : (C)

96. Poison fangs of snakes are—
(A) Maxillary teeth
(B) Specialized structures
(C) Premaxillary teeth
(D) Vomerine teeth
Ans : (A)

97. Wings of butterfly, bird and bat are—
(A) Homologous organs
(B) Analogous organs
(C) Unrelated organs
(D) Vestigeal organs
Ans : (B)

98. ‘Ozone Day’ is observed on—
(A) January, 30
(B) April, 21
(C) September, 16
(D) December, 5
Ans : (C)

99. Which one of the following is the link between Annelida and Mollusca ?
(A) Archaeopteryx
(B) Peripatus
(C) Neopilina
(D) Coelacanth
Ans : (C)

100. The heartbeat is regulated by—
(A) Pacemaker
(B) Vagus nerve
(C) Sympathetic nerve
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

101. Which pair is correct ?
(A) Microlecithal eggs — Dipnoi
(B) Homolecithal eggs — Amphibia
(C) Mesolecithal eggs — Bird
(D) Centrolecithal eggs — Insect
Ans : (D)

102. The hypothesis of ‘Coupling and Repulsion’ for linkage was formulated by—
(A) Sutton and Boveri
(B) Bateson & Punnet
(C) T.H. Morgan
(D) W. Sutton
Ans : (B)

103. Balanoglossus is commonly known as—
(A) Earthworm
(B) Tapeworm
(C) Corn worm
(D) Tongue worm
Ans : (D)

104. In Drosophila, sex determination depends on—
(A) Y-chromosome
(B) X-chromosome
(C) Autosome
(D) X-chromosome & autosome both
Ans : (D)

105. Nonsense codons are—
(A) AUG, AAU, UAG
(B) GGU, AGU, AUG
(C) UAG, UAA, UGA
(D) GAU, AAU, GUA
Ans : (C)

106. In which stage does centromere divide in two ?
(A) Metaphase-I
(B) Prophase-I
(C) Metaphase-II
(D) Anaphase-II
Ans : (D)

107. Which animal is egg laying mammal ?
(A) Didelphys
(B) Macropus
(C) Pteropus
(D) Tachyglossus
Ans : (D)

108. An oil producing gland on the tail of bird is known as—
(A) Preen gland
(B) Mucus gland
(C) Green gland
(D) Sebaceous gland
Ans : (A)

109. A snake that is viviparous is—
(A) The Russell’s pitless viper
(B) The pit viper
(C) Rattle snake
(D) Kraits
Ans : (B)

110. A gland which is found on undersurface of the thighs of male lizard ?
(A) Sudorific gland
(B) Femoral gland
(C) Green gland
(D) Stink gland
Ans : (B)

111. Which of the following is not a path flagellate ?
(A) Leishmania
(B) Giardia
(C) Trypanosoma
(D) Noctiluca
Ans : (D)

112. The Glochidium larva of Unio—
(A) Is free swimming
(B) Is ectoparasite on fish
(C) Is endoparasite on fish
(D) Lives in bottom
Ans : (B)

113. The term ‘Plasmalemma’ was given by—
(A) C. Nageli & C. Cramer
(B) J.Q. Plowe
(C) Dancilli & Davson
(D) Robertson
Ans : (B)

114. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs—
1. Synthesis of lipids
2. Glycogenolysis
3. Sterol metabolism
4. Detoxification
Codes :
(A) Only 4 is correct
(B) 1 and 2 both are correct
(C) 2 and 3 both are correct
(D) All are correct
Ans : (D)

115. The innermost layer of egg albumen in birds is called—
(A) Inner thin albumen
(B) Vitelline membrane
(C) Dense alburmen
(D) Chalaziferous layer
Ans : (B)

116. In which one of the following is the anus absent ?
(A) Leech
(B) Roundworm
(C) Earthworm
(D) Flatworm
Ans : (D)

117. Which type of jaw suspension is found in mammals ?
(A) Autostylic
(B) Holostylic
(C) Craniostylic
(D) Hyostylic
Ans : (A)

118. Synthesis of urea in liver takes place by—
(A) Nitrogen cycle
(B) Krebs’ cycle
(C) Glycolysis
(D) Ornithine cycle
Ans : (D)

119. Sexual dimorphism is found in—
(A) Hydra
(B) Earthworm
(C) Ascaris
(D) Fasciola
Ans : (B)

120. Which of the following animals has a nervous system but no brain ?
(A) Amoeba
(B) Hydra
(C) Cockroach
(D) Earthworm
Ans : (B)

121. Aristotle’s Lantern occurs in—
(A) Asteroidea
(B) Echinoidea
(C) Holothuroidea
(D) Crinoidea
Ans : (B)

122. Neoteny is observed in—
(A) Ambystoma
(B) Alytes
(C) Sycon
(D) Sacculina
Ans : (A)

123. Kidneys are vital organs of the body because they help in—
(A) Regulation of body fluids
(B) Regulation of acid-base balance
(C) Removal of metabolic wastes
(D) All of these functions
Ans : (D)

124. The infective stage of malarial parasite is—
(A) Trophozoite
(B) Merozoite
(C) Sporozoite
(D) Cyst
Ans : (C)

125. Parasitic castration occurs in—
(A) Fasciola
(B) Nereis
(C) Sacculina
(D) Palaemon
Ans : (C)

Travel and Tourism Management (Diploma) Exam. 2010 Solved Paper


General Studies
(Exam Held on 18-4-2010)
1. Following the Maldives example, cabinet ministers of which of the following countries conducted their meeting at an unusual place recently to highlight the effects of global warming ?
(A) Tuvalu
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) South Africa
(D) Nepal
Ans : (D)

2. The United Nations (UN) has declared 2010 as the—
(A) International Year of Youth
(B) International Year of Renewable Energy
(C) International Year of Eco-Tourism
(D) International Year of Biodegradable Material
Ans : (A)

3. Ben Bernanke has been named ‘Person of the Year’ by the prestigious Time magazine. The current profile of Ben Bernanke is—
(A) Chairman, NASDAQ
(B) President, World Bank
(C) Chairman, US Federal Reserve
(D) Director-General, WTO
Ans : (C)

4. Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttles are launched, is located in the state—
(A) Florida
(B) Virginia
(C) North Carolina
(D) South Carolina
Ans : (A)

5. As per the State of Forest Report-2009, what fraction of India’s area is covered by forests ?
(A) 17.92%
(B) 21.02%
(C) 23.84%
(D) 25.96%
Ans : (C)


6. Who is the Secretary of the International Monetary Fund ?
(A) Indira Mathur
(B) AT Vashishtha
(C) Siddharth Tiwari
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. Who is the first Goodwill Ambassador of the ‘Smile Train’, an international charity that provides free cleft lip and palate surgery to children in need ?
(A) Aishwarya Rai Bachchan
(B) Katrina Kaif
(C) Angelina Jolie
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Asia’s biggest solar power plant has been recently unveiled at—
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Malaysia
(D) Taiwan
Ans : (D)

9. India had recently landed its Moon Impact Probe on the Moon. Among the following countries, which one has landed such a probe on the Moon earlier ?
(A) Australia
(B) Canada
(C) China
(D) Japan
Ans : (D)

10. With which company did India’s largest IT firm Tata Consultancy Services sign a two year multimillion dollar deal recently ?
(A) Infosys
(B) SAP IG
(C) Singapore People’s Association
(D) Citigroup
Ans : (C)

11. Jamie Dwyer, recently crowned hockey’s World Player of the Year for a third time, belongs to—
(A) Germany
(B) England
(C) Netherlands
(D) Australia
Ans : (D)

12. Which among the following countries is the World Bank’s single largest borrower ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Russia
Ans : (B)

13. Kaiane Aldorino who won the 2009 Miss World pageant recently held in Johannesburg, is from—
(A) South Africa
(B) Venezuela
(C) Columbia
(D) Gibraltar
Ans : (D)

14. The group of nations presently known as G-8 first started as G-7. Which country from among the following was not one of the them ?
(A) Canada
(B) Italy
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
Ans : (D)

15. CERN, the organisation that conducted the Large Hadren Collider Experiment in Geneva recently, is the—
(A) European Space Agency
(B) European Organisation for Nuclear Research
(C) International Atomic Energy Agency
(D) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
Ans : (B)

16. Reliance Communication has signed an agreement with ……offering Windows Mobile Solutions on its wireless network.
(A) Rediffmail.com
(B) Microsoft
(C) Google
(D) Gmail.com
Ans : (B)

17. Which of the following teams was defeated by India to mark its 100th Test match victory in cricket ?
(A) New Zealand
(B) Australia
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Sri Lanka
Ans : (D)

18. Who is the first Indian to head Amnesty International in its 50-year history ?
(A) Pramod Bhasin
(B) Salil Shetty
(C) G.R. Madhavan
(D) C.K. Roy
Ans : (B)

19. Lionel Messi, the footballer who plays for Barcelona club, and won the FIFA World Player of the Year Award for 2009, belongs to which country ?
(A) Brazil
(B) Italy
(C) Argentina
(D) Germany
Ans : (C)

20. Recently, which of the following was included in the UNESCO’s World Heritage list ?
(A) Dilwara Temple
(B) Kalka-Shimla Railway
(C) Bhiterkanika Mangrove Area
(D) Visakhapatnam to Araku Valley railway line
Ans : (B)

21. The Government of India has granted approval in principle to SBI to merge one more of its associate banks after State Bank of Saurashtra. This second associate bank of SBI to be merged with it is—
(A) State Bank of Travancore
(B) State Bank of Indore
(C) State Bank of Patiala
(D) State Bank of Hyderabad
Ans : (B)

22. Recently which of the following versions of Windows was launched by Microsoft ?
(A) Windows 7
(B) Windows 8
(C) Windows 9
(D) Windows 10
Ans : (A)

23. Which is the most popular e-mail service among Indians according to Online Audience Measurement and Analytics Platform ?
(A) G-mail
(B) Yahoo
(C) Google
(D) Rediffmail
Ans : (D)

24. Name the Jammu & Kashmir ‘braveheart’ who killed a terrorist and was recently appointed as a Special Police Officer in the Jammu-Kashmir police force.
(A) Salma Khan
(B) Firdaus Ahmed
(C) Rukhsana Kausar
(D) Shahana Azmi
Ans : (C)

25. Which of the following statements regarding Operation Flood is/are correct ?
1. Operation Flood is the world’s largest Integrated Dairy Development Programme.
2. Dr. Verghese Kurien is the pioneer of Operation Flood.
3. Operation Flood was started in 1970 by Amul Dairy.
(A) 1 Only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)

26. Which pharmaceutical company has been given permission by the Government of India to conduct H1N1 vaccine trials on humans ?
(A) Bharat Biotech
(B) Panacea Pharmaceuticals
(C) Serum Institute of India
(D) Zydus Cadila
Ans : (D)

27. Which Indian State Government made voting compulsory for its Municipal Corporation elections ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (D)

28. Due to the efforts of which Member of Parliament (MP), can Indian citizens now fly the National Flag even at night ?
(A) Jyotraditya Scindia
(B) Naveen Jindal
(C) Rahul Gandhi
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

29. The Commonwealth Games 2010 being held in New Delhi is the …… edition of this international event.
(A) XX
(B) XIX
(C) XXI
(D) XXII
Ans : (B)

30. What is the expected growth (in %) in international tourist arrivals during 2010, as per the forecast by UNWTO ?
(A) 3 – 4
(B) 5 – 6
(C) 7 – 8
(D) 9 – 10
Ans : (A)

31. The 13th Meeting of the ASEAN Tourism Ministers was held in the month of—
(A) January 2010
(B) February 2010
(C) March 2010
(D) December 2010
Ans : (A)

32. Air India has entered into partnership with which organisation to improve operational efficiencies in key airline functions and become more cost-efficient ?
(A) Sabre Airline Solutions
(B) Airline Solutions Group
(C) Amadeus Airlines
(D) Kale Consultants Limited
Ans : (A)

33. Which state of India has the highest population density ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Kerala
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. Which is the highest honour amongst the Padma Awards conferred on eminent personalities by the Government of India every year ?
(A) Padma Vibhushan
(B) Padma Bhushan
(C) Padma Sri
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

35. Which country will be hosting the Winter Olympics 2014 ?
(A) America
(B) Russia
(C) Germany
(D) England
Ans : (B)

36. The Naina Devi Temple is located in which state of India ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Jammu & Kashmir
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Haryana
Ans : (C)

37. Which of the following SLVs carried the Chandrayaan-I on its voyage to the moon ?
(A) PSLV-C12
(B) PSLV-12
(C) PSLV-C11
(D) PSLV-C10
Ans : (C)

38. Which of the following countries is planning to launch a Satellite to study the Sun ?
(A) USA
(B) India
(C) Russia
(D) China
Ans : (B)

39. Who won the ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup 2009 ?
(A) India
(B) England
(C) New Zealand
(D) Australia
Ans : (B)

40. Who is the only Indian sportswoman to win a medal for the country at the Olympics ?
(A) P.T. Usha
(B) Karanam Malleswari
(C) Sania Mirza
(D) Saina Nehwal
Ans : (B)

Wednesday, 1 February 2012

FCI Management Trainee Previous Year Solved Paper

Reasoning Solved Paper
 
1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
Ans. (A)


2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
Ans. (B)


3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
Ans. (D)


4. acme : mace :: alga: ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
Ans. (D)


5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
Ans. (D)


6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
Ans. (C)


7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D)G
Ans. (C)


8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans. (D)


9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
Ans. (C)


10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(C) 52
(B) 49
(D) 56
Ans. (B)


Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the other three.
11. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
Ans. (D)


12. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
Ans. (B)


13. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
Ans. (B)


14. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
Ans. (C)


Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.
15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)


16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
Ans. (B)
17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
Ans. (C)


Directions—(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
18. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
Ans. (C)


19. (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
Ans. (A)


20. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
Ans. (A)


21. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
Ans. (B)


22. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
Ans. (B)


23. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Ans. (D)
24. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
Ans. (D)
25. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTF
Ans. (C)


26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
Ans. (B)


27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
Ans. (A)


28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
Ans. (C)


29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (B)


30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (D)


31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
Ans. (A)


32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)


33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
34. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
Ans. (C)
35. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
Ans. (C)
36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
Ans. (D)
37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
Ans. (D)
38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
Ans. (D)


39. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (A)
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (C)


41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
Ans. (D)




42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded
in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
Ans. (D)
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……..
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
Ans. (B)


44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Ans. (B)
45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
Ans. (D)


46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
Ans. (B)


47. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to …….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
Ans. (D)


48. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to………
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
Ans. (D)


49. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to …………
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
Ans. (B)


50. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to …………
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Ans. (B)

Sunday, 29 January 2012

APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer- Electrical Solved Paper


Written Exam will be of Duration 2 hours Consists 100 Marks (70 Questions based on Core & 30 Questions on Aptitude).

Booklet-C 
(EXAM HELD ON: 22-01-2012)
 1. Transfer Function of a System in  1/(s+1)(s+2) the impulse response of the System is
A) e-2t  – e-t    B) e-2t  + e-t      C) e-t  + e-2t       D) e-t  – e-2t
2. In a thermal power plant,ash is Collected in
A) Mills     B) hoppers    C) Bunkers    D) Boiler
3. The average life of neutrons after they decay is
A) 1 sec     B) 10 sec    C) 100 sec   D) 1000 sec
4. The Operating time of instantaneous relay is
A) 0.001 sec  B) 0.01 sec   C) 0.1 sec   D) 1 sec
6. Stringing chart is useful for
A) the design of tower   B) the design of insulator String   C) finding the Sag in the Conductor  D) finding the distance between the towers
7. The Self GMD method is used to evaluate
A) inductance   B) capacitance  C) inductance and capacitance   D) resistance
8. The velocity of travelling Wave through a cable of relative permitivity 36 is
A)  3 x 108 m/sec   A)  2 x 108 m/sec   A)  0.5 x 108 m/sec   A)  108 m/sec
9. The Coefficient of reflection for current wave is
A) 1  B) 2  C) -1  D) 0
10. A relay has a rating of 5A, 2.2 sec IDMT and relay setting of 125% TMS =0.6. It is connected to a supply circuit through a C.T. 400/5 ratio. The Fault Current is 4000 A. The operating current of the relay is
A) 6.25 A      B) 5A   C) 8A    D) 2.2 A
12. A single Phase transformer has resistance and reactance of 0.2 pu  and 0.6 pu respectively. Its pu voltage regulation at 0.8 pf lagging would be
A)  0.52   B) 0.42  C) 0.62  D) 0.36
14. A Differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000, CMRR : 80 dB. The common mode gain is given by
A) 1   B) 1/2    C) 2  D) 250
15. An amplifier has input power of 2 microwatts. The Power gain of the amplifier is 60 dB. The Output power will be
A) 2 milliwatts  B) 6 microwatts  C) 2 Watts   D) 120 microwatts
16. The voltage gains of the amplifier with and without feedback are 20 and 100 respectively. The percentage of negative feedback would be
A) 40%   B) 80%   C) 4%  D) 8%
17. For OPAMP in differential configuration, open loop gain is 100000, and differential input voltage is 2 μ V. Power supply for OPAMP is ± 12 V. Then Output voltage will be
A) + 12 V    B) -12 V   C)  0 V  D) 2 μ V
18. A 3-stage ripple counter has Flipflop with propagation delay of 25 nsec and pulse width of strobe input 10 nsec. Then the maximum operating frequency at which counter operates reliably is
A) 16.67 MHz     B) 17.6 MHz    C) 12.67 MHz    D) 11.76 MHz
19. The percent resolution of an 8-bit D/A converter is
A)  0.392   B) 1/256   C) 1/255    D)  (A) and (B) both
20. The Diode used in a clipping circuit has Rf = 25Ω  and Rr = 1 MΩ. The External resistor R is
A) 50 KΩ   B) 5KΩ    C) 1/25 MΩ   D) 25 MΩ
21. Which circuit is used as amplitude comparator?
A) Bistable  B) Monostable  C) Astable   D) Schmitt Trigger
23. An example of a bounded signal is
A) e-4t    B) e2t    C) t     D) et  sint
25. A Transfer function has a Second order denominator and constant gain in the numerator
A) the System has two zeros at the origin    B) the system has two finite zeros   C) the System has two zeros at infinity   D) the System has one zero at infinity
26. A system is linear if and only if it satisfies
A) principle of Superposition   B) principle of Homogeneity    C) both (A) and (B) above   D) neither (A) and (B) above
29. A 200 V dc shunt motor is running at 1000 rpm and drawing a current of 10 A. Its armature winding resistance is 2Ω. It is braked by plugging. The resistance to be connected in series with armature to restrict armature current to 10A, is
A) 32 Ω    B) 36 Ω    C)  38 Ω   D) 40 Ω
30. A transformer has maximum efficiency at 3/4 th of full load. The ratio of its iron loss (pi) and full load copper loss (Pc), is
A) 4/3   B)  16/9   C) 9/16    D) 3/4
33. A single phase fully controlled rectifier has an average output voltage of 200 V when alpha=0 . Its output voltage when alpha = 30o is approximately
A) 200 V     B) 160 V     C) 173 V    D) 183 V
34. A 200 V dc-dc converter is turned ON for 30 μ sec and turned off for 10 μ sec. The output voltage will be
A) 200 V    B) 150 V    C) 175 V   D) 120 V
35. In Single Pulse Modulation used in PWM Inverters, for eliminating third harmonic component in the output voltage , the pulse width should be
A) 600   B) 900   C) 1100   D) 1200
36. The Dynamic resistance of a p-n junction germanium diode at room temperature with current of 1 mA under forward biasing is
A) 100 Î©   B) 13 mΩ    C) 13 Î©   D) 26 Ω
37. Thermal runway is not possible in FET because as temperature of FET increases
A)  mobility increases  B) mobility Decreases  C) drain current decrease  D) transconductance increases
38. The initial value of   f(t), with transform  F(s) = s+1/ (s+2)(s+3)   is
A) 0    B) 1   C) ∞   D) 1/6
39. The two-port parameter h21 is called
A) open-circuit output admittance    B) short-circuit input impedance   C) open-circuit reverse voltage gain  D) short-circuit forward current gain
41 . The impedance of a two-element series circuit is represented by (20-j10) Ω  at a certain frequency. If the frequency is doubled, the new value of impedance is
A) (20-j5) Ω    B) (40-j20) Ω  C)  (10-j10) Ω   D)  (20-j20) Ω
42. A unity feedback control system has forward-path transfer function  G(s) = K/s(s+2) . If the design specification is that the steady-state error due to a unit ramp input is 0.05,the value of K allowed is
A)  20  B) 40  C) 10  D) 80
43. The transfer function of a system has the form G(s) = 200 (s+2)/s(s2+10s+100) . At very high frequencies the Bode gain curve has a slope of
A)  -6 dB/octave   B) -12 dB/octave  C)  6 dB/octave  D) 12 dB/octave
44. A Unity feed-back system has open-loop transfer function GH (s) =  K/ s(s+4)(s+6) , It’s root locus plot intersects the jw axis at
A) ± j 2   B)  ± j 4   C) ± j 8  D) does not intersect the jw axis
45. Auto reclosing used in case of
A) Lightning arrester   B)  bulk oil C.B   C) air blast C.B   D) minimum oil C.B
46. A transmission line has 1 P.U impedance on a base of 11 KV,100 MVA. on a base of 55KV, it will have a P.U impedance of
A) 1 P.U     B)  0.2 P.U       C) 0.02 P.U      D) 0.1 P.U
47. A 50 Hz, 4 pole turboalternator rated at 20 MVA, 13.2 KV has an inertia constant H = 4 KW sec/KVA. The K.E Stored in the rotor at Synchronous speed is
A) 80 KJ       B) 80 MJ        C) 40 MJ       D) 20 MJ
48. The inertia constants of two groups of machines which do not swing together are M1  and  M2. The equivalent inertia constant is
A)  M1 + M2     B)  M1 – M2  if M1 > M2   C) √M1M2     D)   M1 M2 / (M1 + M2)
50. A 36-slot, 4-pole, dc machine has a simplex lap winding with two conductors per slot. The back pitch and front pitch adopted could be respectively
A) 15,13       B) 19,17      C) 21,19   D) 23,21
53. Two Synchronous generators G1, G2 are operating in parallel and are equally sharing KVAR (lag) component of load. To shift part of KVAR from G2  to G1, while keeping terminal voltage fixed, the following action must be done
A)   Raise If1  and lower  If2   B)  Lower If1  and raise  If2    C)  Lower If1  or raise  If2    D)  Raise If1  or lower  If2
APTITUDE SECTION 30 Questions :
71.   H1(x) = 1-x ,0
= 1,  x ≥ 1
= 0, otherwise
H2(x) = -H1(x) for all x
H3(x) = H2(-x) for all x
H4(x) = -H3(x) for all x
How many of the following products are necessarily zero for every value of   “x”?
H1(x) * H3(x) ; H3(x) * H2(x) ; H1(x) * H2(x)
A) 0  B) 1   C) 2  D)  3
73. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 m long and traveling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30 sec is
A)  200 m     B)  225 m   C)   245  m    D)  250 m
74. If  “PAPER”  is 11.20, “PENCIL” is 9.83,  what will be the PEN ?
A)  12.80   B)  11.60  C) 1.66  D) 13.8
75. What is the sum of all numbers less than 100 that can be written as the sum of 9 consecutive positive integers?
A)  612   B) 630  C)  702  D) 504
78. X introduces Y saying: “He is the husband of the grand daughter of the father of myfather”. How is Y related to X ?
A)  brother    B)  uncle   C)  co-brother   D) brother-in-law
79. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit’s rank is 17th from the last. What is Ravi’s rank from the start ?
A)  11    B)  15   C) 13    D)   9
80. In a certain code, ‘bi nie pie’ means “some good jokes”;; ‘nie bat lik’ means “some real stories”;; ‘pie lik tol’ means “many good stories”. Which word in the code means ‘jokes’ ?
A)  nie    B)  pie   C)  lik   D)  bi
81. There are five bus stops. A,B,C,D,E at equal intervals. C is not the middle stop and A,E are not terminal stops. C comes twice as many stops before D in upward jpurney as B comes after A. D is the first stop in downward journey. The correct sequence of stops in the downward journey is
A)   ABDCE     B)   CDAEB     C)  DACEB     D)  DEBAC
82. Five persons namely Yasin,Arafat,Rasheed,Ali and Rehman are to be seated in five out of the six seats numbered 1 to 6. The following table provides information about the serial numbers of the seats on which each of the mentioned friends can possibly sit.
Names Yasir Arafat Rasheed Ali Rehman
Seat No. 1 2 or 3 2,3 or 4 4 or 5 5 or 6
If one of the seats numbered 2 or 4 is unocuupied. then the number of different ways five mentioned persons can be seated is
A) 1   B)  2   C) 3  D)  4
83.   If (ABCD)a = D*a^0 + C*a^1 + B*a^2 + A*a^3
(8448)9/(2112)9=(y)3  then  y is
A) 011  B ) 101   C) 110   D) 111
84. Two straight lines can divide a circular disk into a maximum of 4 parts. Likewise, into How many maximum parts can four straight lines divide a circular disk?
A) 11   B) 21    C) 31    D)  41
85. When the numerator of a fraction is increased by 7 and denominator is increased by 13, the resulting number is equivalent to the obrained when numerator decreased by 2 and denominator decreased by 11. The sum of the numerator and denominator is 24. Find the fraction
A)  1/23    B)  7/17   C)  11/13     D)  5/19
86. A test contains 50 questions. Each correct answer fetches 1 mark and wrong answer gets 1/2 mark is deducted. A candidate who wrote the test attempted all the questions and scored 41 marks. Find the number of questions he answered correctly?
A)  46      B) 42     C) 44     D) 48
87. ABC is a three digit number. The sum of its digits is 9. If each of BA and BC are two digit numbers such that BA=BC-3. How many values C can take ?
A)  16    B) 6   C) 26   D) 36
88. The sum of three digit number and numbers formed by reversing its digits is 989. The sum of its digits is 13. Find the middle digit
A)  9    B)  6  C) 4  D) 2
89. An observer 1.6 m tall is 20√3 away from a tower .The angle of elevation from his eye to the top of the tower is 300. The height of the tower is
A) 21.6 m   B) 23.2 m   C) 24.72 m  D) 21.4 m
90. Identify the odd one
A)  heart  B)  liver   C)  nose   D)  kidneys
91.  18, 10, 6, 4, 3,  ?
A)  8   B)   4   C)  3.5   D)  2.5
92. Which makes the best comparison ?
TOMATO : MTOOTA  : : 123412 : ?
A)  312214   B) 123456  C)  321124  D) 213314
93.  My brother is standing 40m South-West of my sister.I am standing 40m South-East of my brither. I am in which direction of my sister?
A)  South  B) West   C)  East   D)  North-East
94. Find the next letters in series : BCZ, DEY, FGK,HIW,_________
A)   JKL    B)   JKV   C)  JKU    D)  JKT
95. Find related word  ;  Conscience : wrong :: Police : _________
A)  thief   B) law   C)  discipline   D) crime
96. A shopkeeper sells one transistor for Rs.840 at a gain of 20% and another for Rs.960 at a loss of 4%. His total loss or gain percent is
A) 5  15/17 %  loss   B)  5  15/17 % gain   C)  6  2/3 % gain    D) 6 2/3 % loss
97. A boatman goes 2Km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1Km along the current in 10min. How long will it take to go 5Km in stationary water ?
A)  40 Minutes    B)  1 hour   C)  1 hr 15 min   D)  1 hr 30 min
98. In how many ways can the letters of the word  LEADER  can be arranged ?
A)  72  B)   144  C)  360   D)  720
99. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together, the two pipes can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in
A)  81 min    B)  144 min    C) 108 min  D) 192 min
100. If  log 27  = 1.431 , then the value of    log 9 is
A)  0.934      B) 0.954      C) 0.945     D) 0.958