Uttar Pradesh Assistant Prosecution Officers (Pre.) Exam.,

Law

(Held on 14-6-2009)

1. Point out wrong answer—
An order maintenance may be passed under section 125 of Cr. P. C. where a person neglects or refuses to maintain—
(A) his wife even if living separately by mutual consent
(B) his legitimate or illegitimate minor child
(C) his legitimate or illegitimate child who is by reason of any physical or mental abnormality or injury, unable to maintain itself
(D) his father or mother
Ans : (A)

2. An order of discharge—
(A) is not a judgement
(B) is not a defence against fresh proceedings without fresh facts and better evidence
(C) takes place after formal framing of charges
(D) establishes innocence of accused
Ans : (A)

3. Section 50 of Cr. P. C. provides that every person arrested without warrant shall be informed of grounds of arrest and of right to bail, if the arrest is made for a bailable offence. What is the effect of non-compliance of these provisions ?
(A) It shall not render the arrest and detention of the person concerned illegal
(B) Even if the provisions of this section are overlooked, error may be corrected later
(C) It shall render the arrest and detention of the person concerned illegal and shall enable the person arrested move for habeas-corpus to obtain his release
(D) It is simply a procedural error and the provisions of this section are not very material
Ans : (C)


4. In sub-section (1) of section 24 of the Cr. P. C., after the words ‘Public Prosecutor’, the words inserted are—
(A) One or more additional public prosecutors
(B) Two or more additional public prosecutors
(C) At least five additional public prosecutors
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

5. The offences which can be compounded are provided under—
(A) Schedule first of Cr. P. C.
(B) Schedule second of Cr. P. C.
(C) Section 320 of Cr. P. C.
(D) Section 321 of Cr. P. C.
Ans : (C)

6. In which case, it was held that at the time of framing charge or taking cognizance, accused has no right to produce any material ?
(A) Anil Royal v. State of Bihar
(B) State of Orissa v. Debendra Nath Padhi
(C) Bani Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh
(D) Pratap Singh v. State of Jharkhand
Ans : (B)

7. In which sections of Cr. P. C., the procedure for trial before a court of Sessions is provided ?
(A) 260 to 265
(B) 238 to 250
(C) 251 to 259
(D) 225 to 237
Ans : (D)

8. Investigation includes all the proceedings conducted by a police officer—
(A) For the collection of evidence
(B) For enquiry than a trial
(C) For trial
(D) All the above
Ans : (A)

9. “If the complainant is absent on the day fixed for the hearing of the case, the magistrate may, in his discretion, discharge the accused in certain circumstances.”
In which one of the following circumstances the accused cannot be discharged ?
(A) When the charge has been framed
(B) When the offence is compoundable
(C) When the offence is noncognizable
(D) When the proceeding has been instituted on complaint
Ans : (A)

10. A warrant of arrest and a proclamation under section 82 of Cr. P. C. were issued simultaneously and later a consequential order of attachment under section 83 was also issued. What is the legality of these orders ?
(A) All the orders are perfectly legal
(B) The order under section 82 is legal but order under section 83 is illegal
(C) The order under section 82 is illegal and improper vitiating the consequential order of attachment
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

11. An offence is committed by a British citizen on an aircraft registered in India. The offender may be dealt with under which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ?
(A) Section 188
(B) Section 183
(C) Section 182
(D) Section 186
Ans : (A)

12. In which of the following cases it was held that the accused cannot use the case diary ? Neither the accused nor his counsel can requisition the case diary and they cannot claim to go through it ?
(A) State of Uttar Pradesh v. Harish Chandra Singh
(B) Madhu Limaye v. Union of India
(C) Mukund Lal v. Union of India
(D) J. M. Desai v. State of Bombay
Ans : (C)

13. Which section of the code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 deals with the power of Sessions Judge to transfer cases and appeals ?
(A) Section 409
(B) Section 408
(C) Section 407
(D) Section 406
Ans : (B)

14. Consider the following statements—
1. Illegal arrest does not vitiate the trial.
2. A confession is not invalidated by the illegal arrest.
3. Mere keeping a person in police station or restricting his movement within the precincts of a police station amounts to arrest.
4. Arrest need not be by handcuffing a person, but could be complete by spoken words.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(B) Only 1 and 4 are correct
(C) Only 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct
Ans : (C)

15. Under section 77 of Cr. P. C., a warrant of arrest may be executed—
(A) Within the local jurisdiction of court issuing warrant
(B) At any place within the state
(C) At any place in India
(D) Within the jurisdiction of District court
Ans : (C)

16. “Summons case” means a case relating to an offence, punishable with—
(A) Imprisonment for life
(B) Imprisonment for a term of 10 years
(C) Imprisonment for a term exceeding two years
(D) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years
Ans : (D)

17. Who can commute the sentence of imprisonment for life under Cr. P. C. ?
(A) Appropriate Government
(B) The President of India
(C) The Governor of the State
(D) The Home Minister of the State
Ans : (A)

18. In a cognizable offence a police officer—
(A) cannot arrest an accused without warrant
(B) can keep the accused in police custody without a remand order
(C) is not required to produce the accused before a magistrate
(D) may arrest an accused without warrant
Ans : (D)

19. The objective of the Police Act 1949 is—
(A) To reorganise the police and to make it a more efficient instrument for the prevention and detection of crime
(B) To amend the law relating to the regulation of police force
(C) To provide for the constitution of a general police district embracing two or more Union Territories and for the establishment of a police force therefore
(D) To give more powers to the Inspector General and Director General of Police
Ans : (C)

20. Police Diary is—
(A) Case Diary
(B) General Diary
(C) General Register
(D) Any of the above
Ans : (A)

21. For patrolling of roads ordinarily—
(A) Civil police shall be employed
(B) Armed police shall be employed
(C) Mounted police shall be employed
(D) Village Chaukidar shall be employed
Ans : (A)

22. The Public Prosecutor should inspect the Malkhana once is—
(A) A month
(B) Two months
(C) Three months
(D) A fortnight
Ans : (A)

23. Which of the following is not correct ?
(A) The police may control and regulate the processions
(B) The police has power to forbid or issue order banning the procession in public interest
(C) Those who convene a public assembly, may be required to obtain a licence from the Police Superintendent
(D) The police may lay down conditions for the conduct of the public assembly or procession
Ans : (C)

24. Special police officers may be appointed under section 17 of the Uttar Pradesh Police Act, 1861 by—
(A) Inspector General of Police
(B) Any Magistrate suo motu
(C) Magistrate on application of Police Inspector
(D) Senior Superintendent of Police
Ans : (C)

25. Village Chaukidars are appointed by—
(A) Gram Pradhan
(B) In charge of the Police Station
(C) Superintendent of Police
(D) District Magistrate
Ans : (D)

26. Shall it be lawful for a police officer to take into custody a person who throws or lays down any dirt, filth, rubbish or any stones on any road or street, which causes inconvenience or annoyance to public ?
(A) Yes, even without warrant
(B) Yes, only under a warrant of arrest
(C) No, because it is not an offence
(D) No, because the police officer is not empowered
Ans : (A)

27. Particulars of which of the following organised gangs should not be entered in the ‘gang register’ of a police station of the district ?
(A) Gang of Dacoits
(B) Gang of cattle thieves
(C) Gang to burglars
(D) Gang of railway goods wagon thieves
Ans : (B)

28. Is the Investigation Officer bound to reduce in writing any statement made to him in the course of examination under section 161 of the code of Criminal Procedure ?
(A) Yes
(B) No
(C) Only when directed by the court to do so
(D) Only in cases of cognizable offences
Ans : (B)

29. Which of the following is not required to be recorded in the General Diary ?
(A) Details contained in a First Information Report
(B) Departure and return of police officers on and from duty
(C) Receipt and disbursement of cash
(D) Arrests made at the police station
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following is not a duty of the police officer ?
(A) To obey and execute all orders and warrants issued to him by any competent authority
(B) To collect and communicate intelligence affecting the public peace
(C) To prevent the commission of offences and public nuisances
(D) To take charge of all unclaimed property and dispose the same as the circumstances demand
Ans : (D)

31. History-sheet of class A, that is for dacoits, burglars, cattle thieves, railway goods wagon thieves and abettors thereof, may be discontinued with the sanction of—
(A) Superintendent of Police
(B) District Magistrate
(C) Deputy Inspector General of Police
(D) Inspector General of Police
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following entries is not made in the village crime Note-Book Part-I ?
(A) Main Castes and Tribals
(B) Specialities of the Population
(C) Entries of offences against the State
(D) The village choukidar
Ans : (C)

33. No warrant of arrest in a noncognizable offence shall for any reason be kept by the police for more than—
(A) One month
(B) Two months
(C) Six weeks
(D) Fifteen days
Ans : (C)

34. ‘In every Statute mens rea is to be implied unless contrary is shown from the language of the Statute.’
This view was expressed in—
(A) Sherras Vs. De Rutzen
(B) R. Vs. Dudley and Stephen
(C) Queen Vs. Tolson
(D) R. Vs. Arnold
Ans : (A)

35. A national of Pakistan fires from the other side of the borders and a person within the Indian border is killed. The relatives, friends and other Indians rush and drag the Pakistani to border Indian Police Station. Can the Indian courts try the accused for murder ?
(A) No, Indian courts have no jurisdiction
(B) Yes
(C) He shall be handed over to the Pakistani authorities for trial in Pakistan
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

36. Who among the following is not a public servant ?
(A) Chief Minister of a State
(B) Chairman of the Central Board of Film Censors
(C) Surveyor of an Insurance Company
(D) Employee of a ‘Nationalized Bank’
Ans : (C)

37. Match List-I (Case) with List-II (Subject) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists—
List-I
(a) Kehar Singh Vs. Delhi Administration
(b) Nawab Ali Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Vishwanath Vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
(d) Mehboob Shah Vs. Emperor
List-II
1. Right of private defence
2. Criminal Conspiracy
3. Common Intention
4. Common Object
5. Mistake of fact
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 3 1 5 2
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 5 3
Ans : (A)

38. ‘A’ makes an attempt to steal jewels by breaking open box, and finds after so opening the box, that there was no jewel in it. What offence ‘A’ has committed ?
(A) Attempt to theft
(B) Theft
(C) Criminal breach of trust
(D) All of the above
Ans : (A)

39. ‘A’ sought to appear in LL.B. examination on the basis of forged marks-sheet of B.A., but forged marks-sheet was detected before the commencement of examination—
(A) ‘A’ is not guilty of cheating
(B) ‘A’ is guilty of attempt to cheat
(C) ‘A’ is guilty of cheating
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

40. Which of the following is not correct ?
(A) A person made non compos mentis by illness is exempted from criminal liability, if the act was committed under the influence of his mental disorder
(B) The intoxication, in order to be available as defence must be of that degree and extent as renders the accused practically an automation
(C) Voluntary drunkenness is an excuse for knowledge
(D) Except murder and offences punishable with death, compulsion is an excusable defence, if the act is done under the fear of instant death
Ans : (C)

41. Which of the following is not a meaning of the expression ‘common intention’ under section 34 of the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) A prearranged plan, prior meeting of minds, prior consultation in between all the persons constituting the group
(B) A desire to commit a criminal act without any contemplation of the consequence
(C) The mens rea necessary to constitute the offence that has been committed
(D) Evil intent to necessarily commit the same offence which is committed
Ans : (B)

42. In which of the following cases ‘necessity’ under section 81 of Indian Penal Code cannot be pleaded as a defence ?
(A) Self-defence and prevention of violence
(B) Prevention of harm to the accused at the expense of an innocent person
(C) Self-preservation is an absolute necessity
(D) Choice of evils affecting person other than the accused
Ans : (C)

43. In which section of Indian Penal Code the maxim ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ is incorporated ?
(A) Section 78
(B) Section 76
(C) Section 79
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

44. ‘A’, a child of exact seven years of age commits an offence. ‘A’ will—
(A) not be guilty under section 82 of Indian Penal Code
(B) be guilty if he is of sufficient maturity
(C) not be covered by section 82 and 83 of Indian Penal Code
(D) be guilty under section 83 of Indian Penal Code
Ans : (C)

45. ‘A’ holds ‘Z’ down, and fraudulently takes Z’s money and jewels from ‘Z’s clothes, without ‘Z’s consent. ‘A’ is guilty of committing—
(A) Theft
(B) Extortion
(C) Robbery
(D) Dacoity
Ans : (C)

46. Distinction between Section 34 and 149 of IPC has been authoritatively expounded by the Supreme Court in—
(A) State of Maharashtra v. M. H. George
(B) Guru Deo Singh v. State of Punjab
(C) Ram Kumar v. State of Haryana
(D) Nanak Chand v. State of Punjab
Ans : (D)

47. Which of the following is not necessary to constitute abetment by conspiracy ?
(A) A conspiracy between two or more persons
(B) An act or illegal omission must take place in pursuance of that conspiracy
(C) Such an act or illegal omission must also take place in order to do the thing conspired
(D) The abettor should concert the offence with the person who commits it
Ans : (D)

48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists—
List-I
(a) Tukaram Vs. State of Maharashtra
(b) State Vs. Nalini
(c) Barendra Kumar Ghosh Vs. Emperor
(d) State of Maharashtra Vs. Sukh Deo Singh
List-II
1. General A.S. Vaidya case
2. Mathura rape case
3. Post-master murder case
4. Rajeev Gandhi murder case
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
Ans : (A)

49. If in a trial for ‘causing death by negligence’ it is established that the accused had been at fault though victim had also been equally at fault—
(A) The fact that the actual injury was brought about by carelessness or contribution of the victim also, will be no defence
(B) Contributory negligence would be a good defence
(C) The degree of culpability as to the amount of negligence on his part shall be deciding factor
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

50. Which one of the following is punishable as sedition ?
(A) Bitter criticism of the government to overthrow it
(B) Inducing people to cease to obey law and lawful authority
(C) A publicist attack on the policies of the government
(D) An attempt to remove the Ministers from power
Ans : (B)

51. ‘A’, for the purpose of inducing ‘B’ to desist from prosecuting a civil suit, threatens to burn ‘B’s house. What offence was committed by ‘A’ in this case ?
(A) Abetment
(B) Criminal assault
(C) Criminal force
(D) Criminal intimidation
Ans : (D)

52. ‘A’, with the intention of murdering ‘Z’, instigates ‘B’, a child below seven years at age, to do an act which causes ‘Z’s death. ‘B’, in consequence of instigation, did the act in the absence of ‘A’, thereby causes ‘Z’s death. What offence has been committed by ‘A’ ?
(A) No offence, because ‘A’ was not present at the time of murder
(B) Committed simple offence of causing hurt
(C) Committed offence of attempt to murder
(D) Committed murder
Ans : (D)

53. The Supreme Court of India has upheld the constitutional validity of section 497 of Indian Penal Code (Adultery) in—
(A) Smt. Sowmithri Vishnu Vs. Union of India
(B) K. M. Nanawati Vs. State of Maharashtra
(C) Priya Bala Ghosh Vs. Suresh Chandra Ghosh
(D) Sukhbeer Singh Vs. State of Haryana
Ans : (A)

54. Point out correct response—
In theft there must be—
(A) Dishonest intention to take any kind of property
(B) Dishonest intention to take any valuable security
(C) Dishonest intention to take any movable property
(D) Dishonest intention to take only immovable property
Ans : (C)

55. Which of the following is not an illustration of assault ?
(A) ‘A’ takes up a stick saying to ‘B’, “I will beat you”
(B) ‘A’ threatens ‘B’ to see him later on
(C) ‘A’ medically examines a woman ‘B’ without her consent
(D) ‘A’ throws brickbats into the house of ‘B’
Ans : (B)

56. ‘A’ places men with firearms at the outlets of a building, and tells ‘Z’ that they will fire at ‘Z’ if ‘Z’ attempts to leave the building—
(A) ‘A’ wrongfully restrains ‘Z’
(B) ‘A’ wrongfully obstructs ‘Z’
(C) ‘A’ wrongfully confines ‘Z’
(D) ‘A’ wrongfully orders ‘Z’
Ans : (C)

57. Which one of the following is an illustration of criminal attempt ?
(A) ‘A’ tries to kill ‘B’ by witchcraft
(B) ‘A’ administers a poisonous drug to a woman ‘B’ with an intention to cause miscarriage, but the woman was not pregnant
(C) ‘A’ takes away his own umbrella thinking it to be of someone else
(D) ‘A’ goes to Kolkata to buy dyes to make counterfeit currency notes
Ans : (B)

58. ‘A’ has knocked down four teeth of ‘B’. ‘A’ has committed the offence of—
(A) Attempt to cause hurt
(B) Causing hurt
(C) Causing grievous hurt
(D) Attempt to murder
Ans : (C)

59. Which one of the following is not punishable under the Indian Penal Code ?
(A) Preparation to commit murder
(B) Preparation to commit dacoity
(C) Preparation to wage war against the state
(D) Preparation to commit depredation on the territory of a friendly power
Ans : (A)

60. A minor girl of 15 years of age left her father’s house with Rs. 10,000 and accompanied ‘Z’ to various places. All the traveling as well as Hotel charges were paid out of the said amount as ‘Z’ had no money. During the course of their journey ‘Z’ had sexual intercourse with her thrice with her consent. Here ‘Z’ is liable under section—
(A) 363 of Indian Penal Code
(B) 366 of Indian Penal Code
(C) 366-A of Indian Penal Code
(D) 376 of Indian Penal Code
Ans : (D)

61. Assertion (A) : Homicide is the killing of a human being by a human being.
Reason (R) : Homicide is always unlawful.
Select the correct answer with the help of codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

62. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists—
List-I
(a) Act of Judge when acting judicially
(b) Accident in doing a lawful act
(c) Act of a child under seven years of age
(d) Act of a person of unsound mind
List-II
1. Section 82 of I.P.C.
2. Section 84 of I.P.C.
3. Section 77 of I.P.C.
4. Section 80 of I.P.C.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 3 4 1
Ans : (B)

63. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ agreed to commit murder of ‘Z’ by poisoning and ‘Y’ was to procure poison, but he did not procure it. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are guilty of—
(A) Abetment of murder by conspiracy
(B) Attempt to murder with the aid of section 34 of Indian Penal Code
(C) No offence
(D) Criminal conspiracy to murder Z
Ans : (D)

64. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) The right of private defence under Indian Penal Code is available even against an act which is not offence under the code
(B) The right of private defence can be exercised to repeal unlawful aggression and also to retaliate
(C) The right of private defence is available to defend only one’s own person and property
(D) The right of private defence extends to the causing of death when the assault is made with the intention of wrongfully confining a person
Ans : (D)

65. ‘A’ shakes his fist at ‘Z’, intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause ‘Z’ to believe that ‘A’ is about to strike ‘Z’.
‘A’ has committed—
(A) Use of force
(B) Use of criminal force
(C) Assault
(D) Use of force and assault both
Ans : (C)

66. ‘A’ sent through the post office, a packet containing seditious publications, with a covering letter requesting the addressee to circulate it to others. It was intercepted and never reached the addressee. ‘A’—
(A) Committed the offence of sedition
(B) Did not commit any offence
(C) Is guilty of inciting communal riot
(D) Is guilty of an attempt to commit sedition
Ans : (D)

67. Which one of the following is an inchoate-crime ?
(A) Riot
(B) Criminal attempt
(C) Unlawful assembly
(D) Public nuisance
Ans : (B)

68. Assault in order to outrage the modesty of a woman is punishable under—
(A) Section 350 I.P.C.
(B) Section 351 I.P.C.
(C) Section 353 I.P.C.
(D) Section 354 I.P.C.
Ans : (D)

69. Which of the following would not be relevant in evidence under section 8 of Indian Evidence Act ?
(A) Evidence of the existence of a motive for the crime charged
(B) Evidence of a statement which accompanies some conduct
(C) Evidence of a statement which influences and affects the conduct of a person, whose conduct is otherwise relevant
(D) Evidence of a statement of the act of robbery without making any complaint
Ans : (D)

70. In a case where a doctor commits rape on a woman of 30 years of age under his treatment and the woman says that she did not consent, the court—
(A) will need proof
(B) shall presume that she did not consent
(C) may need corroboration
(D) may presume or may not presume her consent
Ans : (B)

71. Which one of the following is a judgement-in-personam ?
(A) A final judgement in a suit for divorce
(B) A final judgement in a suit for restitution of conjugal rights
(C) A final judgement in a suit for insolvency
(D) A final judgement in a suit for admiralty matters
Ans : (B)

72. Which of the following is not correct for relevancy of evidence to prove conspiracy ?
(A) There must be reasonable ground to believe that two or more persons have entered into a conspiracy
(B) The act in question must have been done after the time when the intention to conspire was first entertained by any of them
(C) The act must have been done in reference to their common intention
(D) It can also be used in favour of the other party or for the purpose of showing that such a person was not a party to the conspiracy
Ans : (D)

73. Who amongst the following is not an accomplice ?
(A) A bribe giver
(B) A detective
(C) A prostitute
(D) A person receiving stolen property
Ans : (B)

74. The English doctrine of Res Gestae—
(A) has no place in India
(B) has place in India
(C) has place in India and has been incorporated under Section 6 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
(D) has been incorporated under section 7 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
Ans : (C)

75. Assertion (A) : An admission can be used against a co-defendant.
Reason (R) : An admission binds the maker of it. It may be used in his favour as well.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : (B)

76. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding ‘admission‘ under section 17 of Indian Evidence Act ?
(A) Admission operates as waiver of proof
(B) Admission is a statement
which is necessarily against one’s own interest
(C) A statement which suggests some inference as to fact-in-issue or relevant fact, may be admission
(D) It is generally irrelevant as to whom an admission is made
Ans : (D)

77. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists—
List-I
(a) Section 46 of Indian Evidence Act
(b) Section 47 of Indian Evidence Act
(c) Section 47A of Indian Evidence Act
(d) Section 48 of Indian Evidence Act
List-II
1. Opinion as to digital signature
2. Opinion as to existence of right or custom, when relevant
3. Facts bearing upon opinion of experts
4. Opinion as to handwriting when relevant
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 2 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 4 3
(D) 3 4 1 2
Ans : (D)

78. When can a person prove his own statement constituting admission, or it may be proved on his behalf ?
(A) When it is relevant as dying declaration
(B) When it is relevant as admission
(C) When it is relevant as confession
(D) When it is only an oral admission as to content of electronic record
Ans : (A)

79. Assertion (A) : A confession always goes against the maker of it, provided it has been made freely and voluntarily.
Reason (R) : A confession is inadmissible against a coaccused.
Choose the correct answer using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

80. A statement before the police officer in the course of investigation was that the design was carried out according to plan; but no reference was made to persons who were involved in murder or to the maker of statement himself—
(A) Prosecution shall not be allowed to prove this statement, being hit by section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
(B) Prosecution may prove this statement. It is not hit by section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
(C) Only that part of the statement may be proved which leads to discovery of a fact in consequence of information received
(D) None of the above is correct
Ans : (C)

81. Admissions are—
(A) Conclusive proof
(B) Not Conclusive proof
(C) Not estoppel
(D) None of the above is correct
Ans : (B)

82. What is the evidentiary value of the confession of a co-accused implicating himself as well as his other non-confessing coaccused ?
(A) Such a confession is relevant against all the co-accused
(B) It shall not be relevant against non-confessing coaccused
(C) Such a confession amounts to proof of guilt of all the coaccused
(D) If the confessing co-accused is acquitted of the main offence, his confession shall cease to be admissible
Ans : (A)

83. Relevancy and admissibility under Indian Evidence Act are—
(A) Synonymous
(B) Neither synonymous nor coextensive
(C) Co-extensive
(D) Synonymous and co-extensive both
Ans : (B)

84. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act defines ‘Leading Question’ ?
(A) Section 140
(B) Section 141
(C) Section 142
(D) Section 143
Ans : (B)

85. The case of Sarat Chander Dey v. Gopal Chander Laha, (1891) 19 I.A. 203 is related to which of the following section of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 ?
(A) Section 6
(B) Section 115
(C) Section 124
(D) Section 45
Ans : (B)

86. In which year the electronic evidence was incorporated in the Indian evidence Act as a part of documentary Evidence ?
(A) 2001
(B) 2002
(C) 2000
(D) 1999
Ans : (C)

87. Which of the following is not a public document ?
(A) Records of a nationalized Bank
(B) A post-mortem report
(C) A private waqf deed, recorded in the office of subregistrar
(D) Entries made by a police officer in the site inspection map and site memo
Ans : (B)

88. Where a married woman, dying of burns was a person of unsound mind and the medical certificate vouchsafed her physical fitness for a statement and not the state of mind at the crucial moment; in which of the following cases the court said that the statement could not be relied upon ?
(A) Ravi Chander Vs. State of Punjab
(B) Shripatrao Vs. State of Maharashtra
(C) Uka Ram Vs. State of Rajasthan
(D) Baldev Raj Vs. State of Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (A)

89. The principle of Promissory Estoppel found its root—
(A) As an exception to the doctrine of consideration
(B) As a rule of future consideration in the law of contract
(C) As a rule of past consideration in the law of contract
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

90. Under which section of Evidence Act, a tenant of immovable property is estopped from denying a title of the landlord to that property ?
(A) Section 115
(B) Section 116
(C) Section 117
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

91. The case of Pakala Narain Swamy v. Emperor relates to—
(A) Res gestae
(B) Dying declaration
(C) Accomplice
(D) Co-accused
Ans : (B)

92. An accused charged under section 302 and 304 B of the Indian Penal Code is acquitted of the offence under section 302 of Indian Penal Code. The presumption under section 113 B of the Evidence Act is—
(A) Automatically refuted
(B) Not refuted
(C) Not relevant
(D) Irrelevant and otiose
Ans : (B)

93. Assertion (A) : ‘B’ writes to his wife ‘C’ a letter, which contains defamatory matters about ‘D’. ‘C’ cannot be compelled to disclose this communication.
Reason (R) : Any communication made during subsistence of marriage by a husband to his wife or vice-versa is protected as privileged communication.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

94. Any condition imposed by a Magistrate when releasing any person on bail—
(A) Can be set aside or modified only by the Supreme Court
(B) Cannot be modified by any court
(C) Can be modified by Sessions Court or High Court
(D) Can be set aside only by Sessions Court
Ans : (C)

95. During investigation of an offence of committing rape, medical examination of the alleged victim may be done—
(A) Only on the order of a Magistrate
(B) Necessarily on the request of concerned investigation officer, if he deems it fit
(C) After the investigation officer obtains permission of his Superintendent of Police
(D) With the consent of such woman victim or of any person competent to give such consent on her behalf
Ans : (D)

96. The main characteristic of the code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is—
(A) The separation of the judiciary from the executive
(B) The separation of the legislature from the executive
(C) The separation of the revenue work from the executive
(D) To provide judicial powers to the executive magistrates
Ans : (A)

97. Which of the following is not correct regarding provisions of bail in case of non-bailable offences ?
(A) Bail may be granted, if the court concerned comes to the conclusion that prosecution has failed to establish a prima-facie case
(B) Bail may be granted, if the court is satisfied that in spite of existence of a prima-facie case there is need to release such person on bail in view of facts and circumstances of case
(C) Bail cannot be granted to an accused who may be required for being identified by witness during investigation
(D) If the offence is punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for 7 years or more, no person can be released on bail without giving an opportunity of hearing to the public prosecutor
Ans : (D)

98. Under which section of code of Criminal Procedure, security is taken of good behaviour from habitual offenders ?
(A) Section 109
(B) Section 110
(C) Section 111
(D) Section 112
Ans : (B)

99. Which of the following is not a duty of the Magistrate while recording confession under section 164 Cr. P. C. ?
(A) Duty to explain to the person making the confession that he is not bound to make confession
(B) Duty to work that if he makes a confession, it may be used as evidence against him
(C) Duty to record the confessional statement in the form of questions and answers
(D) Duty to be satisfied and have reason to believe the confession was voluntary
Ans : (C)

100. Which one of the following is a case relating to anticipatory bail ?
(A) D. K. Ganesh Babu Vs. P. T. Manokaran
(B) Tama Vs. State of West Bengal
(C) Dinesh Dalmia Vs. C. B. I.
(D) Dimple Gupta Vs. Rajiv Gupta
Ans : (A)

U.P. PCS Combined State/Lower Subordinate Services Special (Pre.) Exam.

Indian History 

(Held on 24-5-2009) 

1. Which one of the following regions did not constitute a separate suba (province) under Akbar ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Bengal
(C) Bihar
(D) Awadh
Ans : (D)

2. Which of the following statements about Bukka I of the Vijayanagar empire is not correct ?
(A) He instilled new vigour into Hindu Society
(B) He renovated temples
(C) Under his fostering care Sayana wrote commentaries on Vedas
(D) He adopted measures to uplift the Shudras
Ans : (D)

3. Sayana is associated with—
(A) The Chola Kingdom
(B) Vijayanagar Kingdom
(C) Hoyasala Kingdom
(D) Bahmani Kingdom
Ans : (B)


4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I
(a) Accession of Aurangzeb
(b) Promulgation of Mahzar
(c) Battle of Khanva
(d) Accession of Akbar
List-II
1. 1527 A.D.
2. 1556 A.D.
3. 1579 A.D.
4. 1659 A.D.
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (B)

5. Consider the following statements about Kabir and Nanak—
1. Their ideas were drawn both from Bhakti and Sufi traditions.
2. They expressed the sentiments of rural masses.
3. They made strong plea for Hindu-Muslim unity.
4. Their followers founded religious communities.
Select your answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans : (D)

6. Arrange the following Chisti Saints in correct chronological order—
1. Sheikh Nizamuddin Aulia
2. Syed Muhammad Gesudaraz
3. Baba Farid Ganjshakar
4. Sheikh Nasiruddin Chirage-Delhi
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 1, 3, 4, 2
(D) 3, 1, 4, 2
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following Sultans assumed the title of Caliph himself ?
(A) Balban
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Qutbuddin Mubarak Shah Khalji
(D) Mohammad bin Tughlaq
Ans : (C)

8. Which one of the following Sufi orders laid great stress on practicing mystic music ?
(A) Chisti
(B) Suharawardi
(C) Qadiri
(D) Naqshbandi
Ans : (A)

9. Who among the following Hindu Painters was sent by Jehangir to make a portrait of Shah Abbas I of Persia ?
(A) Basawan
(B) Bishan Das
(C) Dasrath
(D) Manohar
Ans : (B)

10. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Akbar —Xerome Xavier
(B) Aurangzeb —Edward Terry
(C) Shahjahan —Peter Mundi
(D) Jehangir —Sir Thomas Roe
Ans : (B)

11. In which year was the decree called ‘Mahzar’ issued during Akbar’s reign ?
(A) 1560 A.D.
(B) 1572 A.D.
(C) 1576 A.D.
(D) 1579 A.D.
Ans : (D)

12. The ‘Razmanama’ which was compiled by several Persian scholars was a translation of—
(A) Panchatantra
(B) Ramayana
(C) Mahabharata
(D) Rigveda
Ans : (C)

13. During the Mughal rule the Qazi-ul-Quzat was—
(A) Head of the Finance department
(B) Censor of Public morals
(C) Chief judge of the empire
(D) Incharge of charities
Ans : (C)

14. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Akbar : Maan Bai
(B) Aurangzeb : Udaipuri Mahal
(C) Jehangir : Manmati
(D) Shahjahan : Jehan Ara
Ans : (A)

15. Which was the chief or main region of copper mines in Mughal period ?
(A) Bengal
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Agra
(D) Bihar
Ans : (B)

16. Which of the following statements is correct about Shivaji ?
(A) His movement was supported by all the Maratha Watandars
(B) The smaller Watandars formed the back bone of his movement
(C) He abolished the Watandari system
(D) He did not fight with bigger Maratha Watandars
Ans : (B)

17. Which one of the following was not included in the ‘Asta Pradhan’ of Shivaji ?
(A) Sumant
(B) Majmudar
(C) Vakiyanavis
(D) Vakeel
Ans : (D)

18. What was the rate of land revenue in the administration of Shivaji ?
(A) 2/5 portion of the yield
(B) 1/2 portion of the yield
(C) 1/3 portion of the yield
(D) 1/4 portion of the yield
Ans : (A)

19. Why did Shivaji decide to collect ‘Chauth’ and ‘Sardeshmukhi’ ?
(A) To increase the source of income
(B) To expand his territories
(C) To consolidate his political influence
(D) Because of the opposition of Muslim rulers
Ans : (A)

20. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A) : Shivaji signed the Treaty of Purandar.
Reason (R) : He had lost all hopes of resistance to the Mughals.
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

21. When was Bombay transferred to the East India Company by Charles II ?
(A) 1662 A.D.
(B) 1664 A.D.
(C) 1666 A.D.
(D) 1668 A.D.
Ans : (D)

22. Who of the following had said that Victory of Plassey was a victory of betrayal ?
(A) Orme
(B) H. H. Dodwell
(C) Lord Clive
(D) P. E. Roberts
Ans : (B)

23. Name the English man who tried to obtain from Akbar a Firman for trade in Gujarat ?
(A) Ralph Fitch
(B) John Mildenhall
(C) Sir Thomas Roe
(D) Thomas Stephens
Ans : (B)

24. The Dutch established their first settlement in Bengal at—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Chinsura
(C) Serampur
(D) Balasore
Ans : (D)

25. Who is credited with the following statement regarding the outbreak of the Revolt of 1857
“The Meerut outbreak was sudden and short-lived like a summer gale” ?
(A) S. N. Sen
(B) S. B. Chaudhari
(C) V. D. Savarkar
(D) R. C. Majumdar
Ans : (A)

26. When did the Marathas capture Salsette and Bassein from the Portuguese ?
(A) 1695 A.D.
(B) 1713 A.D.
(C) 1720 A.D.
(D) 1739 A.D.
Ans : (D)

27. The Diwani right of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa was obtained by the English East India Company under the treaty of—
(A) Alinagar
(B) Faizabad
(C) Allahabad
(D) Benaras
Ans : (C)

28. Find out the correct chronological order of the following events from the code given below—
1. Treaty of Amritsar
2. Fourth Anglo-Mysore War
3. Treaty of Lahore
4. East India Company’s alliance with Mewar.
Codes :
(A) 4, 1, 3, 2
(B) 2, 1, 4, 3
(C) 1, 2, 3, 4
(D) 3, 4, 2, 1
Ans : (B)

29. By which of the following treaties did the Peshwa accept the Subsidiary Alliance with the British ?
(A) Treaty of Purandhar
(B) Treaty of Bassein
(C) Treaty of Salbai
(D) Treaty of Surji Arjungaon
Ans : (B)

30. Which of the following native states was first to conclude Subsidiary Alliance with East India Company ?
(A) Avadh
(B) Mewar
(C) Mysore
(D) Hyderabad
Ans : (D)

31. Who among the following historians has remarked that the Government of Bengal between the period 1765–1772 was a robber state ?
(A) G. W. Forrest
(B) Lord Macaulay
(C) K. M. Panikkar
(D) Nand Lal Chatterji
Ans : (C)

32. On what ground was Avadh annexed into British Empire ?
(A) Doctrine of Lapse
(B) Alleged misgovernment
(C) Failure to pay subsidy
(D) Maintenance of relations with foreign powers
Ans : (B)

33. Nearly one third of soldiers of the famous Bengal Army had their homes in—
(A) Punjab
(B) Avadh
(C) Bengal
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (D)

34. Which one of the following native states was annexed by the British on the basis of the Doctrine of Lapse ?
(A) Avadh
(B) Punjab
(C) Jhansi
(D) Mysore
Ans : (C)

35. Match List-I with List-II and find out the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I(a) Theosophical Society
(b) Prarthana Samaj
(c) Brahmo Samaj
(d) Ram Krishna Mission
List-II1. Swami Vivekanand
2. Mrs. Annie Besant
3. M. G. Ranade
4. Ram Mohan Roy
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans : (A)

36. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A) : Tipu Sultan planted the tree of liberty at Seringapattam.
Reason (R) : The principles of French Revolution had made a deep impression on the mind of Tipu Sultan.
Select the answer from the code given below—
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

37. By the enactment of British Parliament when did the East India Company cease to be a trading Company ?
(A) 1784 A.D.
(B) 1833 A.D.
(C) 1813 A.D.
(D) 1773 A.D.
Ans : (B)

38. What is the correct chronological order of setting up of the following Commissions ?
1. Macdonell Commission
2. First Industrial Commission
3. First Fiscal Commission
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
(A) 1, 2, 3
(B) 2, 3, 1
(C) 2, 1, 3
(D) 1, 3, 2
Ans : (A)

39. In which of the following regions Mahalwari System of Revenue Settlement was introduced ?
(A) Bengal
(B) Bombay
(C) Madras
(D) North Western Provinces
Ans : (D)

40. Consider the following statements.
Assertion (A) : Despite initial victory the Sepoy Mutiny could not succeed in overthrowing the Raj.
Reason (R) : The rising middle class sided with Raj.
Select your correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : (C)

41. Which part of India was most affected by the Revolution of 1857 ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Avadh
(D) Madras
Ans : (C)

42. Which of the following pairs connected with the Revolution of 1857 is correctly matched ?
Place of Revolt : Leader of Revolt(A) Kanpur : Rani Lakshmibai
(B) Jhansi : Nana Saheb
(C) Lucknow : Begum Hazrat Mahal
(D) Delhi : Tantiya Tope
Ans : (C)

43. Who among the following is remembered for the annulment of the Partition of Bengal ?
(A) Lord Curzon
(B) Lord Minto
(C) Lord Hardinge
(D) Lord Chelmsford
Ans : (C)

44. When did Babu Kunwar Singh fight his last battle against the British ?
(A) September 1857
(B) November 1857
(C) February 1858
(D) April 1858
Ans : (D)

45. Kumaran Asan is associated with the social renaissance of—
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

46. In which of the following Sessions of the Indian National Congress the ‘drain theory’ was formally accepted ?
(A) Benaras session, 1905
(B) Calcutta session, 1906
(C) Surat session, 1907
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

47. Who among the following was the President of All India Trade Union Congress held at Nagpur ?
(A) Chaman Lal
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Krishna Menon
(D) N. M. Joshi
Ans : (D)

48. During which of the following period the Congress had best of relationship with the Muslim League ?
(A) 1906 – 1916
(B) 1916 – 1922
(C) 1922 – 1928
(D) 1928 – 1934
Ans : (B)

49. Who was the first Indian woman to preside over the Indian National Congress ?
(A) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur
(B) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(C) Aruna Asaf Ali
(D) Sarojini Naidu
Ans : (D)

50. Which of the following American Journalists had criticized the state of women in British India and advanced the logic that so long as cruelties on women continue, the Indian males have no right to take and manage the governance of India in their hands ?
(A) Louis Fischer
(B) Webb Miller
(C) Catherine Mayo
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

51. Consider the following events of Indian National Movement—
1. Gandhi Irwin Pact
2. Poona Pact
3. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress.
4. Individual Satyagraha
Select the correct chronological order of the events from the codes given below—
Codes :(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans : (A)

52. The book entitled ‘Springing tiger’ is a biography of—
(A) Bhagat Singh
(B) Chandrashekhar Azad
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose
(D) Shyamji Krishna Verma
Ans : (B)

53. The venue of holding this Second Round Table Conference at London was—
(A) St. James Palace
(B) Kingsley Palace
(C) Buckingham Palace
(D) 10, Downing Street
Ans : (A)

54. Lord Mountbatten as a Viceroy had conversed with following Indian leaders regarding the transfer of power—
1. Jawahar Lal Nehru
2. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
3. Mohammad Ali Jinnah
4. Mahatma Gandhi
Indicate the correct sequence of their conversation from the code given below—
Codes :(A) 1, 4, 2, 3
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 3, 2, 1, 4
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans : (A)

55. All the hymns related to one of the following Gods are in one separate mandala or book of the Rigveda. Who is the God ?
(A) Agni
(B) Varuna
(C) Indra
(D) Soma
Ans : (D)

56. Match List-I with List-II and indicate the correct answer from the code given below—
List-I
(a) Mohenjodaro
(b) Lothal
(c) Surkotda
(d) Harappa
List-II1. Pillared Hall
2. Bones of Horse
3. Cemetery R-37
4. Double Burial
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (C)

57. The Harappan site, where the citadel and the lower town, both are fortified separately is—
(A) Harappa
(B) Mohenjodaro
(C) Kalibanga
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

58. From which country of the Asian Continent was Bogazkui inscription discovered ?
(A) India
(B) Iran
(C) Syria
(D) Turkey
Ans : (D)

59. The Rigvedic Bharatas are associated with—
(A) The Indus Valley
(B) The Saraswati Valley
(C) The Sutlej Valley
(D) The Parushni Valley
Ans : (D)

60. With which of the following vedic sacrifices was the drink of Sura associated ?
(A) Agnistoma
(B) Rajasuya
(C) Sautramani
(D) Vajapeya
Ans : (C)

61. The Abhidhamma treatise Kathavatthu was written by—
(A) Mah-a kassapa
(B) Mahinda
(C) Milinda
(D) Moggaliputta Tissa
Ans : (D)

62. In the Pasupata religion Siva is said to be Lord of Pasu. Which one among the following stands for Pasu ?
(A) Lion
(B) Bull
(C) Parvati
(D) Jiva
Ans : (D)

63. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I (Dhyani Buddhas)
(a) Aksobhya
(b) Vairochana
(c) Ratnasambhava
(d) Amoghasiddhi
List-II (Vehicles)
1. Elephant
2. Snake
3. Horse
4. Garuda
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 1 2 3
Ans : (A)

64. Which of the following is not a Buddhist Concept ?
(A) Astik-aya
(B) Dharmakaya
(C) Nirmanakaya
(D) Sambhogakaya
Ans : (A)

65. Who of the following is known as a Jain scholar ?
(A) Asvaghose
(B) Hemchandra
(C) Dharmakirti
(D) Diwakaramitra
Ans : (B)

66. How many modes of devotion (Bhakti) are mentioned in Bhagawatism ?
(A) Nine
(B) Ten
(C) Eleven
(D) Eight
Ans : (B)

67. In which of the following periods did ring wells come into prevalence for the first time ?
(A) Mauryan
(B) Sunga
(C) Kushan
(D) Gupta
Ans : (D)

68. Towards which of the following sects did Dasaratha had a leaning ?
(A) Buddhism
(B) Jainism
(C) Ajivakas
(D) Lokayata
Ans : (C)

69. Who among the following classical writers said that Chandragupta Maurya overran the whole of India with an army of six lac soldiers ?
(A) Herodotus
(B) Pliny
(C) Plutarch
(D) Ptolemy
Ans : (C)

70. Who among the following Mauryan rulers was killed by his Commander-in-Chief ?
(A) Dasaratha
(B) Kun-ala
(C) Samprati
(D) Brihadratha
Ans : (D)

71. Who of the following was responsible for the collection of taxes at the intermediate level of administration between the district and the village ?
(A) Gopa
(B) Pulisa
(C) Sthanika
(D) Prativedaka
Ans : (A)

72. The Kushans issued coins of—
(A) Gold only
(B) Gold and Silver
(C) Gold and Copper
(D) Gold, Silver and Copper
Ans : (D)

73. The gold coins of Gupta period were called—
1. Dinara
2. Dramma
3. Rupaka
4. Suvarna
Indicate the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 4 only
(B) 2, 3
(C) 1, 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans : (C)

74. Who had expressed the view that the cotton cloth worn by Indians had a brighter white colour than any cotton found elsewhere ?
(A) Alexander
(B) Megasthenese
(C) Nearchus
(D) Pliny
Ans : (B)

75. Which of the following ports were situated on the eastern coast of South India ?
1. Kaveripatnam
2. Korkai
3. Musiri
4. Tondi
Indicate the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :(A) 1, 2
(B) 1, 2, 3
(C) 2, 3, 4
(D) 3, 4
Ans : (B)

76. The Vallabhi era is identical with—
(A) The Vikrama era
(B) The Gupta era
(C) The Harsha era
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

77. Who among the following Dharmasastra writers disapproved the custom of Sati declaring it as an act of suicide ?
(A) Angiras
(B) Medhatithi
(C) Usana
(D) Visnu
Ans : (B)

78. The rulers of which of the following dynasties were characterized by their metronymics ?
(A) Maurya
(B) Sunga
(C) Kanva
(D) Satavahana
Ans : (D)

79. According to Manu, a Brahamana was to be awarded higher punishment than the persons of other varnas for the offence of—
(A) The use of abusive language for the persons of other varnas
(B) Murder
(C) Theft
(D) Treason
Ans : (C)

80. In which of the following ancient texts has it been said that the king was the ruler of all except Br-a hamanas ?
(A) Manu-Smriti
(B) Yajnavalkya-Smriti
(C) Vishnu Smriti
(D) Gautama-dharmasutra
Ans : (D)

81. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the social and cultural conditions in the post-Gupta period ?
(A) The number of land-grants increased
(B) The number of castes increased
(C) The Central control increased
(D) The tantric activities increased
Ans : (C)

82. The transformation of the ancient Indian Society into Medieval society was brought about mainly by—
(A) the system of land-grants
(B) the decline in the position of upper caste
(C) the increase in the religious activities
(D) the decrease in surplus food production
Ans : (A)

83. Which of the following towns were seen by Hiuen Tsang as almost deserted ?
1. Kapilvastu
2. Kusinagar
3. Sravasti
4. Tamralipti
Indicate the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :(A) 1, 4
(B) 3, 4
(C) 2, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3
Ans : (D)

84. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the members of the various bodies responsible for Chola local selfgovernment ?
(A) They were elected by voting
(B) They were chosen by lot
(C) They must fulfil certain conditions to become members
(D) No person convicted for theft could become a member
Ans : (A)

85. Which one of the following assemblies protected the interests of traders under the Chola administration ?
(A) Mahasabha
(B) Perunguri
(C) Kuri
(D) Nagaram
Ans : (D)

86. Who among the following authors is known for his satires exposing the evils of contemporary society ?
(A) Ksemendra
(B) Pravarsena
(C) Sriharsa
(D) Visakhadutta
Ans : (A)

87. Which Chola king is credited with the first conquest of Maldives ?
(A) Rajaraja
(B) Rajendra I
(C) Rajadhiraja
(D) Rajendra II
Ans : (A)

88. Which of the following Indian Kings defeated Mohammad Ghori first ?
(A) Prithviraja Chauhan
(B) Jayachandra
(C) Vidyadhara Chandella
(D) Bhima II
Ans : (D)

89. The origin of which of the following ruling families has been described in the bardic literature from Vasisthas sacrificial pit at mountain Abu ?
1. Chahamana
2. Chaulukya
3. Paramara
4. Pratihara
Indicate the correct answer from the code given below—
Codes :(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3, 4
(C) 3, 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans : (D)

90. The coins with the figure of Laksmi were issued by—
(A) Mohammad Ghori
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Mohammad Tughlaq
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

91. The Rajatarangini of Kalhana was composed in—
(A) The eleventh century
(B) The twelfth century
(C) The thirteenth century
(D) The tenth century
Ans : (B)

92. Which of the following texts lays down rules for reconversion into Hindu fold of the Hindus forcibly converted into Islam ?
(A) Devala Smriti
(B) Narada Smriti
(C) Visnu Smriti
(D) Yajnavalkya Smriti
Ans : (A)

93. Consider the following statements regarding the history of Kashmir in the tenth century—
1. There were two rival groups in the court.
2. Queen Sugandha was deposed in 914 A.D.
3. Queen Didda did not curb the powers of the feudal land owners.
Indicate the correct statements from the code given below—
Codes :(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 1, 3
(D) 1, 2, 3
Ans : (A)

94. Who among the following dharmasastra writers was a minister of the Gahadvala King Govindachandra ?
(A) Apararka
(B) Chandesvara
(C) Lakshmidhara
(D) Vijnanesvara
Ans : (C)

95. Ibn Batuta was a traveller from—
(A) Africa
(B) Arab
(C) China
(D) Europe
Ans : (A)

96. What was the maximum permissible rate of land revenue collection according to Shariat in early medieval India ?
(A) 20% of the produce
(B) 25% of the produce
(C) 33% of the produce
(D) 50% of the produce
Ans : (D)

97. Who was the commander of Alauddin Khilji’s forces during his Deccan Campaigns ?
(A) Malik Kafur
(B) Ainul Mulk Multani
(C) Nusrat Khan
(D) Ulugh Khan
Ans : (A)

98. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below—
List-I(a) Zia-uddin Barni
(b) Ibn Batuta
(c) Abul Fazal
(d) Nizamuddin Ahmad
List-II1. Tabqat-i-Akbari
2. Akbarnama
3. Tarikh-i-Firozshahi
4. Rehla
Codes :(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 2 1 3 4
Ans : (C)

99. Which of the Sultans of Delhi abolished the ‘Zakat’ on grain ?
(A) Alauddin Khilji
(B) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq
(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans : (D)

100. Which Delhi Sultan levied the irrigation tax on the farmers for the first time ?
(A) Alauddin Khilji
(B) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(C) Mohammad Tughlaq
(D) Firoz Tughlaq
Ans : (D)

KVS Trained Graduate Teacher Selection Test 2009

Biology 

1. Which of the following is a ‘club moss’ ?
(A) Selaginella
(B) Equisetum
(C) Lycopodium
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Raphe in Marsilea is present in—
(A) Female gametophyte
(B) Sporocarp
(C) Sporophyte
(D) Male gametophyte
Ans : (B)

3. The stele type occurring in Marsilea is—
(A) Solenostele
(B) Protostele
(C) Amphiphloic Siphonostele
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)

4. The morphological nature of rhizophore of Selaginella is—
(A) Root like
(B) Stem like
(C) Both root and stem like
(D) Rhizoid like
Ans : (C)

5. The Selaginella shows—
(A) Large and small leaves arranged spirally
(B) All leaves large
(C) All leaves small
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)


6. The anatomy of Pinus needle reflects the features of a—
(A) Mesophyte
(B) Xerophyte
(C) Hydrophyte
(D) Epiphyte
Ans : (B)

7. Girdling leaf traces are the characteristic feature of the stem of—
(A) Cycas
(B) Pinus
(C) Ephedra
(D) Gnetum
Ans : (A)

8. Pinus is a—
(A) Tree
(B) Shrub
(C) Herb
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

9. The recent era is—
(A) Cenozoic
(B) Mesozoic
(C) Proterozoic
(D) Archeozoic
Ans : (A)

10. Fossils are found in—
(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Quartz
(C) Soil
(D) Sedimentary rocks
Ans : (D)

11. Reserve food material in fungi is—
(A) Glycogen
(B) Starch
(C) Sucrose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (A)

12. Which is rootless fern ?
(A) Pteris
(B) Dryopteris
(C) Salvinia
(D) Adiantum
Ans : (C)

13. Which is common between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration ?
(A) Similar substrate
(B) Glycolysis
(C) Pyruvic acid
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)

14. Turpentine oil is obtained from—
(A) Coal
(B) Petroleum
(C) Cedarwood
(D) Pinus
Ans : (D)

15. Which alga was used by Calvin and his co-workers in their experiments of photosynthesis ?
(A) Chlamydomonas
(B) Chlorella
(C) Chara
(D) Volvox
Ans : (B)

16. Which is an oilseed crop ?
(A) Marigold
(B) Chrysanthemum
(C) Rose
(D) Sunflower
Ans : (D)

17. The first transgenic plant used for commercial production was—
(A) Cotton
(B) Tomato
(C) Tobacco
(D) Rice
Ans : (B)

18. Rare hybrid plants can be saved by—
(A) Pollen culture
(B) Embryo culture
(C) Protoplast culture
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. Which is not a category ?
(A) Ecotype
(B) Species
(C) Genus
(D) Order
Ans : (A)

20. Linnaeus published his concept of binomial nomenclature first in—
(A) Systema Naturae
(B) Species Plantarum
(C) Genera Plantarum
(D) Philosophia Botanica
Ans : (B)

21. When chlorophyll is burnt which element is obtained ?
(A) Ca
(B) Na
(C) Mg
(D) Mn
Ans : (C)

22. Iron deficiency results in—
(A) Leaf tip necrosis
(B) Small leaves disease
(C) Decreased protein synthesis
(D) Intervenal chlorosis appearing first in young leaves
Ans : (D)

23. A phytohormone is—
(A) Naturally produced
(B) Synthetic substance
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

24. During the seismonastic movement in Mimosa pudica turgor changes occur in—
(A) Leaflets
(B) Stipules
(C) Pulvinus leaf base
(D) Petiole and stem
Ans : (C)

25. Evergeen trees remain green through the year on account of—
(A) Cold climate
(B) Absence of leaf fall
(C) Leaves falling in small number interval
(D) Supply of moisture throughout year
Ans : (C)

26. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is—
(A) 15 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(D) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
Ans : (C)

27. The damaged ozone layer is situated in—
(A) Ionosphere
(B) Mesosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (C)

28. Which one of the following is ordinarily not an air pollutant ?
(A) CO₂
(B) CO
(C) SO₂
(D) Hydrocarbon
Ans : (A)

29. Genes are made by—
(A) Histones
(B) Lipoproteins
(C) Hydrocarbons
(D) Polynucleotides
Ans : (D)

30. The term ‘ecosystem’ was proposed by—
(A) Odum
(B) Tansley
(C) Whitker
(D) Goli
Ans : (B)

31. The first juvenile larva of Ascaris is known as—
(A) Filiform larva
(B) Rhabditiform larva
(C) Miracidium larva
(D) Microfilariae
Ans : (B)

32. Chromosomes contain—
(A) Protein only
(B) DNA and protein
(C) DNA, RNA and histone
(D) DNA, RNA, histone and non-histone proteins
Ans : (B)

33. Which are phagocytes in liver ?
(A) Kupffer cells
(B) Aciner cells
(C) Diter cells
(D) Hensen's cells
Ans : (A)

34. Termites digest wood with the help of an enzyme secreted by the—
(A) Salivary glands
(B) Cells in the midgut
(C) Symbiotic protozoa
(D) Bacteria and fungi outside the body
Ans : (C)

35. In honeybee colony the drones are produced by—
(A) Fertilized eggs
(B) Unfertilized eggs
(C) Larvae fed upon leaves
(D) Fasting larvae
Ans : (B)

36. Jacobson's organ is concerned with—
(A) Smell
(B) Burrowing
(C) Touch
(D) Vision
Ans : (A)

37. Body organisation in Hydra is of—
(A) Tissue grade
(B) Organ grade
(C) Cellular grade
(D) Organ system grade
Ans : (A)

38. Leech obtains continuous blood flow from its victim by pouring in it—
(A) Heparin
(B) Hirudin
(C) Insulin
(D) Pepsin
Ans : (B)

39. Spicules of Sponges are formed by—
(A) Procytes
(B) Pinacocytes
(C) Scleroblasts
(D) Thesocytes
Ans : (B)

40. Heterocoelous centrum is a characteristics of—
(A) Amphibia
(B) Reptilia
(C) Birds
(D) Mammalia
Ans : (C)

41. The exclusively sedentary protochordate animals are found in the class—
(A) Pterobranchia
(B) Larvacea
(C) Ascidiacea
(D) Thaliacea
Ans : (A)

42. Cytopyge is found in—
(A) Paramecium
(B) Entamoeba
(C) Amoeba
(D) Trypanosoma
Ans : (A)

43. Littoral form of animals is found—
(A) In fresh water
(B) In sea water near the shore
(C) In deep sea
(D) At the bottom of the sea
Ans : (D)

44. Bladder worm is a larva of—
(A) Obelia
(B) Silkmoth
(C) Taenia
(D) Nereis
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following secretions associated with digestion does not have enzymes ?
(A) Bile
(B) Gastric juice
(C) Saliva
(D) Pancreatic juice
Ans : (A)

46. Yellow fever is transmitted by—
(A) Female Culex
(B) Female Anopheles
(C) Female Aedes
(D) Housefly
Ans : (C)

47. The covering membrane of the vacuole is known as—
(A) Tonoplast
(B) Cell wall
(C) Plasma layer
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. Age of fishes was known as—
(A) Devonian
(B) Ordovician
(C) Crustaceous
(D) Silurian
Ans : (A)

49. ‘Quartan malaria’ is caused by—
(A) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Plasmodium malariae
(C) Plasmodium ovale
(D) Plasmodium falciparum
Ans : (B)

50. The word ‘species’ was coined by—
(A) John Ray
(B) Mayer
(C) J. Huxley
(D) C. Linnaeus
Ans : (A)

51. An embryo of chick with 7 pairs of somites is—
(A) 20 hours old
(B) 22 hours old
(C) 24 hours old
(D) 18 hours old
Ans : (C)

52. In the mammals, cleavage result formation of solid mass of cells known—
(A) Blastula
(B) Gastrula
(C) Morula
(D) Neurula
Ans : (C)

53. F1particles are found in—
(A) Lysosome
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgi Body
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans : (B)

54. The name ‘polytene chromosome’ suggested by—
(A) E.G. Balbiani
(B) Kollar
(C) Heitz
(D) Bauer
Ans : (A)

55. Centriole is found in—
(A) Animal cells
(B) Red algae
(C) Prokaryotes
(D) Flowering plants
Ans : (A)

56. The first phylum of animal kingdom exhibiting bilateral symmetry is—
(A) Arthropoda
(B) Annelida
(C) Mollusca
(D) Platyhelminthes
Ans : (D)

57. The fresh water sponge is—
(A) Spongella
(B) Grantia
(C) Euplectella
(D) Euspongia
Ans : (A)

58. Flame cells are related with—
(A) Excretory system
(B) Digestive system
(C) Circulatory system
(D) Respiratory system
Ans : (A)

59. The intermediate host in the life cycle of F. hepatica (Liver fluke) is—
(A) Sheep
(B) Snail
(C) Man
(D) Bird
Ans : (B)

60. Vitelline membrane is found in—
(A) Birds
(B) Tunicates
(C) Fishes
(D) Mammals
Ans : (A)

61. Two-pigment system theory of photosynthesis was proposed by—
(A) Hill Emerson
(B) Emerson
(C) Blackmann
(D) Hatch and Slack
Ans : (B)

62. Photosynthetic pigments in chloroplast are embedded in membrane of—
(A) Thylakoids
(B) Photoglobin
(C) Matrix
(D) Envelope of chloroplast
Ans : (A)

63. The rate of photosynthesis is maximum in—
(A) Green light
(B) Blue light
(C) Red light
(D) White light
Ans : (C)

64. All energy is trapped in pigment system-1 in—
(A) ATP
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) NADH₂
(D) P-700
Ans : (D)

65. How many ATP molecules are produced, as a net gain, during the complete breakdown of glucose ?
(A) 36
(B) 28
(C) 12
(D) 18
Ans : (A)

66. Father of taxonomy is—
(A) De Candolle
(B) Hooker
(C) Linnaeus
(D) Aristotle
Ans : (C)

67. For entry in gene pool, a mutation occur in—
(A) Somatic cells
(B) Germ cells
(C) Plasma proteins
(D) Somatic DNA
Ans : (B)

68. Vessels diffier from tracheids—
(A) In being living
(B) In being derived from a single cell
(C) In having vertical row of cells and their cross wall dissolved
(D) Because they conduct water
Ans : (C)

69. Which one is true nut ?
(A) Walnut
(B) Cashewnut
(C) Groundnut
(D) Coconut
Ans : (B)

70. After transcription, the mRNA molecule—
(A) Disintegrates
(B) Moves into cytoplasm
(C) Replicates itself
(D) Reassociates to form its structure
Ans : (B)

71. Fossilization is also known by the—
(A) Acclimatzation
(B) Pasteurization
(C) Preservation
(D) Tyndallization
Ans : (C)

72. The branch that deals with the plants studies in the geological past is called—
(A) Pteridology
(B) Palaeobotany
(C) Neurology
(D) Archaeology
Ans : (B)

73. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany is situated at—
(A) Allahabad
(B) Delhi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)

74. In plants, largest egg is found in—
(A) Cycas
(B) Sequoia
(C) Pinus
(D) Selaginella
Ans : (A)

75. Which one of the following is an example of symbiosis ?
(A) Utricularia
(B) Agaricus
(C) Lichen
(D) Mango
Ans : (C)

76. Which of the following pteridophytes is known as ‘Horse-tail’ ?
(A) Rhynia
(B) Selaginella
(C) Equisetum
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

77. Marsilea is a—
(A) Homosporic pteridophyte
(B) Heterosporic pteridophyte
(C) Non-sporic pteridophyte
(D) Seeded pteridophyte
Ans : (B)

78. A plant bearing two types of spores is termed as—
(A) Heterospory
(B) Seed habit
(C) Homospory
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)

79. In Pinus present only—
(A) Male cone
(B) Female cone
(C) Male and female cones
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

80. Number of cotyledons found in the embryo of Cycas is—
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1
Ans : (B)

81. Bryophytes are—
(A) Aquatic
(B) Terrestrial
(C) Amphibious
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

82. Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte in—
(A) Algae
(B) Pteridophyta
(C) Fungi
(D) Bryophyta
Ans : (D)

83. In gametophytic phase of Bryophyta the last cell is—
(A) Gamete
(B) Spore
(C) Elater
(D) Zygote
Ans : (A)

84. In Funaria, the calyptra is formed by—
(A) Antheridium
(B) Columella
(C) Capsule
(D) Archegonium
Ans : (D)

85. A bryophyte differes from pteridophyte in—
(A) Archegonia
(B) Lack of vascular tissue
(C) Independent gametophyte
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

86. Acid rain is mainly a mixture of—
(A) Sulphuric acid and nitric acid
(B) Hexane and methane
(C) Acetic acid and bromine
(D) Ascorbic acid and citric acid
Ans : (A)

87. Ribosomes are sites for—
(A) Protein synthesis
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Fat synthesis
(D) Respiration
Ans : (A)

88. Pyramid of energy is—
(A) Alwayss inverted
(B) Always upright
(C) Sometimes inverted and sometimes upright
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

89. ATP is—
(A) An enzyme which brings about oxidation
(B) A hormone
(C) A molecule with high energy phosphate bond
(D) A protein
Ans : (C)

90. Which one of the following is not a feature of prokaryotic cell ?
(A) Absence of nuclear membrane and the nucleus
(B) Absence of cell organelles
(C) Absence of genetic material
(D) Absence of histone protein in the chromosome
Ans : (C)

91. Which one of the following is highly dangerous radioactive pollutant ?
(A) Phosphorus-32
(B) Sulphur-35
(C) Strontium-90
(D) Calcium-40
Ans : (C)

92. The indicator of SO₂ pollution of air is—
(A) Lichen
(B) Fern
(C) Black mould
(D) Moss
Ans : (A)

93. The founder of cell theory was—
(A) Wolf
(B) Rudolf Virchow
(C) Myen, Von Moll and Raspail
(D) Schleiden and Schwann
Ans : (D)

94. Fats in our body are formed when—
(A) There is little glycogen in the body
(B) Blood sugar level becomes constant
(C) Glycogen storage in liver and muscles is completed
(D) Intake of protein is high
Ans : (C)

95. Liver performs several functions. One of these functions is—
(A) Histolysis
(B) Digestion of proteins
(C) Glycogenesis
(D) Maintaining salt balance
Ans : (C)

96. Poison fangs of snakes are—
(A) Maxillary teeth
(B) Specialized structures
(C) Premaxillary teeth
(D) Vomerine teeth
Ans : (A)

97. Wings of butterfly, bird and bat are—
(A) Homologous organs
(B) Analogous organs
(C) Unrelated organs
(D) Vestigeal organs
Ans : (B)

98. ‘Ozone Day’ is observed on—
(A) January, 30
(B) April, 21
(C) September, 16
(D) December, 5
Ans : (C)

99. Which one of the following is the link between Annelida and Mollusca ?
(A) Archaeopteryx
(B) Peripatus
(C) Neopilina
(D) Coelacanth
Ans : (C)

100. The heartbeat is regulated by—
(A) Pacemaker
(B) Vagus nerve
(C) Sympathetic nerve
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

101. Which pair is correct ?
(A) Microlecithal eggs — Dipnoi
(B) Homolecithal eggs — Amphibia
(C) Mesolecithal eggs — Bird
(D) Centrolecithal eggs — Insect
Ans : (D)

102. The hypothesis of ‘Coupling and Repulsion’ for linkage was formulated by—
(A) Sutton and Boveri
(B) Bateson & Punnet
(C) T.H. Morgan
(D) W. Sutton
Ans : (B)

103. Balanoglossus is commonly known as—
(A) Earthworm
(B) Tapeworm
(C) Corn worm
(D) Tongue worm
Ans : (D)

104. In Drosophila, sex determination depends on—
(A) Y-chromosome
(B) X-chromosome
(C) Autosome
(D) X-chromosome & autosome both
Ans : (D)

105. Nonsense codons are—
(A) AUG, AAU, UAG
(B) GGU, AGU, AUG
(C) UAG, UAA, UGA
(D) GAU, AAU, GUA
Ans : (C)

106. In which stage does centromere divide in two ?
(A) Metaphase-I
(B) Prophase-I
(C) Metaphase-II
(D) Anaphase-II
Ans : (D)

107. Which animal is egg laying mammal ?
(A) Didelphys
(B) Macropus
(C) Pteropus
(D) Tachyglossus
Ans : (D)

108. An oil producing gland on the tail of bird is known as—
(A) Preen gland
(B) Mucus gland
(C) Green gland
(D) Sebaceous gland
Ans : (A)

109. A snake that is viviparous is—
(A) The Russell’s pitless viper
(B) The pit viper
(C) Rattle snake
(D) Kraits
Ans : (B)

110. A gland which is found on undersurface of the thighs of male lizard ?
(A) Sudorific gland
(B) Femoral gland
(C) Green gland
(D) Stink gland
Ans : (B)

111. Which of the following is not a path flagellate ?
(A) Leishmania
(B) Giardia
(C) Trypanosoma
(D) Noctiluca
Ans : (D)

112. The Glochidium larva of Unio—
(A) Is free swimming
(B) Is ectoparasite on fish
(C) Is endoparasite on fish
(D) Lives in bottom
Ans : (B)

113. The term ‘Plasmalemma’ was given by—
(A) C. Nageli & C. Cramer
(B) J.Q. Plowe
(C) Dancilli & Davson
(D) Robertson
Ans : (B)

114. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs—
1. Synthesis of lipids
2. Glycogenolysis
3. Sterol metabolism
4. Detoxification
Codes :
(A) Only 4 is correct
(B) 1 and 2 both are correct
(C) 2 and 3 both are correct
(D) All are correct
Ans : (D)

115. The innermost layer of egg albumen in birds is called—
(A) Inner thin albumen
(B) Vitelline membrane
(C) Dense alburmen
(D) Chalaziferous layer
Ans : (B)

116. In which one of the following is the anus absent ?
(A) Leech
(B) Roundworm
(C) Earthworm
(D) Flatworm
Ans : (D)

117. Which type of jaw suspension is found in mammals ?
(A) Autostylic
(B) Holostylic
(C) Craniostylic
(D) Hyostylic
Ans : (A)

118. Synthesis of urea in liver takes place by—
(A) Nitrogen cycle
(B) Krebs’ cycle
(C) Glycolysis
(D) Ornithine cycle
Ans : (D)

119. Sexual dimorphism is found in—
(A) Hydra
(B) Earthworm
(C) Ascaris
(D) Fasciola
Ans : (B)

120. Which of the following animals has a nervous system but no brain ?
(A) Amoeba
(B) Hydra
(C) Cockroach
(D) Earthworm
Ans : (B)

121. Aristotle’s Lantern occurs in—
(A) Asteroidea
(B) Echinoidea
(C) Holothuroidea
(D) Crinoidea
Ans : (B)

122. Neoteny is observed in—
(A) Ambystoma
(B) Alytes
(C) Sycon
(D) Sacculina
Ans : (A)

123. Kidneys are vital organs of the body because they help in—
(A) Regulation of body fluids
(B) Regulation of acid-base balance
(C) Removal of metabolic wastes
(D) All of these functions
Ans : (D)

124. The infective stage of malarial parasite is—
(A) Trophozoite
(B) Merozoite
(C) Sporozoite
(D) Cyst
Ans : (C)

125. Parasitic castration occurs in—
(A) Fasciola
(B) Nereis
(C) Sacculina
(D) Palaemon
Ans : (C)

R.R.B. Bhubaneshwar (A.S.M) Exam., 2009

(Exam Held on 30-8-2009)

1. Where is the Punjab Lalit Kala Academy located ?
(A) Muktasar
(B) Ludhiana
(C) Patiala
(D) Chandigarh
Ans : (D)

2. What does happens when water is condensed into ice ?
(A) Heat is absorbed
B) Heat is released
(C) Quantity of heat remains unchanged
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Which of the following gases is not a noble gas ?
(A) Zenon
(B) Argon
(C) Helium
(D) Chlorine
Ans : (D)

4. Which of the following diffuses most quickly ?
(A) Solid
(B) Gas
(C) Liquid
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

5. Which temperature in Celsius scale is equal to 300 K ?
(A) 30°C
(B) 27°C
(C) 300°C
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)


6. First Youth Olympic games will be held in—
(A) Japan
(B) China
(C) North Korea
(D) Singapore
Ans : (D)

7. Where was the capital of Pandya dynasty situated ?
(A) Mysore
(B) Kanchipuram
(C) Madurai
(D) Delhi
Ans : (C)

8. Tripitik is the scripture of—
(A) Jain religion
(B) Hindu religion
(C) Buddhishtha religion
(D) Muslim religion
Ans : (C)

9. Who is the author of ‘Adhe-Adhure’ ?
(A) Mohan Rakesh
(B) Prem Chand
(C) Nirala
(D) Pant
Ans : (A)

10. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments has included fundamental duties into the Constitution ?
(A) 42nd
(B) 43rd
(C) 44th
(D) 39th
Ans : (A)

11. Where is the Central Food Technology Research Institute situated ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Anand
(C) Ahmedabad
(D) Mysore
Ans : (D)

12. Which of the following is common in both, Buddhism and Jainism ?
(A) Nonviolence
(B) Violence
(C) Triratna
(D) Truth
Ans : (A)

13. Light-year measures which of the following ?
(A) Intensity of light
(B) Mass
(C) Time
(D) Distance
Ans : (D)

14. Which of the following gases is used for ripening the fruits ?
(A) Methane
(B) Ethane
(C) Ethylene
(D) Acetylene
Ans : (C)

15. Who among the following was involved in Alipore bomb case ?
(A) Aravind Ghosh
(B) P. C. Banerjee
(C) Bipin Chandra Paul
(D) Chandrashekhar Azad
Ans : (A)

16. Sikh Guru Arjundev was contemporary to which of the following rulers ?
(A) Humayun
(B) Akbar
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Jahangir
Ans : (D)

17. Besides hydrogen, which of the following elements is common in organic compounds ?
(A) Phosphorus
(B) Sulphur
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Carbon
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 18–21) Find the correct meanings of the words given below :

18. EWE
(A) Calf
(B) Female sheep
(C) Deer
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Buffalo
(A) Calf
(B) Baby box
(C) Baby bison
(D) Baby cow
Ans : (C)

20. Veneration—
(A) Esteem
(B) High respect
(C) Devotion
(D) Worship
Ans : (B)

21. Vicious—
(A) Remorseless
(B) Ferocious
(C) Kind
(D) Wicked
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 22–25) Choose the word / phrase which is nearest in meaning to the words in question :

22. Bizarre
(A) Colourful
(B) Odd
(C) Insipid
(D) Smart
Ans : (B)

23. Innuendo
(A) Narration
(B) Insinuation
(C) Insist
(D) Insutale
Ans : (B)

24. Salutary
(A) Welcome
(B) Discharge
(C) Promoting
(D) Remove
Ans : (C)

25. Fictile
(A) Fiction
(B) Moulded
(C) Fictitious
(D) Smooth
Ans : (B)

26. Solid Carbon dioxide is termed as—
(A) Soft ice
(B) Dry ice
(C) White ice
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. 1 kg of a liquid is converted into its vapour at its boiling point. The heat absorbed in the process is called—
(A) Latent heat of vaporisation
(B) Latent heat of fusion
(C) Latent heat of sublimation
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

28. Whether all the universities in the country should start online admission at all levels with immediate effect ?
(i) No, since all the students may not have access to the internet easily.
(ii) Yes, it may liberate the students and their parents from the long-standing problems of knocking at the doors of different colleges and standing in queue.
(A) Only argument (i) is correct
(B) Only argument (ii) is correct
(C) Neither argument (i) nor argument (ii) is correct
(D) Both the arguments, (i) and (ii), are correct
Ans : (D)

29. The product ‘Fair and Lovely’ is related to—
(A) WIPRO
(B) I.T.C.
(C) P & G
(D) H.U.L.
Ans : (D)

30. Should the Government make it compulsory for the private medical colleges to join the entrance test conducted by the Government ?
(i) No, private institutions should be empowered, so that they may decide their own admission strategy and improve their work-management.
(ii) Yes, all medical institutions, whether these are private or government’s, should adopt the same entrance standard.
(A) Only argument (i) is correct
(B) Only argument (ii) is correct
(C) Either argument (i) is correct or argument (ii) is correct
(D) Neither argument (i) is correct nor argument (ii) is correct
Ans : (B)

31. In case the President of India decides to resign, he will address his letter of resignation to—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Vice-President
Ans : (D)

32. The metal extracted from Bauxite is—
(A) Silver
(B) Copper
(C) Manganese
(D) Aluminium
Ans : (D)

33. The Cyclone represents a state of atmosphere in which—
(A) Low pressure in the center and high pressure around
(B) There is high pressure in the center and low pressure around
(C) There is low pressure all around
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

34. The ‘Ocean of Storms’ is the name given to—
(A) Atlantic Ocean
(B) Pacific Ocean
(C) A waterless area on moon surface
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. The capital of Pallavas was—
(A) Arcot
(B) Kanchi
(C) Malkhed
(D) Banavasi
Ans : (B)

36. Which Indian state was ranked as the No. 2 tourist destination in the world by LONELY PLANET?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Uttarakhand
Ans : (C)

37. How much water is contained in our body by mass ?
(A) 65%
(B) 70%
(C) 60%
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

38. What determines the sex of a child ?
(A) Chromosomes of the father
(B) Chromosomes of the mother
(C) RH factor of the parents
(D) Blood group of the father
Ans : (A)

39. The two civilizations which helped in the formation of Gandhara School of Art are—
(A) Indian and Roman
(B) Indian and Egyptian
(C) Greek and Roman
(D) Indian and Greek
Ans : (D)

40. ‘Thinkpad’ is a laptop associated with which among the following companies ?
(A) HP
(B) TCS
(C) Infosys
(D) IBM
Ans : (D)

41. The first summit of SAARC was held at—
(A) Kathmandu
(B) Colombo
(C) New Delhi
(D) Dhaka
Ans : (D)

42. The wire of flash bulb is made of—
(A) Copper
(B) Barium
(C) Magnesium
(D) Silver
Ans : (C)

43. The curves showing the volume pressure behaviour of gases plotted at different fixed temperatures are called—
(A) Isochors
(B) Isothermals
(C) V.T.P. Curves
(D) Isocurves
Ans : (B)

44. Project Tiger was launched in—
(A) 1973
(B) 1976
(C) 1978
(D) 1983
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 45 and 46) Attempt the question to the best of your judgement.

45. How many letters in the word TRYST have as many letters between them as in the alpha bet ?
(A) None
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans : (B)

46. From the alternatives, select the set which is most like the given set. Given set (23, 29, 31)—
(A) (17, 21, 29)
(B) (31, 37, 49)
(C) (13, 15, 23)
(D) (41, 43, 47)
Ans : (D)

Directions—What should come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series ?

47. 13 13 65 585 7605 129285 …?…
(A) 2456415
(B) 2235675
(C) 2980565
(D) 2714985
Ans : (D)

48. If ‘VEHEMENT’ is written as ‘VEHETNEM’ then in that code how will you code ‘MOURNFUL’ ?
(A) MOURLUFN
(B) MOUNULFR
(C) OURMNFUL
(D) URNFULMO
Ans : (A)

49. MOLLIFY is to APPEASE as APPURTENANCE is to ?
(A) Gratify
(B) Avarice
(C) Accessory
(D) Amend
Ans : (C)

50. Praduman is older than Janaki; Shreshtha is older than Chhama; Ravindra is not as old as Shreshtha but is older than Janaki. Chhama is not as old as Janaki. Who is the youngest ?
(A) Praduman
(B) Janaki
(C) Shreshtha
(D) Chhama
Ans : (D)

51. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row ?
(A) 29
(B) 28
(C) 30
(D) 27
Ans : (B)

52. Which number is missing ?
45389, ?, 453, 34
(A) 34780
(B) 8354
(C) 4892
(D) 3478
Ans : (B)

53. If in the word CALIBRE, the previous letter in the English alphabet replaces each consonant and each vowel is replaced by the next letter and then the order of letters is reversed, which letter will be third from the right end ?
(A) A
(B) C
(C) B
(D) K
Ans : (D)

54. How many such digits are there in the number 57683421, each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number, as they will be when arranged in descending order within the number ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) More than three
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 55 to 57) In the following question there are two words to the left of the sign (::) which are connected in some way. The same relationship obtains between the third word and one of the four alter-natives under it. Find the correct alternative in each case.

55. Medicine : Sickness : : Book : ?
(A) Ignorance
(B) Knowledge
(C) Author
(D) Teacher
Ans : (A)

56. River : Dam : : Traffic : ?
(A) Signal
(B) Vehicle
(C) Motion
(D) Lane
Ans : (A)

57. Session : Concludes : : ? : Lapses
(A) Leave
(B) Permit
(C) Agency
(D) Policy
Ans : (D)

58. If 16 = 11, 25 = 12, 36 = 15, then 49 = ?
(A) 14
(B) 20
(C) 19
(D) 17
Ans : (B)

59. Pick out the odd in the following—
(A) Ashok—Assam
(B) Poonam—Punjab
(C) Gyanendra—Gujarat
(D) Anjana—Rajasthan
Ans : (D)

60. KEATS = 25, SHELLEY = 35, BROWNING = ?
(A) 45
(B) 37
(C) 50
(D) 40
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 61 and 62) What approximate value should come in place of question-mark (?) in the following questions ?
(You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

61. (9321 + 5406 + 1001) ÷ (498 + 929 + 660) = ?
(A) 13•5
(B) 4•5
(C) 16•5
(D) 7•5
Ans : (D)

62. 561204 ×58 = ? ×55555
(A) 606
(B) 646
(C) 586
(D) 716
Ans : (C)

63. The difference between the greatest number and the smallest number of 5 digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 using all but once is—
(A) 32976
(B) 32679
(C) 32769
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

64. Area of a parallelogram whose base is 9 cm and height 4 cm is ……… sq cm.
(A) 9
(B) 4
(C) 36
(D) 13
Ans : (C)

65. The number which is neither prime nor composite is—
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)

66. The length of a room is three times its breadth. If the perimeter of the room is 64 cm, then its breadth is ……… cm.
(A) 64
(B) 32
(C) 16
(D) 8
Ans : (D)

67. Aditi read 4/5th of Tintin comic book which has 100 pages. How many pages of the book is not yet read by Aditi ?
(A) 40
(B) 60
(C) 80
(D) 20
Ans : (D)

68. What is the meaning of beckoned ?
(A) Summon by sign or gesture
(B) Did not signal
(C) Did not call
(D) Invite
Ans : (A)

69. A box contains coins (equal no. of every one) of rupee and half rupee, coins of 25 paise, 10 paise, 5 paise value, 2 paise value and one paise value. The total value of coins in the box is Rs. 1158. Find the number of coins of each value.
(A) 500
(B) 400
(C) 700
(D) 600
Ans : (D)

70. The area of a rhombus with diagonals 12 cm and 20 cm is ……… sq cm.
(A) 120
(B) 12
(C) 20
(D) 240
Ans : (A)

71. A piece of road is one kilometer in length. We have to supply lamp posts. One post at each end, distance between two consecutive lamp posts is 25 metres. The number of lamp posts required is—
(A) 41
(B) 51
(C) 61
(D) 42
Ans : (A)

72. There are 800 students in a class. On one particular day, if 1/10th of the students were absent, how many students were present ?
(A) 700
(B) 650
(C) 720
(D) 750
Ans : (C)

73. The quotient in a division is 403. The divisor is 100 and the remainder is 58, the dividend is—
(A) 40458
(B) 34058
(C) 43058
(D) 40358
Ans : (D)

74. A labourer was engaged for 25 days on the condition that for every day, he works, he will be paid Rs. 2 and for every day, he is absent he will be fined 50p. If he receives only Rs. 37•50, find the no. of days he was absent—
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 4
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 75 to 77) Choose the word/phrase which is most opposite in meaning to the word ?

75. Quixotic
(A) Visionary
(B) Whimsical
(C) Realistic
(D) Foolish
Ans : (C)

76. Rabid
(A) Mad
(B) Normal
(C) Furious
(D) Fanatical
Ans : (B)

77. Scurrilous
(A) Inoffensive
(B) Vulgar
(C) Insulting
(D) Coarse
Ans : (A)

78. Digits of first place and third place are interchanged of the numbers 349, 483, 766, 598, 674 and then the new numbers are arranged in ascending order. Which would be the fourth number ?
(A) 483
(B) 766
(C) 674
(D) 598
Ans : (D)

79. What least number should be added to 2600 to make it a complete square ?
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 1
(D) 25
Ans : (C)

80. When sun-light passes through a glass prism, which of the following colours refracts the most ?
(A) Blue
(B) Red
(C) Orange
(D) Green
Ans : (A)

81. If (78)2 is subtracted from the square of a number, we get 6460. What is that number ?
(A) 109
(B) 112
(C) 111
(D) 115
Ans : (B)

82. The difference between 28% and 42% of a number is 210. What is 59% of this number ?
(A) 900
(B) 420
(C) 885
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

83. A–B means A is the father of B. A + B means A is the daughter of B. A ÷ B means A is the son of B. A ×B means A is the wife of B. Then, what is the relation of P with T in the expression P + S – T ?
(A) Son
(B) Daughter
(C) Sister
(D) Wife
Ans : (C)

84. Ellora caves in Maharashtra were built during the rule of which of the following dynasties ?
(A) Rashtrakoot
(B) Pallav
(C) Pala
(D) Chola
Ans : (A)

85. But for the Surgeon’s skill, the patient ……… died.
(A) may have
(B) must have
(C) should have
(D) would have
Ans : (D)

86. I want to see the Principal, …… I have something to tell him urgently.
(A) so
(B) for
(C) since
(D) and
Ans : (C)

87. I wasn’t really listening and didn’t ……… what he said.
(A) catch
(B) receive
(C) accept
(D) take
Ans : (A)

88. The first division of Congress took place in—
(A) Surat
(B) Kolkata
(C) Allahabad
(D) Chennai
Ans : (A)

89. What is ginger ?
(A) Flower
(B) Root
(C) Stem
(D) Leaf
Ans : (B)

90. Battle of Kalinga was fought at which of the following places ?
(A) Udaigiri
(B) Dhauli
(C) Balasore
(D) Barabaki
Ans : (B)

91. MIG aircraft manufacturing plant is located at which of the following places of Orissa ?
(A) Beharampur
(B) Sunabeda
(C) Koraput
(D) Sambalpur
Ans : (C)

BUSINESS GENERAL KNOWLEDGE MCQs

1. Which currency has recently obtained its symbol?
(A) Nepali Rupee
(B) Indian Rupee
(C) Bangladeshi Taka
(D) Pakistani Rupee
Answer: Indian Rupee

2. What is Ibibo?
(A) A social network website
(B) A reality show
(C) A game
(D) A news paper
Answer: A social network website

3. Who has currently been selected as the Brand ambassador for Barbie doll?
(A) Aishwarya Rai
(B) Katrina Kaif
(C) Kareena Kapoor
(D) Priyanaka Chopra
Answer: Katrina Kaif

4. Which NGO is with associated promoting public and social issues in association with Tata Tea?
(A) Jaago Re
(B) Centre for Environment
(C) Jaago Behna
(D) Parivartan
Answer: Jaago Re

5. Arvind Kejriwal is associated with the promotion of which public cause?
(A) Chipko Movement
(B) Right to vote
(C) Right to Information Act
(D) Panchayati Raj
Answer: Right to Information Act


6. Which one of the following is known as ‘the moving advertisement?’
(A) Brand name
(B) Price
(C) Packaging
(D) Salesman
Answer: Packaging

7. Who is Ram Mohan?
(A) Well known animator
(B) Columnist
(C) TV anchor
(D) TV actor
Answer: Well known animator

8. Which one of the following is not an instructional tool (UGC question)–
(A) Overhead projector
(B) Transparency
(C) Cassette
(D) Printed material
Answer: Cassette

9. What is the name of the mascot of Commonwealth Games 2010–
(A) Sheru
(B) Shera
(C) Bholu
(D) Baghira
Answer: Shera

10. Which one of the following is not an advertising agency–
(A) Mc Can Erickson
(B) O and M
(C) FBC-Ulka
(D) ORG-MARG
Answer: ORG-MARG

11. The news paper based on government ownership–
(A) The Hindu
(B) Employment News
(C) The Times of India
(D) None of these
Answer: Employment News

12. This jewellery making company is the proud supplier of jewellery in the films’ Jodha-Akbar’ as well as crowns in the Miss India pageant–
(A) Sangini
(B) Aura
(C) Nakshatra
(D) Tanisq
Answer: Tanisq

13. This noted social activist is known for developing a self-reliant model village called Ralegaon Sidhi in Ahmandnagar of Maharashtra–
(A) Baba Amte
(B) Anna Hazare
(C) Medha Patkar
(D) Shiv Kheda
Answer: Anna Hazare

14. In the context of communication, wrong pronunciation is known as–
(A) Semantic barrier
(B) Technical barrier
(C) Social barrier
(D) None of these
Answer: Semantic barrier

15. Which TV news channel completed its 10 years recently?
(A) Aaj Tak
(B) IBN7
(C) Star News
(D) Zee News
Answer: Aaj Tak

16. Which regional cinema has recently completed its 50 years–
(A) Punjabi
(B) Bhojpuri
(C) Tamil
(D) Bengali
Answer: Bhojpuri

17. India’s most paid film actor–
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Chiranjeevi
(C) Rajnikant
(D) Shahrukh Khan
Answer: Rajnikant

18. ‘Incredible India’ campaign is related to–
(A) Ministry of Tourism
(B) Ministry of External affairs
(C) Ministry of Home affairs
(D) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
Answer: Ministry of Tourism

19. ‘Techno-Park’, India’s first park based on information technology is situated in this city–
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Bengluru
(C) Tiruanantpuram
(D) Mumbai
Answer: Tiruanantpuram

20. ‘Red Chillies Entertainment’, the films production company is owned by–
(A) Vijay Malya
(B) Shahrukh Khan
(C) Akshay Kumar
(D) Arbaz Khan
Answer: Shahrukh Khan

BUSINESS GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. Which of the following is not an online shopping portal?
(A) e-bay
(B) Ferns-n-petals
(C) Rediff Shoppy
(D) Sky Shop
Ans : (D)

2. ‘Big Bazar’ belongs to–
(A) Future Group
(B) Spencer’s
(C) Reliance
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. e-chaupal, the IT venture initiated to help the farmers in their agricultural production and marketing belongs to–
(A) Reliance
(B) ITC
(C) TATA
(D) Microsoft
Ans : (B)

4. Which one of the following is not a multi-national company?
(A) Coca Cola
(B) Cadbury
(C) AMUL
(D) Pepsi Co.
Ans : (C)

5. What is ‘Lifebuoy Swasthya Chetna’?
(A) An awareness campaign of Hindustan Unilever to promote hygiene I rural areas through soap
(B) An initiative of Lifebuoy soap makers to promote rural health
(C) A direct marketing initiative of Hindustan Uniliver
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)


6. ‘Advertising allowance’ is–
(A) The concession given by producer and supplier to the retailer
(B) The concession given by producer to the employees
(C) The concession given by producer to consumers
(D) Concession given by advertising agency
Ans : (A)

7. ‘Right to Education’ was implemented on–
(A) November 14, 2010
(B) April 1, 2010
(C) April 1, 2011
(D) January 1, 2011
Ans : (B)

8. After Smt. Pratibha Patil, the first citizen, who was the second to participate in the Census 2011 as an Indian national?
(A) Sonia Gandhi
(B) Manmohan Singh
(C) Devi Singh Shekhawat
(D) Hamid Ansari
Ans : (D)

9. What was the number of the Census 2011 in the sequence of national censuses?
(A) 20th
(B) 15th
(C) 10th
(D) 18th
Ans : (B)

10. The word’ rupee is written in how many languages on an Indian rupee?
(A) 17
(B) 10
(C) 15annel
(D) 5
Ans : (A)

11. This personality has found a place on the postal stamps of almost all the countries of the world–
(A) Nelson Mandela
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Yasir Arafaat
(D) The Queen of Great Britain
Ans : (B)

12. Contribution of Indian cinema in world cinema is–
(A) 10%
(B) 50%
(C) 73%
(D) 37%
Ans : (C)

13. This is a bear in the ‘The Jungle Book’–
(A) Balu
(B) Baghira
(C) Maggar
(D) Moghuli
Ans : (A)

14. Nollywood is the name of the cinema of this country–
(A) Nigeria
(B) The Netherlands
(C) Germany
(D) Namibia
Ans : (A)

15. Mc Donald Food company was launched in this year–
(A) 1955
(B) 1980
(C) 1991
(D) 2000
Ans : (A)

16. This commission recommended the revival of folk mediums and their use for development purposes–
(A) Chanda Committee
(B) Varghese Committee
(C) Joshi Committee
(D) Mc Bride Commission
Ans : (D)

17. ‘MNP’ is –
(A) Mobile Number Portability
(B) Maharashtra Nuclear Power
(C) Minimum Numeric Point
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

18. Who among the following is a freelance writer?
(A) Pushpesh Pant
(B) Yashwant Vyas
(C) Rajgopal P.V.
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

19. ‘Bharat Nirman’ is–
(A) Road construction project
(B) Publicity campaign of the central government
(C) A movie
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. Which one of the following is not a children’s magazine?
(A) Magic Pot
(B) Champak
(C) Nandan
(D) 4Ps
Ans : (C)

21. The newspaper which converted from a weekly into a daily in the year 1884–
(A) The Hindustan Times
(B) The Pioneer
(C) The Hindu
(D) The Times of India
Ans : (C)

22. The first Indian actress to find a place on the cover page of the prestigious ‘Time’ magazine–
(A) Hema Malini
(B) Zeenat Aman
(C) Parween Bobby
(D) Helen
Ans : (C)

23. TV channels CNN-IBN, CNBC Awaz and IBN7 belong to this network –
(A) Zee
(B) Star
(C) Network 18
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

24. What is ‘Wilfing’
(A) Surfing web aimlessly
(B) Purposeful web surfing
(C) Continuous web surfing
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

25. This country propounded the concept of ‘Small Economic Zone’ (SEZ)–
(A) India
(B) China
(C) Britain
(D) America
Ans : (B)


26. He is known for the live broadcast of Mahatma Gandhi’s death procession on All India Radio–
(A) Surojeet Sen
(B) Melvyn D’mellow
(C) Edward Murrow
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

27. The first news bulletin was radio was broadcast in this year–
(A) 1923
(B) 1925
(C) 1927
(D) 1929
Ans : (C)

28. Melvyl D’mellow of All India Radio received Prix-Italia award for this radio feature in 1964–
(A) Daastan
(B) In the Eye of Storm
(C) Lali and the Lion of Gir
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

29. This media organisation owns the maximum shares of the channel CNBC–
(A) UTV
(B) TV 18
(C) Star TV
(D) Zee TV
Ans : (B)

30. Full form of the TV channel HBO–
(A) Hollywood Box Office
(B) Home Box Office
(C) Home Broadcasting Organisation
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

31. Who designed the symbol of Indian rupee?
(A) D. Uday Kumar
(B) Ambika Soni
(C) Pranav Mukharjee
(D) P. Chidambaram
Ans : (A)

32. Which of the following personalities is very famous for his association with Twitter?
(A) Amitabh Bachchan
(B) Rahul Gandhi
(C) Shashi Thuroor
(D) M.S Dhoni
Ans : (C)

33. The model found recently dead in her flat in Mumbai–
(A) Nafisa Joseph
(B) Kuldeep Randhawa
(C) Viveka Babiji
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

34. Lapataganj, the popular TV serial on SAB TV is based on the stories of famous litterateur–
(A) Tarak Mehta
(B) Prem Chand
(C) Sharad Joshi
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. Vaka Vaka, the well-known theme song of FIFA was sung by–
(A) Remo Fernandez
(B) Shakira
(C) Lady Gaga
(D) Britney Spears
Ans : (B)

36. Which of the following has been an initiative of the Indian Railway to pay tribute to the concerned personality or to build awareness on the related topic?
(A) Mother Express, dedicated to Mother Teresa
(B) Sanskriti Express, dedicated to Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Red Ribbon Express, an initiative to build awareness on HIV/AIDS
(D) All these
Ans : (D)

37. The Khap Panchayats of Haryana, known for honour killings are similar to–
(A) Katta Panchayat of Tamilnadu
(B) Bhayyadi of Jharkhand
(C) Chaupal of Uttar Pradesh
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. What is ‘media-dark’ region?
(A) Regions where there in not much access of media
(B) Undeveloped regions
(C) Regions without electricity
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

39. The government authorised body to register any complaint pertaining to news–
(A) News Broadcasting Standard Authority (NBSA)
(B) News Broadcasting Association
(C) News Association (NBA)
(D) All these
Ans : (A)

40. News Broadcasting Association (NBA) is–
(A) An association of private TV news channels and broadcasters
(B) A government nodal agency for the regulation of news
(C) A news channel
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

South Asian Free Trade Area (SAFTA)

The most significant aspect of the 12th SAARC Summit (Jan 4-6, 2004) at Islamabad, the capital city of Pakistan, was the signing of a historic Agreement on Free Trade. The leaders of India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives, Nepal, and Sri Lanka have agreed upon to create a "South Asian Free Trade Area".

SAFTA has come into force since January 1, 2006 replacing South Asian Preferential Trade Agreement (SAPTA) which was operative among SAARC countries since December 7, 1995. SAPTA was the success of 9th SAARC conference held in New Delhi in 1995 where this new concessional trade system SAPTA was approved. SAPTA was the factor which really opened all positive possibilities to to establish SAFTA.

SAFTA presupposes abolition of all kind of trade and tariff restrictions. Ultimately it will pave the way for the creation of common market with common currency.

Seven SAARC member countries agreed upon to reduce tariff between 0-5% by 2016. The SAFTA agreement allows any states to pull out of any treaty at any time.

• Formation of sensitive lists.
• Outlining the products whose tariffs will not be reduced.
• Rules of origin.
• Revenue loss compensation mechanism for LDCs. (Bangladesh, Bhutan, Maldives and Nepal) by comparatively developed nations (India, Pakistan, and Sri Lanka).
• An arbitration council or dispute settlement body.
• India and Pakistan will reduce their tariffs 0-5% level within 7 years, while Sri Lanka gets 8 years, and LDCs like Nepal, Bangladesh, Bhutan and Maldives in 10 years.
• Each of the countries will create two sensitive lists, one of more developed countries and other for less developed countries. 
• A SAFTA Ministerial council with membership of commerce/trade ministers.
• A committee of Exports for the administration and implementation of treaty.
• Removal of barriers to the intra-SAARC investment, harmonisation of custom facilities transit facilities for intra-SAARC trade and simplification of procedure for visa.

Asian Development Bank (ADB)

ADB was established in Dec. 1966 on the recommendation of ECAFE (Economic Commission for Asia and Far East). The aim of this Bank is to accelerate economic and social development in Asia and Pacific region. The  Bank started its functioning on January 1, 1967. The head office of the Bank is located at Manila, Philippines. It is worth mentioning here the Chairmanship of ADB is always allotted to a Japanese while its three Deputy Chairman belong to USA, Europe and Asia. At present, 63 nations are partner members of ADB.

The principle functions of ADB are:

1. To make loans and equity investments for the economic and social advancement of its developing member countries.
2. To provide technical assistance for the preparation and execution of development projects and programs and advisory services.
3. To respond to the request for assistance in coordinating development policies and plans in developing member countries.

Asian Development Bank constituted 'Asian Development Fund'  in 1974, which provides loans to Asian countries on concessional interest rates. India started borrowing from ADB's Ordinary Capital Resources (OCR) in 1986.