CAREER JOURNAL Headline Animator

Sunday, 1 April 2012

Haryana Public Service Commission HCS (Executive Branch) & Other Allied Services Preliminary Exam

General Studies 
(Exam held on: 25-03-2012)

1.  During which decade did the population record a negative growth rate in India
     a) 1921-31
     b) 1911-21
     c) 1941-51
     d) 1931-41
HINT: During the decade 1911-21, a negative population growth rate of -2.91 per cent has been recorded due to outbreak of epidemic (plague) and natural calamities.
2.  Which Central Government Agency is responsible for the mapping and exploration of minerals?
     a) The Geological Survey of India
     b) Surveyor General of India
     c) National Mineral Development Corporation Ltd.
     d) Indian Bureau of Mines
3.  What is Gomia in Bihar famous for:
     a) Coal Fields
     b) Manganese Mines
     c) Fertilizer Plant
     d) Explosive Factory
HINT: Jharkhand’s Biggest explosives factory situated at Gomia.
4.  SEBI is a
     a) Statutory body
     b) Advisory body
     c) Constitutional body
     d) Non-statutory body

HINT: Initially SEBI was a non statutory body without any statutory power. However in 1995, the SEBI was given additional statutory power by the Government of India through an amendment to the securities and Exchange Board of India Act 1992. In April, 1998 the SEBI was constituted as the regulator of capital market in India under a resolution of the Government of India.
5.  Economic Planning is in :
     a) Union List
     b) State List
     c) Concurrent List
     d) Not any specific list
6.  Lahiri Commission was associated with
     a) Indsutrial sickness
     b) Minimum support prices of agriculture products
     c) Price structure of edible oils
     d) Handicraft export
7.  “Open Market Operation” is a part of
     a) Income Policy
     b) Fiscal Policy
     c) Credit Policy
     d) Labour Policy
8.  Which of the following is used for the measurement of distribution of income?
     a) Laffer Cureve
     b) Engel’s Law
     c) Gini Lorenz Curve
     d) Phillip Curve
9.  Automatic route to FDI implies that a foreign investor bring in his capital
     1. Without the approval of the FIPB
     2. By informing the RBI within one month of bringing in his investments
     3. By informing both the FIPB and RBI within one month of bringing in his/her investment
     4. By prior permission of the RBI
    Select the correct answer from the above
     a) 2 and 3
     b) 2 only
     c) 1 and 2
     d) 2 and 3
10. In the context of the Indian Economy consider the following pairs:
         Term                                       Most appropriate description
     1. Melt Down                -               Fall in Stock Prices
     2. Recession                -               Fall in Growth Rate
     3. Slow Down               -               Fall in GDP

      Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched
     a) 1 only
     b) 2 and 3 only
     c) 1 and 3 only
     d) 1, 2 and 3
11. In India which of the following is regulated by the Forward Markets Comission?
     a) Currency future trading
     b) Commodities future trading
     c) Equity futures trading
     d) Both Commodities futures and financial futures trading
12. Union Government has announced New Agriculture Policy in July 28, 2000. New Agriculturre
     Policy has been described as ‘Rainbow Revolution’ which includes :
     a) Green (Food Grain Production)
     b) Yellow (Oil Seeds)
     c) Blue (Fisheries)
     d) It would cover all aspects of the farm sector
13. Sensitive sector as defined by RBI includes:
     a) Capital market
     b) Real Estate
     c) Commodities
     d) All the above
14. The RBI is the apex body of Indian Financial System, which of the following functions are
      performed by the RBI?
     1. Monitoring money supply in the Economy
     2. Issues currency other than coins and one Rupees note.
     3. Functions as Bankers Bank
     4. Works as banker to the Government

        Select the Code:
     a) 1 & 2 are correct
     b) 1, 2 & 3 are correct
     c) 2, 3 & 4 are correct
     d) All of above are correct
15. Aam Admi Bima Yojana is an insurance scheme for rural landless household introduced by:
     a) National Insurance
     b) Life Insurance Co.
     c) UTI
     d) ICICI Life Prudential Co.
16. In India those farmers are called ‘Marginal Farmers’ who hold land upto:
     a) 1 hectare
     b) 2 hectare
     c) 3 hectare
     d) 4 hectare
HINT: In India, a Marginal Farmer means a cultivator with an unirrigated land holding upto one hectare  or  irrigated land holding upto half hectare.
17. Which one of the following is a measurement of central tendency?
     a) Median
     b) Standard Deviation
     c) Mean Deviation
     d) Variance
18. Which one of the following is NOT a measurement of location?
     a) Median
     b) Mode
     c) Range
     d) Mean
19. Combustion of a candle is
     a) Physical change
     b) Reduction reaction
     c) Endothermic reaction
     d) Exothermic reaction
20. Pure water is obtained from the sea water by :
     a) Filteration
     b) Distillation
     c) Evaporation
     d) All the above
21. The method that cannot be used for removing permanent hardness of water is:
     a) Adding Sodium Carbonate
     b) Disitillation
     c) Adding caustic soda
     d) Boiling
22. Heavy Water :
     a) Contains more dissolved air
     b) Contains more dissolved minerals
     c) Contains deuterium in place of hydrogen
     d) Contains organic impurities
HINT: Heavy water (deuterium oxide: D2O) contains deuterium, an isotope of hydrogen with a proton and a neutron for each deuterium atom.
23. “Fixation of Nitrogen” implies
     a) The liquification of nitrogen
     b) The conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into usefull compounds
     c) The conversion of nitrogen into amines
     d) The solidification of nitrogen gas into the atmosphere
HINT: The energy from lightning causes nitrogen (N2) and water (H2O) to combine to form ammonia (NH3) and nitrates (NO3). Precipitation carries the ammonia and nitrates to the ground, where they can be assimilated by plants.
24. The pH value of the solution obtained by complete neutralization of hydrochloric and sodium
     hydroxide solution will be :
     a) Exactly 7
     b) Zero
     c) More than 7
     d) Less than 7
25. Coloured glasses for goggles contain:
     a) Ferrous oxide
     b) Lanthanide oxide
     c) Nickel oxide
     d) Ferric oxide
26. Which of the following statement is NOT true for soap?
     a) Soaps are bio-degradbale
     b) Soaps cannot be  used in acidic medium
     c) Soaps form a white curdy precipitate with hard water
     d) Soaps are relatively stronger in their cleaning action than synthetic detergents
27. Which one is a viral disease:
     a) Cholera
     b) Typhoid
     c) Rabbies
     d) Whooping cough
28. Rubella virus cause:
     a) Chicken pox
     b) Measles
     c) Small pox
     d) Mumps
29. I’m tired. I’d rather __________ out this evening, if you don’t mind.
     a) don’t go
     b) not go
     c) not going
     d) not to go
30. Anthropologists are of the view that Haryana was known by his name because in
     Post-Mahabharta period lived:
     a) Abhiras
     b) Aryans
     c) Haryanvis
     d) None of the above
31. According to Delhi Museum Hariana “the Heaven on the Earth” dates back to:
     a) 1126 AD
     b) 1328 AD
     c) 1500 AD
     d) 1750 AD
HINT:  The Delhi Museum Inscription of the reign of Muhammad Tughluq (A.D. 1328) gives the name as  Hariyana ‘The very Heaven on Earth and where lies the city Dhillika (Delhi), built by the  Tomaras.
32. Haryana state was formed on 1 November 1966 on recommendation of:
     a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
     b) Indira Gandhi
     c) Sardar Hukam Singh
     d) Sir Chottu Ram
33. Haryana is a landlocked state lies between:
     a) 28 Degree 37 Minutes to 31 Degree 35 Minutes North
     b) 24 Degree 26 Minutes to 27 Degree 28 Minutes North
     c) 29 Degree 20 Minutes to 31 Degree 30 Minutes North
     d) 27 Degree 37 Minutes to 30 Degree 35 Minutes North
34. Population density according to 2011 census is
     a) 1002 people/per sqkm
     b) 642 people/per sqkm
     c) 573 people/per sqkm
     d) 945 people/per sqkm
35. Haryana has
     a) 5682 villages
     b) 6759 villages
     c) 4890 villages
     d) None of the above
36.  How many divisions the state is divided for Administrative purpose?
     a) 5
     b) 3
     c) 4
     d) None
37. Which of the District is not part of the Gurgaon Division?
     a) Faridabad
     b) Palwal
     c) Hisar
     d) Rewari
38. Haryana Board of School Education established in Sept. 1969 and shifted in 1981 to
     a) Sonepat
     b) Chandigarh
     c) Bhiwani
     d) Rohtak
39. Haryana has adopted New Sports Policy on:
     a) 15th August 2008
     b) 21st August 2009
     c) 26th january 2009
     d) 2nd October 2008
40. KMP stands for
     a) Kurukshetra – Manesar – Panipat Expressway
     b) Kundli – Manesar – Palwal Expressway
     c) Kurukshetra – Manesar – Pautodi Expressway
     d) Kurukshetra – Mahendragarh – Panipat Expressway
41. Haryana Industrial and Investment Policy – 2011 became effective in:
     a) 1-1-2011
     b) 26-1-2011
     c) 15-8-2011
     d) None of the above
42. Haryana Special Economic Zones Act came in existence in:
     a) 2006
     b) 2008
     c) 2009
     d) None of the above
HINT: In India, The Special Economic Zone (SEZ) Act, 2005 along with SEZ Rules came into effect on 10th February, 2006. The SEZ Act was enacted in Haryana on 23rd January 2006.
43. Literacy rate (%) in Haryana is:
     a) 70.75 percent
     b) 68.60 percent
     c) 62.50 percent
     d) 58.25 percent
HINT:  Either incomplete statement or wrong options.
         According to 2011 Census Literacy Rate in Haryana is : 76.44%
         According to 1991 Census, it is 67.91%  and here close figure is 68.60%
44. Arrange the sectoral growth in Haryana
     a) Service   -   Agriculture   -  Industry
     b) Industry  -   Service        -  Agriculture
     c) Agriculture   -   Industry  -  Service
     d) Service   -     Industry     -  Agriculture 
45. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme has been extended in the
     entire Haryana from:
     a) 1st January 2008
     b) 1st July 2009
     c) 1st January 2010
     d) None of the above
HINT: Firstly in Haryana, MGNREGA scheme was launched in Sirsa and Mahendragarh on 2nd Feb 2006. Further, this scheme was extended to Ambala and Mewat districts w.e.f 1st April 2007.The remaining districts of the State have been covered under the scheme w.e.f. 1st April 2008.
46. Average Yield per hectare of Wheat and Rice during 2010-11 in Haryana is estimated at:
     a) 4560kg for Wheat and 2750 kg for rice
     b) 4500kg for Wheat and 2700 kg for rice
     c) 4250kg for Wheat and 2750 kg for rice
     d) None of the above
47. Haryana State Annual Plan for 2011-12 approved by Planning Commision, Govt. of India is:
     a) Rs. 20158 Crore
     b) Rs. 20258 Crore
     c) Rs. 20358 Crore
     d) Rs. 20458 Crore
48. Which buffalo is called as Black Gold in Haryana?
     a) Bhadavari
     b) Niti-Ravi
     c) Mehsana
     d) Murrah
49. The Haryana Special Economic Zone came in the year
     a) 2005
     b) 2006
     c) 2007
     d) 2008
50. The Haryana Government’s Land Acquisation Policy,
     a) has decided to double, even higher in some areas, the minimum floor rate (MFR) payable
         for acquisition of land
     b) increase both the annuity amount payable over 33 years as well as its incremental annual
         hike and give bigger-size plots in case one’s residential property is acquired
     c) the affected farmers would alsobe offered Government jobs, industrial and commercial plots
     d) All the above
51. Barents Sea in the Arctic Ocean has been controversial over the maritime boundary for 40 years
      between which of the following two countries? The issue was resolved recently.
     a) Russia and Norway
     b) Norway and Finland
     c) Finland and Russia
     d) Russia and Denmark
52. Navanentham Pillay, a South African national of India origin was the first non-white women of the
     High Court of South Africa. What is her current profession?
     a) Judge of the International Criminal Court
     b) International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda
     c) United Nation High Commissioner for Human Rights
     d) United Nation High Commissioner for Refugees
53.  Consider the following statement:
     1. India and Japan agreed to a ‘sweeping’ liberalization of their bilateral tax regime during
         PM Manmohan Singh visit to Tokyo on 27th October 2010
     2. This is the first in releasing the Indo-Japanese comprehensive Economic partnership Agreement

        Which of the above statement are true?
     a) Only 1
     b) Only 2
     c) Both 1 and 2
     d) None of the above
54.  Consider the following statements about the Ayodhya verdict:
     1. 60 years the matter first went in to Litigation Luknow Bench of  the High Court of Allahabad
         ruled in majority judgement on 30th September 2010
     2. Disputed sites to be divided into three equal parts: one part goes to Suni Wakf Board, one
         to Nirmohi in Akhara and one part representing ‘Ramlalla Virajman’
     3. Status quo to be maintained at disputed sites for three month
     4. The bench which deleivered the much awaited verdict consisted of Justice Dharam Vir Sharma,
         Justice S U Khan and Justice Sudhir Agarwal

         Which of the above statement are true?
     a) Only 1
     b) Only 2
     c) Only 3
     d) All the above
55. Parliament has passed SBI (Amendment) Bill 2010 which changes the minimum level of share
     of the government in SBI’s equity
     a) from 51% to 55%
     b) from 55% to 51%                   
     c) from 74% to 51%
     d) from 55% to 49%

56. The Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh and Sonia Gandhi have launched the Adhar Project under Unique Identification Authority of India at tembli in Nandurbar District. Nandurbar is in which of the following states? 
     a) Gujarat
     b) Maharashtra
     c) Madhya Pradesh
     d) Tamilnadu
57. Recently UNO celebrated its 65th Anniversary on date:
     a) 20th Oct 2010
     b) 24th Oct 2010                                                
     c) 29th Oct 2010
     d) 27th Oct 2010
58. The governement has recently announced a Rs.1052 crore incentive package for critical export
      sectors including
     1. Textile
     2. Handicraft
     3. Leather
    Choose the correct answer from the below:
     a) 1 and 2
     b) 2 and 3
     c) 1 and 3
     d) 1, 2 and 3
59.  Who will be heading the National Inovation Council which will give shape to the government’s
       decision to observe the current decades ( 2000 – 2020 ) as the decade of the innovation?
     a) M S Swaminathan
     b) C Rangarajan
     c) Narayanamurthy
     d) Sam Pitroda
60. Who among the following has been honoured the United Nation’s Millennium Development Goals Award for 2010 for their work in using innovative approaches for poverty and hunger alleviation?
     a) BRIC
     b) WHO                           
     c) IBSA
     d) G-20
61. Harappan people had a common burial system which is proved by:
     a) The earth burial head of the dead normally laid towards the north
     b) The burial of commonly used items with the dead
     c) Both (a) and (b)
     d) The burial of the dead body in the sitting posture
62. In Vedic Period, the people called panis, were:
     a) Those who controlled trade
     b) Cattle-breeders
     c) Cowherds
     d) Ploughmen
63. In the Vedic Age:
     a) Polygamy was unknown
     b) Child marriage became prominent
     c) Widow could remarry
     d) Hypergamy was allowed
64. Bring the correct statement regarding the first Buddhist Council:
     1. Ananda and Upali laid down the Sutta Pataka and Vinaya Pitaka respectively
     2. Its proceedings were conducted in Sanskrit
     3. It was held during the life time of Buddha
     4. Its main purpose was to maintain the purity of Buddha’s teachings
     a) 1 and 4
     b) All of them
     c) 1 and 2
     d) 2, 3 and 4
65. The sacred books of Jains are called:
     a) Agama Sidhanta
     b) Angas
     c) Parvas
     d) Upangas
66. Who founded the Lingayat Movement?
     a) Basava
     b) Ramanuja
     c) Shankracharya
     d) Kamban
67. What was Abwab?
     a) Toll tax
     b) religion tax such as Zakat
     c) Tax on merchandise and custom duties
     d) Miscellaneous kinds of taxes like the house tax, grazing tax, irrigation tax etc.
68. The term used for measurement of land in the Delgi Sutanate Period was:
     a) Kismat-i-ghalla
     b) Ghalla-bakshi
     c) Masahat
     d) Ghazi
69. The earlier Vaishnava Bhakti saints from the South were:
     a) Alvars
     b) Nayanars
     c) Bhagavats
     d) Virshaivites
70. Identify the Vijayanagar coin which were in the circulation and were the most widely recognized
      currency all over:
     a) Dinnar
     b) Huna
     c) Panam
     d) Pagoda
71. Akbar did not construct:
     a) Purana Quila
     b) Agra Fort
     c) Allahabad Fort
     d) Lahore Fort
HINT: Purana Qila, situated on the banks of Yamuna in Delhi, was constructed by the Mughal emperor Humayun.
72. The main programme of the Red Sirts (Khudai Khidmatgars of Servants of God) organized by
      Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan in support of the Civil Disobedience Movement was
     a) To proceed on the lines of terrorist and revolutionary activities
     b) To propagate the Congress programme
     c) To resist the military operations of the government in the north-western frontier portion
     d) To setup an para-military organization
HINT:  In 1929, the Khudai Khidmatgars (“Servants of God”) movement, led by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, nonviolently mobilized to oppose the British in India’s Northwest Frontier Province.
73. The result of the Poona Pact was that the number of the seats reserved for the depressed
      classes out of general electorate seats were:
     a) Abolished
     b) Increased
     c) Retained in the same level
     d) Decreased
HINT:  A compromise between the leaders of caste Hindu and the depressed classes was reached on
         September 24,1932, popularly known as Poona Pact. The number of seats for depressed classes
         were increased from 71 to 148
74. Cripps proposal were rejected because:
     a) It refused to release all the arrested national leaders
     b) of the intention to partition India
     c) It suggested the formation of an interim government
     d) it refused to hand over effective power to the Indians
75. Who presided over the Cabinet Mission?
     a) Clement Attlee
     b) Sir P Lawrence
     c) Strafford Cripps
     d) A V Alexander
76. The Mountbatten Plan (June 3, 1947) was about:
     a) Guidelines for the formation of a Constitution for India by the Constituent Assembly
     b) Creation of fedral government
     c) A plan for controlling communal riots raising all over India at the same time
     d) The method by which power was to be transferred from British to Indian hands
HINT: When all of Mountbatten’s efforts to keep India united failed, he decided to chalk out a plan for the transfer of  power and the division of the country.
77. The first Muslim to be elected as President of the Indian National Congress was :
     a) M A Jinnah
     b) Maulana Azad
     c) Baddrudin Tyabji
     d) Whooping cough
78. The Non-Cooperation Movement was adopted by the Congress at a Special Session held at
      ________ in September 1920.
     a) Bombay
     b) Calcutta
     c) Wardha
     d) Allahabad
79. The Non-Cooperation Movement was called off by Mahatma Gandhi because :
     a) of Gandhi-Irwin Pact
     b) of mob-violence at Chauri-Chaura
     c) the Khilafat issue fizzled out with abolition of the office of the Caliph in Turkey
     d) the government accepted the demand in tow
80. Which of the following Fundamental Rights have been deleted from the Constitution through
      the Constitutional Amendment?
     a) Right against expolitation
     b) Right of freedom of religion
     c) Right of property
     d) Freedom of speech and expression
81. How many Fundamental Rights are enjoyed by the Indians?
     a) Nine
     b) Ten
     c) Seven
     d) Six
82. The basic difference between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is:
     a) Fundamental Rights are Positive while Directive Principles are Negative
     b) Directive Principles are given precedence over the Fundamental Rights by the Court
         in all the cases
     c) Fundamental Rights are justifiable while Directive Principles are not
     d) None of the above
83. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India has been described as the friend, philosopher and
      guide of :
     a) the Estimate Committee
     b) the committee of the public Undertaking
     c) the Public Account Committee
     d) all the Parliamentary committees
84. Part -V of the Constitution deals with
     a) Union executives
     b) Parliamnet
     c) Supreme Court and High Court
     d) Comptroller and Auditor General
85. If there is a vacancy in the offices of both President and Vice-President, who has been empowered
     to function as President:
     a) Chief Justice of India
     b) Chief of Army Staff
     c) A person appointed by Parliament
     d) None of these
86.  If president returns the bill to the legislature for reconsideration
     a) a re-passage of the bill by the two-thirds majority will compel him to give his assent
     b) a re-passage of the bill by the simple majority will compel him to give his assent
     c) a joint sitting will have to be called to pass it again
     d) the legislature must accept amendments proposed by the President
87. To whom does the President address the letter of resignation?
     a) the Prime Minister
     b) the Vice President
     c) the Speaker
     d) the Chief justice
88. Two houses of the Parliament enjoy co-equal power in all spheres except:
     1. Financial matters
     2. Responsibilities of the Council of Ministers
     3. Amendment Procedure
     4. Election of President
      a) 3 and 4
     b) 2, 3 and 4
     c) 1, 2 and 3
     d) 1 and 2
89. Impeachment proceedings against the President of Indian can be initiated
     a) by the Supreme Court
     b) only in the Lok Sabha
     c) in either House of the Parliament
     d) only in the joint sitting of the two Houses
90. Gulf Stream the most important current of the Atlantic Ocean takes its birth from the Gulf of Mexico.
     Its importance lies in :
     a) Cooling effect
     b) Warming effect
     c) Area of influence
     d) Influence on travel

91. Which of the following sub-races belong to Mongoloids?
     a) Bantu
     b) Eskimoid
     c) Nordic
     d) Alpine
92. Consider the following statements:
     1. The Masai is a tribe of settled cultivators who once wondered with their herds with the cattle
         in the central highlands of East Africa.
     2. The cattle kept by the Masaiare the “Zebu” cattle with the humps and long horns

      Which of the statement is/are correct?
     a) Only 1
     b) Neither 1 or 2
     c) Both 1 and 2
     d) Only 2
93. Which of the following are not the Pastoral Nomads?
     a) Pygmies
     b) Kazaks
     c) Masai
     d) Lapps
HINT:  Nomads are people who wander from place to place and have no permanent home. They usually travel  within certain general areas according to the seasons and the supply of food. Nomads generally live in tents and carry few belongings with them. There are three kinds of nomads: hunter-gatherers, pastoral nomads, and peripatetic nomads. Pygmies of Africa and Asia are Hunting Nomads, who follow the animals that they kill to eat.
94. The world’s most commercial fishing grounds are located in:
     a) Cool waters of the Northern Hemisphere in comparatively higher latitudes
     b) Cool waters of the Northern Hemisphere in comparatively lower latitudes
     c) Both above mentioned areas
     d) A widespread area near the Poles
95. Which of the following used to be considered a buffer state?
     a) France
     b) Switzerland
     c) Belgium
     d) West Germany
HINT: A buffer state is a country lying between two rival or potentially hostile greater powers, which by its sheer existence is thought to prevent conflict between them. The tiny kingdom of Belgium was artificially created in 1830 as a buffer  state between the surrounding countries of France, Germany, and the Netherlands. Alongwith  Belgium, Cambodian and Afghanistan also considered as buffer state.     
96. The Australian trans-continental railway joins
     a) Perth to Darwin
     b) Hobart to Perth
     c) Sydney to Perth
     d) Adelaide to Perth
97. When did the EEC( European Economic Community) change into EU(European Union)
     a) 1992
     b) 1995
     c) 1996
     d) 1991
98. Territorial waters of India extends up to
     a) 5 Nautical Miles
     b) 12 Nautical Miles
     c) 15 Nautical Miles
     d) 2 Nautical Miles
99. Which of the following river lies in the Rift Valley?
     a) Luni
     b) Chambal
     c) Son
     d) Tapti
100. Khaddar soils are found in:
     a) Piedmont Plains
     b) Flood Plains
     c) Over low Palteaux
     d) Over Steep Slopes

    1. b    2. a    3. d    4. a    5. c    6. c    7. c    8. c    9. c    10. d         
11. b    12. d    13. d    14. d    15. b    16. a    17. a    18. c    19. d    20. d       
21. d    22. c    23. b    24. a    25. b    26. d    27. c    28. b    29. b    30. a       
31. b    32. c    33. d    34. c    35. b    36. c    37. c    38. c    39. b    40. b       
41. a    42. a    43. b    44. a    45. d    46. d    47. c    48. d    49. c    50. d          
51. a    52. c    53. c    54. d    55. b    56. b    57. b    58. d    59. d    60. c          
61. c    62. b    63. c    64. a    65. a    66. a    67. d    68. c    69. a    70. d          
71. a    72. c    73. b    74. d    75. b    76. d    77. c    78. b    79. b    80. c
81. d    82. c    83. c    84. a    85. a    86. b    87. b    88. d    89. b    90. b         
 91. b    92. c    93. a    94. a    95. c    96. c    97. a    98. b    99. b    100. b  

Thursday, 29 March 2012

Capitals, Governors and Chief Ministers of States

States CapitalsGovernorsChief Ministers
(1) Andhra PradeshHyderabadMr. E.S.L.NarasimhanMr. N.Kiran Kumar Reddy
(2) Arunachal PradeshItanagarGen. (Retd.) J. J. SinghMr. Jarbom Gamlin
(3) AssamDispurMr. J. B. PatnaikMr. Tarun Gogoi
(4) BiharPatnaMr. Devanand KonwarMr. Nitish Kumar
(5) ChhattisgarhRaipurMr. Shekhar DuttDr. Raman Singh
(6) GoaPanajiMr. K. SankaranarayanMr. Manohar Parrikar
(7) GujaratGandhinagarDr. KamlaMr. Narendra Modi
(8) HaryanaChandigarhMr. Jagannath PahadiaMr. Bhupinder S. Hooda
(9) Himachal PradeshShimlaMs. Urmila SinghMr. Prem Kumar Dhumal
(10) Jammu and KashmirSrinagar (Summer) Jammu (Winter)Mr. N. N. VohraMr. Omar Abdullah
(11) JharkhandRanchiDr. Syed Ahmed Mr. Arjun Munda
(12) KarnatakaBengaluruMr. Hans Raj BhardwajMr. DV Sadananda Gowda
(13) KeralaThiruvananthapuramMr. M. O. H. FarookMr. V. S. Achuthanandan
(14) Madhya PradeshBhopalMr. Ram Naresh YadavMr. Shivraj Singh Chauhan
(15) MaharashtraMumbaiMr. K. Sankaranarayan Mr. Prithviraj Chavan
(16) ManipurImphalMr. Gurbachan JagatMr.Okram Ibobi Singh
(17) MeghalayaShillongMr. R. S. MooshaharyMr. Mukul A. Sangma
(18) MizoramAizawlMr. Vakkom PurushothamanMr.Lalthanhawla
(19) NagalandKohimaMr. Nikhil KumarMr. Neiphiu Rio
(20) OdishaBhubaneswarMr. M. C. BhandareMr. Naveen Patnaik
(21) PunjabChandigarhMr. Shivraj V. PatilMr. Parkash Singh Badal
(22) RajasthanJaipurMr. Shivraj V. Patil (Acting)Mr. Ashok Gehlot
(23) SikkimGangtokMr. Balmiki Prasad SinghMr. Pawan Chamling
(24) Tamil NaduChennaiMr. K RosaiahMs. Jayalalithaa
(25) TripuraAgartalaMr. D. Y. PatilMr. Manik Sarkar
(26) UttarakhandDehradunMs. Margaret AlvaMr. Vijay Bahuguna
(27) Uttar PradeshLucknowMr. B. L. JoshiMr. Akhilesh Yadav
(28) West BengalKolkataMr. M. K. NarayananMs. Mamata Banerjee

Aryavarta Gramin Bank Clerk Exam, 2011

General English 
(Held on 20-11-2011)

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Once upon a time, there was a stork that lived by catching fish from a particular tank. As the years went by, the stork grew older and weaker and its ability to catch fish diminished. At times it would even starve. The stork knew that it had to do something to survive.

One day it stood by the side of the tank with a very forlorn look on its face. The frogs, fish and crabs wondered why it was not trying to catch any food. A big crab asked the stork what the matter was. The stork answered that it was sad because all the fish in the tank were going to die and so it would have to starve. The stork said that it had heard that people were going to fill the tank with mud and grow crops over it. The fish were very worried and asked the stork to help them.

The stork offered to take all of them to a bigger tank some distance away. But it said that it needed to rest between trips because of old age. It would only be able to carry a few fish at a time.

On its first trip, the stork took a beakful of fish. It flew to a big rock and had a good meal. Thereafter, it rested for a while, and when it was hungry again, the stork took a second trip. In this manner, the stork took a trip each time it was hungry.

The big crab in the tank also wanted to save itself and it requested the stork to take it too. The stork thought it was a good idea to try a new dish. It agreed to take the crab on its next trip.

After the stork flew up with the crab, the crab looked down to see what the new surroundings would be like. All it could see was dry land. When the crab questioned the stork about this, the stork laughed wickedly and pointed to the rock below where the crab saw a heap of fish bones. The crab realized that it was to be the stork’s next meal. So the crab dug its claws into the stork’s neck and would not let go till the stork fell to the ground and died. The crab then cut off the stork’s head and returned home to show it to all the other fish and share the story of its adventure with the stork.

Directions—(Q. 1–3) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

(A) Confess
(B) Conclude
(C) Solve
(D) Dream
(E) Confuse
Ans : (B)

(A) Incident
(B) Decision
(C) Saviour
(D) Scheme
(E) Friendship
Ans : (A)

(A) Teasing
(B) Holding
(C) Detecting
(D) Sipping
(E) Eating
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 4–5) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

(A) Praised
(B) Developed
(C) Agitated
(D) Excited
(E) Lessened
Ans : (B)

(A) Serious
(B) Satisfied
(C) Wicked
(D) Helpful
(E) Cheerful
Ans : (E)

6. How did the crab kill the stork ?
(A) The crab dug its claws into the stork’s neck until it fell on the ground.
(B) The crab poisoned the stork’s meal at the rock.
(C) The crab starved the stork to death.
(D) The crab cut the stork’s head.
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

7. Why did the stork agree to take the crab along ?
(A) It wanted to try a new dish
(B) It wanted to prove that it was still young
(C) It wanted to save the crab
(D) It was blackmailed by the crab
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following can be the most appropriate title for the story ?
(A) The foolish fish
(B) The brave stork
(C) The crab’s adventure with the stork
(D) The innocent stork and the fish
(E) The lazy crab
Ans : (B)

9. Why did the stork have to remain hungry ?
(A) There were not fish in the tank.
(B) The stork’s capacity to catch fish had diminished.
(C) The stork had lost its teeth due to old age.
(D) The fish had learnt to trick the stork.
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

10. As per the stork what had the people being saying about the tank ?
(A) The tank would dry due to immense heat.
(B) The tank would be poisoned by the people.
(C) They would trap the fish and take them to aquariums.
(D) They would fill the tank with mud and cultivate crops.
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 11–20) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B) (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may either be misspelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

11. Will you be able (A) to obtain (B) the necessary (C) information immeediately. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

12. Although (A) I was angry, (B) I controlled (C) myself. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

13. He came (A) at a time (B) when I was (C) too buzy (D) to see him. All correct (E)
Ans : (D)

14. Have (A) you posted (B) the latter (C) to the lawyer ? (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

15. Every habbit (A) of the parent (B) was found (C) in the child. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

16. He is not (A) as intelligent (B) a man as I accpected (C) him to be. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

17. I did (A) not see (B) the and (C) of the play. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

18. It is indeed (A) very clever (B) of him to have reefused (C) to do the task. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

19. Due to unfourseen (A) circumstances, we shall have (B) to leave earlier (C) than planned. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

20. There (A) were several (B) questions before (C) the committee. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) in the proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph, and then answer the questions given below :
(1) These books are collectively called Euclid’s elements.
(2) Euclid has included his findings in one of the volumes of Euclid’s elements.
(3) Euclid is known as the father of modern geometry.
(4) This information was systematically presented by him in a set of 13 books.
(5) He complied information on geometry that was already available.

21. Which of the following should be the FOURTHsentence ?
(A) 5
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 3
(E) 4
Ans : (C)

22. Which of the following should be the LAST sentence ?
(A) 3
(B) 1
(C) 5
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (E)

23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence ?
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 2
(E) 5
Ans : (C)

24. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence ?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 1
Ans : (C)

25. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence ?
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 3
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is (E). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

26. If you does (A) / not work (B) / hard, you (C) / will not succeed. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

27. The candidate (A) / tried to convince (B) / the panel of the (C) / genuinely of his case. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

28. He ran so hardly (A) / that he (B) / was out (C) / of breath. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

29. Mohan was very (A) / concerned about (B) / is health which (C) / was deteriorating day by day. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

30. He dealing (A) / sternly (B) / with the (C) / offender. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

31. The man who (A) / was run on (B) / has been taken (C) / to the hospital. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

32. We started (A) / at a (B) / rapidity of pace (C) / towards the shore. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

33. She is (A) / the tallest (B) / of the (C) / two girls. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

34. He went (A) / to finding (B) / the buried (C) / treasure. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

35. No matter what (A) / they get some (B) / man always (C) / seem dissatisfied. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 36–45) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Dilip Kumar’s train was late and it …(36)… Mumbai a little after midnight. It was his first …(37)… to the city and the did not …(38)… where to go. He thought he would go to a dormitory where he would not have to pay any …(39)… but he did not know how to find one at that hour. He asked a porter to get him a cheap room. The porter asked him for fifty rupees, but Dilip waved him away and walked out of the station. He …(40)… through the streets and asked a number of people, but could not find a room cheap enough. He sat down on a bench in a park to …(41)… of what he should do next. He was very tired and fell …(42)… on the bench. He woke up the next morning, stiff on every limb, but he …(43)… when he …(44)… that it was the …(45)… night lodging that he had ever had.

36. (A) leave
(B) arrived
(C) halted
(D) reached
(E) went
Ans : (D)

37. (A) ambition
(B) visit
(C) parking
(D) rest
(E) check
Ans : (B)

38. (A) want
(B) know
(C) guess
(D) ask
(E) imagine
Ans : (B)

39. (A) rent
(B) interest
(C) lease
(D) allowance
(E) hire
Ans : (A)

40. (A) crept
(B) wandered
(C) across
(D) search
(E) go
Ans : (B)

41. (A) eat
(B) free
(C) think
(D) escape
(E) rest
Ans : (C)

42. (A) sound
(B) asleep
(C) above
(D) upon
(E) right
Ans : (D)

43. (A) amazed
(B) thought
(C) smiled
(D) cried
(E) shocked
Ans : (C)

44. (A) confusion
(B) reassured
(C) regretted
(D) realised
(E) resolved
Ans : (E)

45. (A) cheapest
(B) easy
(C) comfortable
(D) reliable
(E) free
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

46. They ……… very pleased to see us.
(A) foresee
(B) ignore
(C) find
(D) looks
(E) seem
Ans : (E)

47. The seating arrangement makes it difficult for the pupils to talk to ……… other.
(A) every
(B) among
(C) all
(D) for
(E) each
Ans : (E)

48. The university has ……… the government a lot of money.
(A) sanction
(B) cost
(C) asked
(D) labelled
(E) wasted
Ans : (C)

49. We ……… the whole day shopping.
(A) enjoy
(B) left
(C) had
(D) happened
(E) spent
Ans : (C)

50. I was sitting in a cafe, ……… for my friend.
(A) hoping
(B) knowing
(C) seeing
(D) waiting
(E) asking
Ans : (D)

Malwa Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2012

General Knowledge 
(Held on 8-1-2012)

1. Which of the following is one of the major functions of the RBI ?
(A) Maintain India Investment Fund created by the Govt. of India
(B) Act as custodian of the foreign exchange reserves of the country
(C) Appoint (CEOs) of the foreign banks in India
(D) Appoint Finance Secretary to the Govt. of India
(E) Decide exchange rates of currencies like Yen, Yuan and Dollars
Ans : (B)

2. Who among the following is a regulator of financial/banking institutes / organizations in India ?
(A) Indian Bureau of Standards
(B) Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC)
(C) Central Bureau of Investigation
(D) Institute of Chartered Accountants of India
(E) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Ans : (E)

3. Who among the following is the Union Minister of Commerce, Industry and Textiles at present in India ?
(A) Sri Anand Sharma
(B) Dr. Farooq Abdullah
(C) Sri Ghulam Nabi Azad
(D) Sri Kapil Sibbal
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

4. Which of the following terms is used in the field of Banking / Finance ?
(A) Reflex Action
(B) RH Factor
(C) Active Asset
(D) Amendment
(E) Statement of Fact
Ans : (C)

5. Which of the following is the period of the 12th Five Year Plan of India ?
(A) 2011–16
(B) 2010–15
(C) 2012–17
(D) 2013–18
(E) 2009–14
Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following books is written by Arundhati Roy ?
(A) India Wins Freedom
(B) The God of Small Things
(C) A Himalayan Love Story
(D) A Bend in the River
(E) Adversary in the House
Ans : (B)

7. What does the letter ‘R’ denote in the term ‘RTGS’ as used in the field of banking ?
(A) Real
(B) Reasonable
(C) Rotation
(D) Rate
(E) Repo
Ans : (A)

8. Bertrand Tavernier who was honoured by Life Time Achievement Award in 42nd International Film Festival of India in November 2011 is a citizen of—
(A) India
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Germany
(D) France
(E) Britain
Ans : (D)

9. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket ?
(A) Love
(B) Knock-out
(C) Deuce
(D) Silly Point
(E) Dribble
Ans : (D)

10. Which of the following is the sensitive index of National Stock Exchange ?
(A) Nifty
(B) Sensex
Ans : (B)

11. Who among the following is the Chief Minister of Rajasthan at present ?
(A) Sri Mukul Vasnik
(B) Sri Kamal Nath
(C) Sri Ashok Gehlot
(D) Sri Ashok Chandra Meena
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

12. Novelist Julian Barnes who won Man Booker Prize for his book recently is a citizen of—
(A) France
(B) Australia
(C) U. S. A.
(D) Britain
(E) Germany
Ans : (D)

13. Muammar Gaddafi who died recently was a political leader of—
(A) Egypt
(B) Syria
(C) Kenya
(D) Turkey
(E) Libya
Ans : (E)

14. Steve Jobs was associated with which of the following fields ?
(A) Computers
(B) Sports
(C) Films
(D) Politics
(E) Literature
Ans : (A)

15. Nobel Prizes, which were announced recently, are not given in the field of—
(A) Physics
(B) Chemistry
(C) Medicine
(D) Economics
(E) Civil Administration
Ans : (E)

16. The 51st National Open Athletics Championship was held in September 2011 in—
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Mumbai
(C) Delhi
(D) Kolkata
(E) Ranchi
Ans : (D)

17. Which of the following is grown in Maharashtra in abundance ?
(A) Black Pepper
(B) Tea
(C) Jute
(D) Cotton
(E) Rubber
Ans : (D)

18. Govt. of India has made a special agreement with U.S.A. to develop which of the following modes of power generation in India ?
(A) Hydro power
(B) Thermal power
(C) Wind power
(D) Nuclear power
(E) All of these
Ans : (D)

19. Which of the following is a programme to develop Health Services in Rural India ?
Ans : (C)

20. Head Office of which of the following banks is in Delhi ?
(A) Punjab National Bank
(B) Bank of India
(C) UCO Bank
(D) Corporation Bank
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

21. The Cattle Mela takes place in which of the following cities in Rajasthan ?
(A) Jodhpur
(B) Bharatpur
(C) Bikaner
(D) Jaipur
(E) Pushkar
Ans : (B)

22. Which of the following is the biggest stock exchange of India where maximum number of transactions take place every day ?
(A) Delhi
(B) Ahmedabad
(C) Mumbai
(D) Bengaluru
(E) Kolkata
Ans : (C)

23. The Atomic Power Station is located in which of the following places in Karnataka ?
(A) Kaiga
(B) Trombay
(C) Mangalore
(D) Hassan
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

24. Which of the following is the abbreviated name of the organization working for the welfare of the children ?
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

25. The World Environment Day is observed on which of the following days ?
(A) July 25
(B) June 5
(C) April 5
(D) December 15
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

26. Saina Nehwal who was in news recently is associated with the game of—
(A) Football
(B) Badminton
(C) Basket Ball
(D) Hockey
(E) Chess
Ans : (B)

27. Who amongst the following is a member of SAARC ?
(A) Indonesia
(B) Pakistan
(C) Kuwait
(D) Iraq
(E) Fiji
Ans : (B)

28. Who amongst the following is the author of the book Diamond Dust and Other Stories ?
(A) Amrita Pritam
(B) Mulkraj Anand
(C) Anita Desai
(D) Chetan Bhagat
(E) Khushwant Singh
Ans : (C)

29. ‘Subrato Cup’ is associated with the game of—
(A) Cricket
(B) Badminton
(C) Hockey
(D) Football
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

30. Which of the following instruments is normally used by the medical professionals ?
(A) Stroboscope
(B) Stethoscope
(C) Photometer
(D) Thermoscope
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

31. Polio is caused by a—
(A) Fungus
(B) Bacteria
(C) Virus
(D) Either (A) or (B)
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

32. Pulitzer Prize is given for contribution in the field of—
(A) Literature
(B) Sports
(C) Politics
(D) Cinema
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

33. ‘Taka’ is the monetary unit of—
(A) Saudi Arabia
(B) Iraq
(C) Kuwait
(D) Afghanistan
(E) Bangladesh
Ans : (E)

34. Who among the following is the Vice President of India at present ?
(A) Ms. Meira Kumar
(B) Smt. Sonia Gandhi
(C) Mr. M. Hamid Ansari
(D) Sri Rajiv Shukla
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. Which is the name of a country ?
(A) Lira
(B) Euro
(C) Peso
(D) Botswana
(E) Londo
Ans : (D)

36. Which of the following terms is used in the field of Physics ?
(A) Quarrying
(B) Herbal
(C) Halite
(D) Radiation
(E) Fern
Ans : (D)

37. Which of the following is the Capital of Vietnam ?
(A) Jakarta
(B) Manila
(C) Hanoi
(D) Prague
(E) Suva
Ans : (C)

38. Economy of which of the following countries is passing through a crisis and the Govt. is seeking help of European Union countries to stabilize the same ?
(A) Greece
(B) Russia
(C) China
(D) Japan
(E) Canada
Ans : (A)

39. Which of the following is not a metal ?
(A) Gold
(B) Silver
(C) Zinc
(D) Copper
(E) Sulphur
Ans : (E)

40. Who among the following is the President of Italy at present ?
(A) Michael D. Higgins
(B) Giorgio Napolitano
(C) Mario Monti
(D) Joe Biden
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

41. ‘Manhattan’ is a town/city in—
(A) United Kingdom
(B) Canada
(C) Australia
(D) Japan
(E) U.S.A.
Ans : (E)

42. Term ‘Insider Trading’ is associated with—
(A) Stock markets
(B) Defence services
(C) Parliamentary procedures
(D) Book publishing business
(E) Sports
Ans : (A)

43. Which of the following agencies/bodies controls Football matches at international levels ?
Ans : (A)

44. Which of the following Awards is given to a Sportsperson for his/her excellent performance ?
(A) Kalidas Sanman
(B) Arjuna Award
(C) Dadasaheb Phalke Award
(D) Saraswati Puraskar
(E) Dronacharya Award
Ans : (B)

45. Who amongst the following was the captain of the Indian team which won ICC Cricket World Cup ?
(A) Virender Sehwag
(B) Yuvraj Singh
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D) Yusuf Pathan
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

46. Which of the following films is directed by Karan Johar for which he got Filmfare Award for Best Director 2011 ?
(A) Rockstar
(B) Ra-One
(C) Dhobi Ghat
(D) Chalo Dilli
(E) My Name is Khan
Ans : (E)

47. Who amongst the following is a famous Lawn Tennis player and has represented India in many Sports events ?
(A) Anjali Bhagwat
(B) Sunita Rani
(C) Mayookha Johny
(D) Anju Bobby George
(E) Sania Mirza
Ans : (E)

48. Which of the following is not an anti poverty scheme launched by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Bharat Nirman
(B) MG National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(C) Annapurna Yojana
(D) Antyodaya Yojana
(E) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana
Ans : (C)

49. Who amongst the following is a famous Author ?
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Kiran Desai
(C) Ms. Meira Kumar
(D) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
(E) Neha Dhupia
Ans : (B)

50. What is the full form of ‘IMF’ ?
(A) Indian Money Fund
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) International Money Forum
(D) Institute of Money and Finance
(E) Indian Monetary Fund
Ans : (B)

Sunday, 4 March 2012

Delhi Police Constable Driver Exam 2009 Drivers Exam Paper

1. A number is greater than 7 but less than 19. It is also greater than 17 but less than 33. The number is?

(A) 19

(B) 18

(C) 31

(D) None of these

2. In a ‘Left Hand Drive’ vehicle, the steering wheel is located on the ?

(A) Left hand side

(B) In the centre

(C) Right hand side

(D) None of these

3. While driving in the city at night, the headlight should normally be kept?

(A)       Switched off

(B)       At low beam

(C)       At high beam

(D)       None of these

4.. In a round-about, who has the right of way?

(A) The traffic to your right

(B) The traffic to your left

(C) The faster moving vehicle

(D) All of the above

5. If there are 3 lanes in a carriage way, the overtaking lane is usually on the?

(A) On the left side

(B) In the middle

(C) On the right side

(D) None of the above

6. Before leaving a parked vehicle, you should

(A) Turn the ignition key off

(B) Stop the engine, lock the ignition, remove the key, and set the hand brake

(C) Stop the engine and lock the car

(0) None of the above

7. Double solid tines in the middle of the road indicate

(A) You may cross over while overtaking

(B) You may not cross over the lines unless there is an obstruction

(C) No overtaking

(D) One way traffic only

8. Flashing yellow light means?

(A) Slow down and proceed with caution

(B) Stop, if possible to do so safely

(C) Continue at the same speed

(D) None of the above

9. To top up the batterymeans?

(A) Acid is to be filled

(B) Distilled water is to be filled

(C) Mixture of both

(D) Mixture of distilled water and coolant is to be filled

10. The braking action has reduced after washing the vehicle, what can be done?

(A) Have the brakes adjusted at a workshop

(B) The vehicle is unserviceable and must be withdrawn from the traffic at once

(C) Normal braking action can be restored by operating the brakes several times at a slow driving speed

(D) None of the above

11. Ravi buys a bicycle for Rs. 1200 and later sells it to Ganesh at a loss of Rs. 200. Ganesh then sells it to Irfan for a loss of 10% . How much did Irfan pay for the bicycle?

(A) Rs.1100

(B) Rs. 950

(C) Rs. 1000

(D) Rs. 900

12. Petrol engine : Spark plug

Diesel engine:?

(A) Piston rings

(B) Crankshaft

(C) Heater plug

(D) Distributor

13. A bus leaves for Bhopal from Delhi every 40 min The last bus for Bhopal left 15 minutes back and right now it is 11-25 AM. At what time will the next bus for Bhopal leave?

(A) 11:50A.M.

(B) 12-05P.M.

(C) 11-40 A.M.

(D) 11-45 P.M.

14. The distance between Delhi and Lucknow is 520 km. A train has covered 70 km in the first hour. What will the total time taken for the journey if the train goes at a speed of 90 km per hour for the remaining distance?

(A) 5 hrs.

(B) 7 hrs.

(C) 5 hrs. 30 min

(D) 6hrs.

15. Mandatory traffic signs are in which shape?

(A) Triangle

(B) Circle

(C) Rectangle

(D) Can be of any shape

16. The choke can be used if the

engine is?

(A) Hot

(B) Cold

(C) Giving Smoke

(D)All of the above

17. In cold climate, kerosene can be mixed with?

(A) Petrol

(B) Diesel


(D) All of the above

18. Every time engine oil is changed……must also be changed.

(A) Transmission oil

(B) Coolant

(C) Brake oil

(D) Oil filter

19. Informatory signs are usually in shape.

(A) Circle

(B) Triangle

(C) Rectangle

(D) No particular shape

20. 10% of the potatoes bought by a trader turned out to be rotten. He sold the rest of them for a profit of 20%. What per cent profit did he make on the whole deal?


(B) 12%


(D) 6%

21. Ustad Zakir Hussain is associated   with the—


(B) Sitar


(D) Flute

22. Amartya Sen is a famous Indian

(A)       Musician

(B)       Businessman

(C)       Economist

(D)       None of these

23. Overtaking from left side of another vehicle is permitted:

(A) Always

(B) Only when the driver ahead of you gives a signal

(C) Only when the vehicle ahead is going to take right turn and if there is no obstruction on left

(D) Only if you are in the left lane

24. The carburettor is found in—

(A) Diesel engine

(B) Petrol engine

(C) Both types of engines

(D) None of the above

25. Emperor Ashok was shocked by the pain and suffering he saw in the?

(A) Baffle of Plassey

(B) Magadha wars

(C) Battle of Lumbini

(D) Kalinga war

26.The vacuum booster in a vehicle is used to assist the—

(A)       Power

(B)       Braking

(C)       Fuel consumption

(D)       None of the above

27. The term of a member of the Rajya Sabha is for ?

(A) 5 years

(B) 6 years

(C) 4 years

(D) None of the above

28. The central office of the Reserve Bank of India is in?

(A) New Delhi

(B) Mumbai

(C) Kolkata

(D) Chennai

29. Complete the series:

23, 40, 57…….


(B) 80


(D) 93

Directions—(Q 30 to 33)

Find  the odd one out:

30. (A) Cow

(B) Goat

(C) Camel

(D) Dog

31. (A) Petrol

(B) Wood

(C) Diesel


32. (A) Sun

(B) Moon

(C) Rainbow

(D) Stars


(B) Potato


(D) Grapes

34. When starting a car, the accelerator should—

(A) Be kept pressed down fully

(B) Be pumped rapidly

(C) Normally not be pressed at all

(D) None of the above

35. Talking on the mobile phone while driving—

(A) Is permitted if a hands-free kit is used

(B) Is prohibited

(C) Is permitted if you are driving within the speed limit

(D) None of the above

36. A driving license issued in Rajasthan is valid

(A) Only in Rajasthan

(B) In Rajasthan and adjoining states

(C) All over India

(D) In all states of North India

37.Our body is made up predominantly of?


(B) Muscle


(D) Water

38. Which of these is not an eco friendly power source?

(A) Solar power

(B) Wind power

(C) Coal

(D) None of the above

39. Who has the right of way in the hills ?

(A) The vehicle going uphill

(B) The vehicle going downhill

(C) The heavier vehicle

(D) Depends on the situation

40. Which types of brakes are found in modern vehicles?

(A) Drum brakes

(B) Disc brakes

(C) Both of the above

(D) None of the above

41. Engine oil should be checked?

(A) When the engine is cold and vehicle is level

(B) When the engine is warm

(C) While the engine is running

(D) All of the above

42. Saina Nehwal is associated with ?


(B) Badminton

(C) Swimming

(D) Chess

43. The Delhi Police Act came into effect in the year?

(A)       1861

(B)       1951

(C)       1978

(D)      1975

44. Using a pressure horn

(A) Helps to clear the road

(B) Should be avoided at night

(C) Is illegal

(D) Is allowed only for  VIP vehicles

45. India is a member of?



(C) UN Security Council

(D) All of the above

46…….. is the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.

(A) Deputy Speaker of LokSabha

(B) Vice-President of India

(C) Attorney General

(D) None of the above

47. A car runs 2480 km on 310 litres of petrol during the first 15 days of the month. During the next 15 days, it travels 2560 km on 320 litres of petrol. What is the distance travelled per litre during the entire month?

(A) 9 km

(B) 7 km

(C) 8.4 km

(D) 8 km

48. Abhinav Bindra won the Olympic gold medal in?


(B) Chess


(D) Shooting

49. The port of Vishakhapatnam is on the coast of?

(A) The Bay of Bengal

(B) The Arabian Sea

(C) The Gulf of Khambat

(D) The Palk Straits

50………… is famous for its marble.

(A) Ranchi

(B) Makrana

(C) Bokaro

(D) Madurai

51. The oldest football tournament in India is the?

(A) Santosh Trophy

(B) Ranji Trophy

(C) Durand Cup

(D) None of these

52.The……. links jammu to the kashmir valley.

(A) Rohtang Pass

(B) Baralacha Tunnel

(C) Jawahar Tunnel

(D) Sela Pass

53. The Arnarnath cave is situated in?

(A)Jammu & Kashmir

(B)Himachal Pradesh



54. Registration numbers of private cars are written in?

(A) Black letters on white back ground

(B) White letters on black back ground

(C) Black letters on yellow back ground

(D) Yellow letters on black back ground

55. The minimum age for applying for a learners license is—

(A) 21 years

(B) 18 years

(C) 16 years

(D) None of the above

56. A person who has consumed alcoholic drinks can drive if?

(A) He thinks he can control the car

(B) His house is close by

(C) He is an expert driver

(D) None of the above

57. A water tank has a capacity of 400 litres. It gets half-filled by putting 10 buckets of water in it. What is thecapacity of the bucket?

(A)10 litres

(B) 15 litres

(C)40 litres

(D) 20 litres

58. Keeping one foot on the clutch

(A) Helps in relaxing the leg

(B) Helps in changing gears

(C) Is a bad habit

(D) None of the above

59. Where is the famous Sun Temple located?


(B) Mathura


(D) Calicut

60. A flashing red light means—

(A) Stop, and wait for the light to turn green

(B) Stop, and proceed when it is safe to do so

(C) Slow down the check for oncoming traffic and proceed when it is safe

(D) None of the above

61. It is illegal to park—

(A) On a footpath

(B) On a bridge or inside a tunnel

(C) In a bicycle lane

(D) All of the above

62. Your vehicle is involved in an accident hurting people, you should—

(A) Report to the nearest police station, and take the persons to the hospital

(B) First take the injured people to the hospital and then report to the police station

(C) Need not report to the police station but should take the persons to the hospital

(D) Inform PCR on 100 and continue your journey

63. Which lane must you be in, while making a right turn?

(A) Any lane

(B) Extreme left lane

(C) Extreme right lane

(D) Middle lane

64. While driving on a wet slippery road

(A) lyre pressure must be reduced

(B) Sudden braking or acceleration must be avoided

(C) Vehicle should be driven at a high speed

(D) All of the above

65. To drive a vehicle with expired insurance, one

(A) Shall drive cautiously to avoid any accident and subse quent loss to the third party

(B) Shall not drive in any case

(C) May drive if insurance policy covering the drivers personal insurance is valid

(D) All of the above

66. With which country did India sign a nuclear accord in 2008?




(D) Germany

67. Who built the Red Port?

(A) Akbar

(B) Aurangzeb

(C) .Jehangir

(D) Shah Jahan

68. Who is the President of Pakistan?

(A) General Kayani

(B) Pervez Musharraf

(C) Vusuf Gilani

(D) A. A. Zardari

69. The latest differences between the Ambani brothers are over?

(A) Natural gas

(B) Cotton textiles

(C) Mobile ptiones

70. The Kaziranga Wildlife Sanctuary is famous for its—

(A) Rhinocerous

(B) White Tigers

(C) Ghariyal

(D) Great Indian Bustard

71. The electric current in our households is—

(A) 220 volt AC

(B) 220 volt DC

(C) 440 volt AC

(D) None of these

72. Itanagar is the capital of?

(A) Mizoram

(B) Iripura

(C) Arunachal Pradesh

(D) Meghalaya

73. Car : Petrol: : Torch: ?

(A) Plastic

(B) Bulb

(C) Cell

(D) None of these

74.Neighborhood :  House::Student. : ?

(A) Class

(B) Books

(C) Uniform

(D) None of these

75 …..:Deer :: Cow :Grass





76.Shared Needle:…..::Mosquito Bite : Malaria.

(A) Pain

(B) Injection


(D) Cancer

77. Cassette Tape : Audio ::

? : Digital Picture.

(A)       Photo film

(B)       Camera

(C)       Computer

(D)       None of these

Answers :

1          B

2          A

3          B

4          A

5          C

6          B

7          C

8          A

9          B

10        C

11        D

12        B

13        A

14        D

15        D

16        B

17        B

18        D

19        C

20        C

21        C

22        C

23        C

24        B

25        D

26        B

27        B

28        B

29        A

30        D

31        B

32        C

33        B

34        C

35        B

36        C

37        D

38        C

39        A

40        C

41        A

42        B

43        C

44        C

45        B

46        B

47        D

48        D

49        A

50        B

51        C

52        C

53        A

54        A

55        B

56        D

57        D

58        C

59        C

60        B

61        D

62        B

63        C

64        B

65        B

66        B

67        D

68        D

69        A

70        A

71        A

72        C

73        C

74        A

75        B

76        C

77        A

Monday, 13 February 2012

UPPCS Prelims Geography Question Paper 2011

(Exam Held On: 26-06-2011) 
Max. Marks : 300
Time: 2 Hours
  • Write your Roll Number in the box (in numbers / in words)
  • To mark Answer use Black ball point pen only.
  • Till told, do not open the booklet.
  • Candidate must read all the instructions before writing the answers.
  • You are to mark your answer on Answer Sheet only. After the examination is over, handover the
  • Answer Sheet to the Invigilator.


1. Answer all questions. All questions carry equal marks.
2. The candidate should indicate the correct Roll Number, Subject, Paper Code and its Series on the Answer-Sheet. otherwise the Answer-Sheet will not be evaluated and the candidate will be solely responsible for it.
3. This booklet contains 120 questions. Each question has 4 altemative answers. The candidate has to darken only one circle or bubble indicating the correct answer on the answer sheet using black ball point pen. If more than one answers are marked, it would be treated as wrong answer and it will notbe examined.
4. Nothing is to be written on the cover page or any other page of this booklet. If you need a working sheet to do your rough work. please ask the invigilator for it and mention required information on it.
5. If you happen-to find that the booklet issued to you does not have all the pages properly printed or it has any other deficiency, then you need to approach the invigilator to get another booklet of same series and code.

1. The Cuddapah system of rocks belong to

(a) Archaen Group

(b) Aryan Group

(c) Dravidian Group

(d) Purana Group

2. The alluvial soils found along the banks of the rivers in the Ganga Plain are called

(a) Khadar

(b) Bhangar

(c) Bhur

(d) Loess

3. Which one of the following districts of Eastern Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of sugar mills?

(a) Mahrajganj

(b) Deoria

(c) Kushinagar

(d) Gorakhpur

4. The State of India having almost monopoly in the production of chromite is                    

(a) Bihar

(b) Orissa    

(c) Kamataka

(d) Maharashtra

5. Which one of the following States of India has the largest forest cover?

(a) Uttarakhand

(b) Jharkhand

(c) Himachal Pradesh

(d) Jamm & Kashmir

6. Which one of the following countries is known as the 'land of Rjce- Revolution' ?

(a) China

(b) India

(c) Japan

(d) Philippines

7. The theory of cumulative causation and spatial interaction was propounded by

(a) W. Rostow

(b) F. Perroux

(c) G. Myrdal

(d) W. Isard

8. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(a) Donetz Basin - Russia

(b) Lancashire - U.K.

(c) Shansi - China

(d) Saar - Germany

9. Of the following whose loeational theory of economic activities is based on the premise that natural resources are ubiquitous whereas economic resources occur at

(a) Yon Thunen

(b) Alfred Weber

(c) Edger Hoover

(d) John Weaver

10. Largest industrial gas reserves are found in

(a) Iran

(b) Iraq

(c) Qatar

(d) Russia

11. When the total population is divided by arable land, the density thus obtained is called

(a) Physical density

(b) Agricultural density

(c) Nutritional density

(d) Arithmetic density

12. Tertiary activities include:

1. Agriculture

2. Construction

3. Services

4. Trade

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

13. Noon rays of the Sun fall perpendicular on 21st June at

(a) Kolkata

(b) Ranchi

(c) Allahabad

(d) Ahmedbad

Match List - I with List - II and select  the correct answer from the code given below:                    

List - I                 List - II    
    (Agent of erosion)
A. Pothole        1. Underground water        
B. Sinkhole      2. Sea water    
C. Stack          3. Wind        
D. Tafoni         4. River        

          A   B   C  D        
(a)      4   3   2   1        
(b)      2    1  3   4        
(c)      4    1   2   3        
(d)      1    2   4   3        

15. Which one of the following layers denotes rapid change. of sea water density in the depth zone of 300 m - 1000 m?

(a) Halocline

(b) Thermocline

(c) Pycnocline

(d) Ecocline
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Pediplain - W.Penck

(b) Peneplain - W.M. Davis

(c) Panplain - C.H.Crickmay

(d) Panfan  - A.C.Lawson

17. Among the following volcanoes which is known as the light house of the Mediterranean Sea?

(a) Stramboli

(b) Kotopaxi

(c) Visuvious

(d) Elburz

Who devised the Index of development based on principal component analysis?

(a) O.E. Baker

(b) J. Fried-mann

(c) R.P. Mishra

(d) C.D. Harris
Who of the following advanced the theory of law of Retail Gravitation?

(a) P.O. Converse

(b) A.E. Smailes

(c) W.J. Reilly

(d) R.E. Dickinson

20. The concept of probabilism is associated with

(a) G. Taylor

(b) P. Hartshorne

(c) D. Harvey

(d) O.H.K. Spate

The limit of photic zone is determined by

(a) Density of sea water

(b) Salinity of sea water

(c) Penetration of sunlight

(d) Temperature of sea water

22. Which of the following statements regarding bio- fuels are correct?

1. It is obtained from maize and sugarcane crops.

2. It is a cost effective fuel.

3. It does not affect food security.

4. It is an eco-friendly source of fuel.

(a) 1 and 2 are correct.

(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

(c) 1 and 4 are correct.

(d) 3 and 4 are correct.

23. The correct sequence of languages in descending order in terms of their number of speakers in the world is

(a) Spanish, English, Chinese, Hindi

(b) English, Chinese, Hindi, Spanish

(c) Hindi, Chinese, Spanish, English

(d) Chinese, English, Hindi, Spanish

Who of the following said "Climate was the fundamental factor in the rise of civilization" ?

(a) Ellsworth Huntington

(b) Carl Saver

(c) E.C. Semple

(d) Griffith Taylor

25. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Aetas - Philippines

(b) Inuits - Greenland

(c) Hottentat - Zambia

(d) Masai - Kenya

26. Kalpsar project fur the supply of sweet water is located in

(a) Haryana

(b) Kamataka

(c) Rajasthan

(d) Gujarat

The Ganga Action Plan was initiated in

(a) 1984

(c) 1988

(b) 1986

(d) 1990

28. Which one of the following is not covered in 8 missions under the Climate Action Plan of the Government of India?

(a) Afforestation

(b) Solar power

(c) Nuclear power

(d) Waste to energy conversion

Assertion (A): Ecological productivity decreases from the equator towards the poles.

Reason (R): Insolation rapidly decreases from the equator towards the poles.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) Both (A) and (R) arc true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) arc true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

30. Assertion (A): Conservation IS a basic element of envirorunental planning. Conservation and development are complementary to each other.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

31. Which of the following is correctly matched?

(a) Biodiversity hot spots - Areas of rich biodiversity.

(b) Leopold Matrix - Morphometry of drainage basins

(c) Acid rains - Carbon dioxide

(d) Coral bleaching - Decrease in the temperature of sea water
32. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer USing the code given below:

List - I                  List -IIA. E. Huntington   1. Social Darvinism
B. G. Taylor          2. Probabilism
C. F. Ratzel          3. Scientific determinism
D. O.H.K.             4. Stop and Go determinism


      A    B   C   D
(a)  3    4   1    2
(b)  2    1   3    4
(c)  4    3    2    1
(d)  1    4   3    2

33. The terms longitude and latitude were first used by

(a) Herodotus

(b) Eratosthcnese

(c) Posidonius

(d) Ptolemy

34. Who of the following devised behavioural matrix?

(a) I. Burton

(b) I. Flex

(c) A. Pred

(d) A. Peet

35. Who of the following propounded the 'Principle of least effort' ?

(a) J.Q. Stewart

(b) W.l. Reilly

(c) W. Leo

(d) G.K. Zipf

Who of the following is known for the work 'Spaces of Hope' ?

(a) D.Harvey

(b) J.B.Harley

(c) G.Taylor    

(d) P.Taylor

The concept of 'ecumene' was advanced by

(a) Alexander von Humboldt

(b) Eratosthenese

(c) J.R. Forster

(d) Strabo

Who of the following propounded the 'organic theory of State'?

(a) Ratzel

(b) Humboldt

(c) Richthofen

(d) Mackinder

39. The concept of map projections was first advanced by

(a) Aristotle

(b) Hippacartus

(c) Posidonius

(d) Ptolemy

40. "Geobrraphy in itscl f is a philosophy of the world of man." The above statement is contributed to

(a) Albert Dcmangcon

(b) Jean Brunhes

(c) Camille Vallaux

(d) P.E. James
The chorological approach in Geography was enunciated by

(a) Alfred Hettner

(b) Carl Saver

(c) Jean Brunhes

(d) Richard Hartshorne

42. following was the Who among the first map maker?

(a) Crates

(b) Ptolemy

(c) Anexirnander

(d) Eratosthenese

43. Which one of the following methods of representation of height on maps is most suitable for flat regions?

(a) Hachure

(b) Formline

(c) Spot height

(d) Bench Mark (B.M.)

44. Which one of the following characteristics is represented by Mollweide Projection?

(a) Equidistant

(b) Orthomorphic

(c) Azimuthal

(d) Homolographic

45. Who of the following made extensive corrections to the world map of Ptolemy?

(a) Al-Edrisi

(b) Al-Masudi

(c) Al-Biruni

(d) Ibn-Batuta

46. The leading producer of milk in the world is

(a) China

(b) India

(c) U.S.A.

(d) Russia

Identify the correct seq uence of the population of States (2011 provisional) In descending order:

(a) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, West Bengal, Bihar

(b) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal

(c) Uttar Pradesh. Bihar, West Bengal, Maharashtra

(d) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, West Bengal

48. Match List - I with List - II and select and the correct answer from the given below:
List- I                            List - II
(Graph)                        (Major Use)
A. Hythergraph         1. RepresentatIon of tern perature and rainfall 
B. Pyramid               2. Representation of Age & Sex structure
C. Cartogram           3. Representation of data on maps
D. Hypsographic       4. Representation of height of land and depth of ocean

         A    B    C    D
(a)     1    2    3    4
(b)     1    3    2    4
(c)     2    1    4    3
(d)    3    2    1    4

49. Which of the following countries has the lowest infantile mortality?

(a) China

(b) India

(c) Pakistan

(d) Sri Lanka

50. Arrange the following States of India is descending order of their reserves of coal.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

1. Chhattisgarh

2. Jharkhand

3. Orissa

4. West Bengal

(a) 1,2,3,4
(b) 2,3,1,4
(c) 4,3,1,2
(d) 2,4, 3,1

51. In India the largest producer of marine fish is

(a) Gujarat

(b) Kerala

(c) Andhra Pradesh

(d) Maharashtra

52. In India more than half of the production of soyabean comes from

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Maharashtra

(d) Rajasthan

The Deccan trap was formed by the

(a) Dharwar Vulcanicity

(b) Mesozoic Vulcanicity

(c) Cretaceous Vulcanicity

(d) Palaeozoic Vulcanicity

54. The correct sequence of States In terms of population density (2011) in descending order is

(a) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala

(b) Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh

(c) Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh

(d) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala

Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(a) Sustained life on earth is a characteristic of ecosystem.

(b) Nature has spent millions of years to refine a stable ecosystem

(c) Ecosystem functions mainly through the input of solar energy

(d) The relative loss of energy due to respiration decreases with higher trophic levels

56. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I                        List - II
(Biosphere Reserve)    (State)

A. Dehang-Debang     1. Orissa
B. Manas                   2. Meghalaya
C. Nokrek                  3. Assam
D. Similipal                4. Arunachal Pradesh 

           A    B    C    D
(a)      4     3     2     1
(b)      1     2     3     4
(c)      4     2     3     1
(d)      1     3     2     4 

The concept of 'ecological niche' was first introduced by

(a) C.C.Park

(b) E.P.Odum

(c) J. Grinel

(d) G.E.Hutchinson

58. On which of the following livers of Bhutan is Chukha Hydel Project located?

(a) Raidak

(b) Amochu

(c) Mochu

(d) Dongmechu
59. Presently the largest producer of cow milk in the world is

(a) China

(b) U.S.A.

(c) India

(d) Russia

The driest area of the world is located In

(a) Thar Desert

(b) Mongolia

(c) Sudan

(d) Chile
61. Which one of the following countries is the least urbanized country in the world?

(a) Uganda

(b) Sri Lanka

(c) Papua - New Guinea

(d) Burundi

Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I                                                        List - II    
A. Largest city by population in the world        1. Hulum Buir     
B. Smallest city by population in the world      2. Vatican City
C. Largest city by area in the world                3. Tokyo  
D. Smallest city by area in the world              4. Hum

       A    B    C   D   
(a)   3    4    1   2
(b)   2    3    1   4
(c)   1    2    4   3
(d)   4    1    3   2

63. In a climograph high relative humidity and high wet bulb temperature denotes

(a) Keen climate

(b) Muggy climate

(c) Raw climate

(d) Scorching climate

64. The border of Ethiopia does not touch which one of the following countries?

(a) Uganda

(b) Sudan

(c) Somali Republic

(d) Kenya

65. Which one of the following countries is devoid of copper resource?

(a) Peru

(b) Poland

(c) Zambia

(d) Portugal

66. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the code given below:

List - I              List - II
(Tribe)              (Region)
A. Semang        1. Congo Basin
B. Kirghiz          2. Malaysia
C. Bushman      3. Central Asia
D. Pygmies       4. Kalahari Desert


       A   B    C   D
(a)   4   2    3    1
(b)   1   3    2    4
(c)    2   1    4    3
(d)    2  3    4    1   

67. Zambia docs not have a common border with

(a) Tanzania

(b) Mozambique

(c) Botswana

(d) Angola

68. Arrange the following countries in ascending order of their population.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

1. Bangladesh

2. Brazil

3. Indonesia

4. Pakistan

(a) 1,4,2,3

(b) 1,2,3,4

(c) 2,4,1,3

(d) 4,3,2,1

69. Which one of the following is characterised with maximum of wild life and plant diversity?

(a) Temperate grasslands

(b) Temperate deciduous forests

(c) Tropical moist forests

(d) Deserts and Savannas

70. The largest group of Arctic people is formed by

(a) Yakuts and Lapps

(b) Lapps and Zyrians

(e) Zyrians and Eskimos

(d) Yakuts and Zyrains

71. The North Pole is always in the light

(a) From September 23 to March 21

(b) From March 21 to September 23

(c) From June 21 to December 22

(d) From December 22 to March 21

Assertion (A) : Sugarcane is considered a tropical crop and yet it is grown extensively outside the tropics in India.
Reason (R) The extra-tropical areas in India have tropical temperature due to the presence of Himalayas in the North.

72. Select the correct answer from the code given below:

a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

73. The Canterbury grasslands are not like:

(a) Downs

(b) Pampas

(c) Campas

(d) Veld

74. Formosa Sea lies between

(a) China and Philippines

(b) China and Taiwan

(c) China and North Korea

(d) China and South Korea

Kalahari Desert is located in

1. Botswana

2. Namibia

3. Zambia

4. Zimbabwe

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4

76. The largest part of the dry continental type of climate is found in

(a) South America

(b) Africa

(c) Eurasia

(d) North America

77. Which one of the following is not a pastoral nomad ?

(a) Masai

(b) Kirghiz

(c) Kazak

(d) Pygmies

78. Which of the following volcanoes are active volcanoes?

1. Aconcagua

2. Etna

3. Fujiyama

4. Vesuvius 

Select the correct answer from he codes given below:


(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 3 and 4

The essential feature of shifting cultivation is the

(a) Rotation of crops

(b) Mono-cropping

(c) Intensive cropping

(d) Rotation of fields

80. Assertion (A) : Aridity is the distincti ve characteristic of the deserts.
Reason (R) They receive low rainfall and have high evaporation.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

81. Which of the following soils are not insitu soils?

(a) Chernozem
(b) Laterite

(c) Alluvial

(d) Chestnut

82. Assertion (A) The circum-pacific belt is the most vulnerable zone of Tsunamis.
Reason (R) It is tectonically most active area and generates world's major earthquakes.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Which one of the following seas is the largest in area?

(a) Sea of Okhotsk

(b) Sea of Japan

(c) Sea of China

(d) Bering Sea

84. Which one of the following is the main geo-thermal energy producing country ?

(a) China

(b) U.S.A.

(c) Japan

(d) India

Which one of the following is an example of a block mountain?

(a) Aravalli

(b) Andes

(c) Black Forest

(d) Caucasus

86. The largest reserves of coal in the world are found in

(a) U.S.A.

(b) Russia

(c) China

(d) Australia

The most famous million city of Siberia is

(a) Chelyabinsk

(b) Gorky

(c) Vladivostok

(d) Novosibirsk

88. Which one of the following representative fraction (R.F.) represents the scale 6" = 1 mile ?

(a) 1: 63,360

(b) 1: 1,26,720

(c) 1: 10,560

(d) 1: 2,53,440

89. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

90: Match List - I with List - II and Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List - I                  List - II (Use)
A. Anemometer       1. Measuring angle of slope / dip of rock strata
B. Sextant              2. Locating object space
C. Clinometer         3. Measuring speed of wind
D. Radar                4. Measuring heights of celestial bodies from ships

       A  B C D
(a)   2   3  4  1
(b)   4   1  2  3
(c)   3   2  1  4
(d)   3   4  1  2

91. If the R.F. is 1:40 which of the following distances can be correctly shown by using a diagonal scale ?

(a) 2.0 metre

(b) 2.3 metre

(c) 2.33 metre

(d) 2.333 metre

92. Which of the'. following amount of rainfall is depicted by the symbol , on the Indian Daily Weather Maps ?

(a) -0.15 cm

(b) -0.25 cm

(e) - 0.75 cm

(d) - 1.50 cm

93. The symbol ® represents which one of the following status of clouds in Indian Daily Weather Maps?

(a) 5/8 low clouds

(b) 3/4 high clouds

(c) 7/8 low clouds

(d) overcast high clouds

94. The three point problem in geological maps is faced when

(a) An outcrop is fully visible at only one point

(b) An outcrop is partly visible only at one point

(c) An outcrop is partly visible at many points

(d) None of the above

95. In which of the following map projections, all latitudes are standard parallel?

(a) Polyconic projection

(b) Simple conic projection

(c) Bonne's projection

(d) Mercator's projection

Which one of the following symbols is used on the Weather Map of India to indicate a wind speed of 15 knots/hour ?

97. On the given diagram the shape of the slope profile along A-B line will result in a slope profile showing

(a) Convex slope

(b) Concave slope

(c) Undulating slope

(d) Terraced slope

98. Which one of the following South-East Asian countries predominantly consists of Christian community population?

(a) Thailand

(b) Indonesia

(c) Malaysia

(d) Philippines

99. Which one of the foIlowing is different from the others?

(a) Prairies

(b) Selvas

(c) Sundarban

(d) Pampas

100. Which one of the following is the more stable trait for the classi fication of human races?

(a) Nasal Index

(b) Cephalic Index

(c) Hair Structure

(d) Skin colour

101. following scholars the concept of Which one of the has propounded Humanism?

(a) Yi-Fu-Tuan

(b) R. Hartshorne

(c) David Harvey

(d) Peter Haggett

102. Who of the following has used the world Geopacifics?

(a) T. Griffith Taylor

(b) Mackindcr

(c) Hartshorne

(d) Huntington

Which one of the following is the port city of Sooth Africa? 

(a) Bloemfontein

(b) East London

(c) Johannesburg

(d) Kimberley

104. Assertion (A) Chernozems are black soils.

Reason (R) They are deficient in organic matter.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:


(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

105. The 'zone and strata' theory about the evolution of human races was propounded by

(a) A.C.Haddon

(b) A.L.Krober

(c) J.H. Hutton

(d) G.Taylor

106. Which one of the following is called marine snowfall ?

(a) Fall of snow flakes on sea surface

(b) Fall of hail on sea surface

(c) Continuous fall of snow pillets on ocean floors

(d) Continuous fall of tiny marine sediments on ocean floors.

107. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?

(a) Rossbx Waves - Jet stream

(b) EI Nino - Strong Monsoon

(c) Index cycle - Walker circulation

(d) Hadley cell - Mid-Latitude cell

108. The 'Spice Park' has been established by Spice Board of India at

(a) Haridwar

(b) Valley of Flowers

(c) Silent Valley

(d) Kashmir Valley

109. The biggest island of the Indian Ocean is

(a) Maldives

(b) Madagascar

(c) Lakshadweep

(d) Sumatra

110. In which of the following States of India is Ghana Bird Sanctuary located ?

(a) Rajasthan

(b) West Bengal

(c) Orissa

(d) Karnataka

111. The largest wind energy farm of India is located in

(a) Kerala

(b) Gujarat

(c) Tamil Nadu

(d) Madhya Pradesh

112. Which one of the following inland waterways in India is shortest In length?

(a) Kollam - Kottapuram

(b) Sadia - Dhubri

(c) Kakinada - Marakkam

(d) Allahabad - Haldia

Which one of the following is the first indigenous nuclear power plant of the country?

(a) Kaiga

(b) Kalpakkarr

(c) Kota

(d) Kakrapar

114. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched '?

(a) Green Revolution Agriculture

(by White Revolution - Milk Production

(c) Yellow Revolution - Sericulture

(d) Blue Revolution - Pisciculture

115. Which of the following / Union Territory of the country does not have a railway line?

(a) Pondicherry

(b) Tripura

(c) Nagaland

(d) Meghalaya

116. Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of Himalaya Mountain passes from East to West?

(a) Shipki La - Lipulekh - Nathu La - Bomdilla

(b) Lipulekh - Shipki La - Nathu La - Bomdilla

(c) Bomdilla - Nathu La - Lipulekh - Shipki La

(d) Nathu La - Lipulekh - Shipki La - Bomdilla

117. Which one of the following districts of U.P has the highest ratio of literacy in the census of 2011 ?

(a) Ghaziabad

(b) Lucknow

(c) Varanasi

(d) Raebareilly

Which one of the following States of India receives lowest average annual rainfall ?

(a) Himachal Pradesh

(b) Jammu & Kashmir

(c) Orissa

(d) Madhya Pradesh

119. The largest reserve of crude oil In India is found in            

(a) Assam                

(b) Gujarat                

(c) Eastern Offshore        

(d) Western Offshore        

120. In India Koppen's 'Amw' climatic type is found in

(a) Eastern Coast

(b) Western Coast

(c) Chotanagpur

(d) Western Himalaya