Directions—(Q. 1–5) Select the related letter/word/number/figure from the given alternatives.
1. Book : Publisher :: Film : ?
(A) Writer
(B) Editor
(C) Director
(D) Producer
Ans : (D)
2. Menu : Food :: Catalogue : ?
(A) Books
(B) Library
(C) Newspaper
(D) Rack
Ans : (A)
3. FILM : ADGH :: MILK : ?
(A) ADGF
(B) HDGE
(C) HDGF
(D) HEGF
Ans : (C)
4. BJNT : CIOS :: DHPV : ?
(A) EGQU
(B) EIQW
(C) ELPV
(D) EIOU
Ans : (A)
5. KIJM : QOPS :: MKLO : ?
(A) LMOR
(B) OMNS
(C) KMOQ
(D) OMNQ
Ans : (D)
6. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can CALICUT be coded ?
(A) 5279431
(B) 5978213
(C) 8251896
(D) 8543691
Ans : (C)
7. If in a code language PRINCIPAL is written as MBOQSOMVW and TEACHER is written as FDVSZDB, how is CAPITAL written in that code ?
(A) SVMOFVW
(B) SVMODVW
(C) BVMODVW
(D) SVMIDVW
Ans : (A)
8. A statement followed by two assumptions I and II is given. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate which one of the four given alternatives is correct ?
Statement : If more encouragement is given to Sports, Indians will win more gold medals at the Olympic Games.
Assumptions : I. Indians do not win gold medals.
II. More encouragement in Sports leads to better performance.
(A) Only I is valid
(B) Only II is valid
(C) Both assumptions are valid
(D) Both assumptions are invalid
Ans : (B)
9. Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which one of the given conclusions is definitely drawn from the given statements.
Statement : All virtuous persons are happy.
No unhappy person is virtuous.
Conclusions : I. Happiness is related to virtue
II. Unhappy person is not virtuous.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Neither I nor II follows
(D) Both I and II follow
Ans : (D)
10. Rahim travelled straight from point E to F at a distance of 5 km. From F he turned left and travelled 6 km and reached point G, there he took a left turn and travelled 5 km to reach point H. He took another left turn and travelled 2 km and reached point I. How far is he from the starting point ?
(A) 3 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 5 km
(D) 7 km
Ans : (B)
11. A man is facing East, then the turns left and goes 10 m, then turns right and goes 5 m, then goes 5 m to the South and from there 5 m to West. In which direction is he, from his original place ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 12–17) Find the odd word/letters/number/figure from the given responses.
12. (A) Newspaper
(B) Press
(C) Edition
(D) Audition
Ans : (D)
13. (A) Microbe
(B) Microfilm
(C) Microphone
(D) Microscope
Ans : (A)
14. (A) PRSQ
(B) UWXV
(C) LONM
(D) CEFD
Ans : (C)
15. (A) YXVU
(B) ORQP
(C) KJHG
(D) MLJI
Ans : (B)
16. (A) 43
(B) 53
(C) 63
(D) 73
Ans : (C)
17. (A) 21, 42
(B) 24, 48
(C) 37, 74
(D) 35, 28
Ans : (D)
18. In a coding system PEN is written as NZO and BARK as CTSL. How can we write PRANK in that coding system ?
(A) NZTOL
(B) CSTZN
(C) NSTOL
(D) NTSLO
Ans : (C)
19. If BROTHER is coded as 2456784 SISTER is coded as 919684, What is the code for ROBBERS … ? …
(A) 18, 15, 22, 5, 18, 19
(B) 4562, 684
(C) 9245, 784
(D) 4522849
Ans : (D)
20. A word given in Capital Letters is followed by four answer words. Out of these only one can be formed by using the letters of the given words. Find out that word—
ENVIRONMENT
(A) EMINENT
(B) ENTRANCE
(C) ENTERTAIN
(D) MOVEMENT
Ans : (A)
21. A word is given in capital letters. It is followed by four words. Out of these four words, three cannot be formed from the letters of the word in capital letters. Point out the word which can be formed from the letters of the given word in capital letters—
ARCHITECTURE
(A) LECTURE
(B) UREA
(C) CHILDREN
(D) TENT
Ans : (B)
22. A word given in capital letters is followed by four words. Out of these only one cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find out that word—
REVOLUTIONARY
(A) REVOLT
(B) TRAIL
(C) VOCATION
(D) VOLUNTARY
Ans : (C)
23. Giridharlal’s family consists of his wife Radha. 3 sons and 2 daughters. One daughter is yet to be married and the other daughter has a son. Two sons have 2 children each and the third son has 3 children. An old aunt and sonin-law also stay with them. How many members are there in Giridharlal’s family ?
(A) 20
(B) 19
(C) 18
(D) 17
Ans : (A)
24. A family went out for a walk. Daughter walked before the father. Son was walking behind the mother and ahead of father. Who walked last ?
(A) Son
(B) Father
(C) Mother
(D) Daughter
Ans : (B)
25. Seema is the daughter-in-law of Sudhir and sister-in-law of Ramesh. Mohan is the son of Sudhir and only brother of Ramesh. Find the relation between Seema and Mohan—
(A) Sister-in-law
(B) Aunt
(C) Cousin
(D) Wife
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–32) Select the related letters/word/number/figure from the given alternatives—
26. Orange : Peel : : Nut : … ? …
(A) Pulp
(B) Shell
(C) Kernel
(D) Rind
Ans : (B)
27. Foundation : Edifice : : Constitution : … ? …
(A) Government
(B) State
(C) Nation
(D) Cabinet
Ans : (A)
28. Plat : Botany : : Man : … ? …
(A) Ecology
(B) Psychology
(C) Anthropology
(D) Sociology
Ans : (C)
29. GIKM : TRPN : : JLNP : … ? …
(A) QOMN
(B) WUSQ
(C) PRTV
(D) TVXZ
Ans : (B)
30. ACAZX : DFDWU : : GIGTR : … ? …
(A) JKJQO
(B) JLJQO
(C) JKJOQ
(D) JLJOP
Ans : (B)
31. 63 : 80 : : 120 : … ? …
(A) 125
(B) 143
(C) 170
(D) 180
Ans : (B)
32. 7 : 49 : 56 : : 14 : 196 : 210 : : … ? …
(A) 9 : 81 : 91
(B) 12 : 140 : 156
(C) 21 : 441 : 462
(D) 21 : 440 : 461
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 33–39) Select the related letters/word/number/figure from the given alternatives—
33. (A) Square
(B) Circle
(C) Rectangle
(D) Triangle
Ans : (B)
34. (A) Temple
(B) Mosque
(C) Theatre
(D) Church
Ans : (C)
35. (A) Sweet
(B) Bitter
(C) Salty
(D) Tasteless
Ans : (D)
36. (A) ZMYL
(B) VIUH
(C) REQD
(D) ANBO
Ans : (D)
37. (A) LJNP
(B) ECGI
(C) CAFG
(D) SQUW
Ans : (C)
38. (A) 16—64
(B) 17—68
(C) 20—100
(D) 21—84
Ans : (C)
39. (A) 63
(B) 126
(C) 215
(D) 342
Ans : (B)
40. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following—
1. Seed 2. Flower
3. Soil 4. Plant
5. Fruit
(A) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
(B) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
(C) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
(D) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
Ans : (D)
41. Arrange the following words according to the dictionary—
1. Scenery 2. Science
3. Scandal 4. School
5. Scatter
(A) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
(B) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2
(C) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
Ans : (A)
42. A statement followed by two assumptions I and II is given. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given assumptions are implicit in the given statement. Indicate which one of the four given alternatives is correct ?
Statement : All children like icecream and some children like chocolates.
Assumptions : I. Children who like chocolates also like icecream.
II. Pinky does not like
chocolates but she likes ice-cream.
(A) Only assumption I is implicit
(B) Only assumption II is implicit
(C) Both assumptions I and II are is implicit
(D) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 43–44) If you start running from a point towards. North and after covering 4 km you turn to your left and run 5 km, and then again turn to your left and run 5 km, and then turn to your left again and run another 6 km, and before finishing you take another left turn and run I km, then answer questions 43 and 44 based on this information—
43. How many km are you from the place you started ?
(A) 1 km
(B) 2 km
(C) 3 km
(D) 4 km
Ans : (A)
44. In which direction will you be moving while finishing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans : (C)
45. In a certain code the following numbers are coded in a certain way by assigning sings—
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
???+??÷.-
Which number can be decoded from the following ?
??-??
(A) 62953
(B) 62935
(C) 62593
(D) 62539
Ans : (B)
46. If UNITY is written as FMRGB in a certain code, how would TRANQUIL be written using the same code ?
(A) GIZMJFRO
(B) TZMFJROM
(C) MJROIZBS
(D) GMPFZROI
Ans : (A)
47. A word given in capital letters is followed by four words. Out of these only one cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find out that word—
EXEMPLIFICATION
(A) FIXATION
(B) EXAMPLE
(C) AXE
(D) EXTRA
Ans : (D)
48. A word is given in capital letters. It is followed by four words. Out of these four words, three cannot be formed from the letters of the word in capital letters. Point out the word which can be formed from the letters of the given word in capital letters—
COMMISSION
(A) OSMOSIS
(B) CONICS
(C) MOAN
(D) COMMON
Ans : (D)
49. In a cricket match, five batsman, A, B, C, D and E scored an average of 36 runs. D scored five more than E; E scored 8 fewer than A; B scored as many as D and E combined; and B and C scored 107 between them. How many runs did E score ?
(A) 62
(B) 45
(C) 28
(D) 20
Ans : (D)
50. The average age of 50 students of a class is 16 years. When 10 new students are admitted, then the average age increased by 0.5 years. The average age of the new students is—
(A) 17 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 19 years
(D) 20 years
Ans : (C)
51. Which of the following is not instructional material ?
(A) Over Head Projector
(B) Audio Casset
(C) Printed Material
(D) Transparency
Ans : (A)
52. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(A) Lecture Method can develop reasoning
(B) Lecture Method can develop knowledge
(C) Lecture Method is one way process
(D) During Lecture Method students are passive
Ans : (A)
53. Which of the following indicates evaluation ?
(A) Ram got 45 marks out of 200
(B) Mohan got 38 per cent marks in English
(C) Shyam got First Division in final examination
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
54. Team teaching has the potential to develop—
(A) Competitive spirit
(B) Co-operation
(C) The habit of supplementing the teaching of each other
(D) Highlighting the gaps in each other’s teaching
Ans : (C)
55. Which of the following is the most important characteristic of Open Book Examination system ?
(A) Students become serious
(B) It improves attendance in the classroom
(C) It reduces examination anxiety amongst students
(D) It compels students to think
Ans : (D)
56. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Communicator should have fine senses
(B) Communicator should have tolerance power
(C) Communicator should be soft spoken
(D) Communicator should have good personality
Ans : (A)
57. An effective teacher is one who can—
(A) Control the class
(B) Give more information in less time
(C) Motivate students to learn
(D) Correct the assignments carefully
Ans : (C)
58. The main aim of teaching is—
(A) To develop only reasoning
(B) To develop only thinking
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) To give information
Ans : (C)
59. The quality of teaching is reflected—
(A) By the attendance of students in the class
(B) By the pass percentage of students
(C) By the quality of questions asked by students
(D) By the duration of silence maintained in the class
Ans : (C)
60. Another name of Basic Education or Nai Talim is—
(A) Compulsory Education
(B) New Education Policy
(C) Wardha Education Plan
(D) Sarva Shikshya Abhiyan
Ans : (C)
61. If you would be a teacher, how would you like to behave with your students ?
(A) Autocratic
(B) Democratic
(C) Laissezfare
(D) As the conditions permit
Ans : (B)
62. When you are mal-treated in your class as a new comer then how will you deal with the students ?
(A) Through tough punitive measures
(B) Through warning of expulsion
(C) Through improving your qualities
(D) You leave the class
Ans : (C)
63. If students alleged you for making favouritism in evaluation, how can you deal with this problem ?
(A) Giving threat to fail them
(B) Making efforts to reveal the position fairly
(C) Adopting punitive measures
(D) Showing the student’s answer-books in order to satisfy them
Ans : (D)
64. A scheduled caste student is admitted in your class. The other class-mates treat him as untouchable and live in isolation. How would you give him better adjustment in the class ?
(A) By putting examples by his own deeds
(B) By preaching
(C) By showing fear of legal actions
(D) By justifying the plight of downtroddens
Ans : (A)
65. A child has nail-biting habit in the class. How could you improve his habit ?
(A) You leave it because it is not a dangerous disease
(B) You attempt to mould his behaviour under strict observation
(C) You insult him in the class
(D) You make a complaint with his parent
Ans : (B)
66. When a stubborn, submissive and shameful child is sitting in your class, you think about him as he is a—
(A) Good-natured child
(B) Emotionally-disturbed child
(C) Disciplined and obedient child
(D) Serious and studious child
Ans : (C)
67. Teachers need to study educational philosophy mainly, because—
(A) Few, if any, teachers have a philosophy
(B) Most teachers follow a wrong philosophy
(C) Teacher’s are incapable of formulating their own philosophy
(D) Most teacher’s do not know anything about educational philosophy
Ans : (C)
68. Dewey liked best, the following definition of education—
(A) Education as a product
(B) Recapitulation
(C) Acquisition of knowledge
(D) Preparation for life
Ans : (B)
69. Which of the following is not one of the aims and purposes of UNESCO ?
(A) Held an educational isolationism
(B) Promote intellectual interdependence
(C) Helps to unite peoples of the world
(D) Promote pride in nationalistic groups
Ans : (C)
70. UNESCO has as one of its many promising activities, a campaign to provide—
(A) Education for all adults of the member nations
(B) Universal, free, compulsory primary education
(C) Free education to those who desires it
(D) Indoctrination against the dangers of communism
Ans : (A)
71. Suppose a child has hearing impairment but you have no idea about him. What will be your duty towards the child ?
(A) Recognise the child and manage accordingly
(B) You become neutral because it is not your headache
(C) You send him to specialist for treatment
(D) You report to teachers, parents and principal to send him to a special school
Ans : (A)
72. A student belongs to a very poor family. The student, therefore is unable to pay tuition fee for private coaching but he is eager to get some of his problems solved. What provision will you make for the student ?
(A) Give extra time to him
(B) Refuse to solve his problems as you have no spare time
(C) Creating a terror in him
(D) Not giving the ears to his request
Ans : (A)
73. If an orthopaedically handicapped girl student is studying in your class whose right hand is amputed from elbow, how would you encourage her for study ?
(A) You silently laugh at her
(B) You develop her self-confidence and high morale
(C) You treat her as a cruel creation of God
(D) You behave gently and sympathetically
Ans : (B)
74. When your student in bitten by a stray dog on games field, you do—
(A) Inform his parents and impart first-aid immediately
(B) Washing the wound with clean water and leave it open
(C) Ask financial help from school for rabies vaccination
(D) Giving personal assistance in his treatment
Ans : (C)
75. If a student wants to satisfy some querry in question-paper then—
(A) You will clarify the printing mistake
(B) You will inform the concerned subject’s teacher
(C) You will advise him to wait till the correction is being confirmed
(D) Furiously tell him to do as he understands
Ans : (A)
76. It is easier to predict ……………. on the basis of aptitude testing than success in an occupation.
(A) Failure
(B) Temperament
(C) Interest
(D) Adjustment
Ans : (A)
77. Frustration for the motives causes—
(A) Inferiority
(B) Anxiety
(C) Inefficiency
(D) Behaviour disorder
Ans : (D)
78. The teacher who has developed an interest in teaching—
(A) Studies problems of student behaviour
(B) Compares different types of tests
(C) Refuses to be guided by the rules of thumb
(D) Cannot deal with children effectively
Ans : (A)
79. The teacher who can apply the principles of Educational Psychology—
(A) Has pride in the teaching profession
(B) Can provide readymade solutions
(C) Adjusts his method to suit the needs of individual children
(D) Compares the theories of learning
Ans : (C)
80. Which of the following is an audio-visual aid ?
(A) Radio
(B) Tape-recorder
(C) Television
(D) Projector
Ans : (C)
81. Motives arouse behaviour and direct it towards an/a—
(A) Appropriate goal
(B) Inference
(C) Prediction
(D) None of the rest
Ans : (A)
82. Learning which involves motor organs is called—
(A) Sensory learning
(B) Motor learning
(C) Verbal learning
(D) Sensory-motor learning
Ans : (B)
83. Find the odd one out—
(A) Recall
(B) Recognition
(C) Trace
(D) Remembering
Ans : (C)
84. The problem child is generally one who has—
(A) An unsolved problem
(B) A poor heredity
(C) A poor home environment
(D) A younger brother or sister
Ans : (A)
85. The First Kindergarten was started by—
(A) Friedrich Froebel
(B) Benjamin Franklin
(C) Johann Pestalozzi
(D) De Witt Clinton
Ans : (A)
86. Rousseau’s major contribution to modern education was the—
(A) Kindergarten
(B) Philanthropy
(C) Use of objects in teaching
(D) Philosophy of Naturalism
Ans : (D)
87. Which of the following is most characteristic of a good teacher ?
(A) He sticks to one activity at a time and completes what he starts before starting something else
(B) He is not afraid of losing dignity when he participates in children’s activities
(C) He puts more do’s than don’ts in his comments to children
(D) He remains objective and impersonal at all times
Ans : (C)
88. A prime requisite for one who enters the teaching profession is—
(A) An IQ of over 125
(B) Public speaking ability
(C) Good health
(D) Extra income
Ans : (C)
89. There is an intimate relationship between the—
(A) Teachers and Educationists
(B) Planned and unplanned School Learning
(C) School and Society
(D) Parents and Children’s Thinking
Ans : (C)
90. Four conditions that must exist in a classroom before any motivational strategies can be successful—
(A) The teacher must be a supportive person
(B) The classroom must be disorganized
(C) The tasks set for students must not be authentic
(D) Constant disruption in class
Ans : (A)
91. The students of today are—
(A) Careless and negligent
(B) Not devoted to studies
(C) Dedicated to studies
(D) Of sharp mind
Ans : (D)
92. Government Policy on Education regards Education a unique—
(A) Consumption
(B) Investment
(C) Source of income
(D) Expenditure
Ans : (B)
93. Motivation is the release of ……………. by proceeding towards a goal.
(A) Pride
(B) Tension
(C) Knowledge
(D) Power
Ans : (B)
94. Helping people in the neighbourhood to solve behavioural problems is in the purview of—
(A) Community Psychology
(B) Neighbourhood Psychology
(C) Genetic Psychology
(D) Developmental Psychology
Ans : (A)
95. Nature and Nurture refer to—
(A) Internal and External Environment
(B) Temperament and character
(C) Physical features and temperament
(D) Heredity and Environment
Ans : (D)
96. Acquisition of information and knowledge is—
(A) Ability to learn
(B) Ability to adjust
(C) Ability to memorise
(D) None of the rest
Ans : (A)
97. Motivation should be followed by—
(A) Reward
(B) Reproof
(C) Knowledge of result
(D) Incentive
Ans : (A)
98. The motivated teacher will have following attributes—
(A) Unrealistic level of Aspiration
(B) Goal-directed behaviour
(C) Dissatisfaction
(D) Deprivation of needs
Ans : (B)
99. The teacher should promote—
(A) Anxiety among the students to complete the syllabus in a hurry
(B) Harassing the students for completing the work
(C) Encouraging interactive communication among students
(D) Punishment to a student whenever he puts a question
Ans : (C)
100. Teachers and parents give more importance to the development of intelligence among students as it facilitates—
(A) Academic achievement and social respectability
(B) Less risk taking behaviour
(C) Dependence behaviour
(D) Obedient behaviour
Ans : (A)
Showing posts with label ENTRANCE EXAMS. Show all posts
Showing posts with label ENTRANCE EXAMS. Show all posts
Sunday, 6 November 2011
Tuesday, 1 November 2011
NEET-PG for admission to PG medical courses will not be conducted in 2012
The National Eligibility Entrance Test (NEET) for all postgraduate medical seats across the country will now be held only in 2013 as the central government has decided not to hold the test in 2012 due to lack of resources and expertise.
"In view of lack of resources we have decided that the test will now be held in 2013 and the National Board for Examination (NBE) will be roped in to conduct the test. It will by then strengthen its own resources and infrastructure. At present, it does not have the capability for holding the exam," said the Health Secretary PK Pradhan.
The test was earlier scheduled to be held in January-February 2012 for admissions in the academic year 2012-2013. The Medical Council of India had requested the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) to hold the test on its behalf for approximately 21000 PG seats in the country.
"In view of lack of resources we have decided that the test will now be held in 2013 and the National Board for Examination (NBE) will be roped in to conduct the test. It will by then strengthen its own resources and infrastructure. At present, it does not have the capability for holding the exam," said the Health Secretary PK Pradhan.
The test was earlier scheduled to be held in January-February 2012 for admissions in the academic year 2012-2013. The Medical Council of India had requested the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) to hold the test on its behalf for approximately 21000 PG seats in the country.
IIST Admission Test- ISAT 2012
Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology (IIST), the first Space University of Asia, offers courses from undergraduate to doctoral level in Space Science and Technology. It is declared as ‘Deemed to be University' under section 3 of the UGC Act, 1956 and was established by Department of Space, Government of India.
IIST offers B Tech programme in Aerospace Engineering, Avionics, and Physical Sciences. Admissions to this programme are based on the admission test, ISAT, conducted by IIST. On successful completion of the course with prescribed academic standards, the students will be absorbed in ISRO as Scientists/Engineers.
Name of the Undergraduate Programmes in IIST and Number of Seats available
Educational Qualification
The Examination Fee has to be remitted in any one of the branches of State Bank of India (SBI), Punjab National Bank (PNB), or Union Bank of India (UBI), by using the challan in triplicate. Fee remitted in any other form will not be accepted. (Important: It is the responsibility of the candidate to verify if his/her journal number [SBI]/Transaction Number [PNB,UB] is correctly entered in all the challan copies of the bank along with the registration number and has the respective branch code and seal.
NRI Candidates applying for the course can remit their Examination fee for ISAT-2012 through any bank outside India in the form of a Demand Draft drawn in favour of ‘THE REGISTRAR, IIST payable at THIRUVANANTHAPURAM'. Any Demand Draft issued from a bank within India will NOT BE ACCEPTABLE.
ISAT- 2012 Test Centres
ISAT-2012 is planned to be conducted in the following 22 cities of India namely Ahmedabad, Chandigarh, Hyderabad, Nagpur, Varanasi, Bangalore, Chennai, Jaipur, Patna, Vishakhapatnam, Bhubaneswar, Dehradun, Kolkata, Port Blair, Bhopal, Delhi, Lucknow, Ranchi, Calicut, Dispur, Mumbai, and Thiruvananthapuram.
How to Apply: Candidates can apply on-line from the website http://www.iist.ac.in/isat2012/. Candidates will be guided at this stage about how to complete the application process, remit examination fee etc.
For more details, please go through Information Brochure
IIST offers B Tech programme in Aerospace Engineering, Avionics, and Physical Sciences. Admissions to this programme are based on the admission test, ISAT, conducted by IIST. On successful completion of the course with prescribed academic standards, the students will be absorbed in ISRO as Scientists/Engineers.
Name of the Undergraduate Programmes in IIST and Number of Seats available
- B Tech- Aerospace Engineering: 60 seats
- B Tech- Avionics: 60 seats
- B Tech- Physical Sciences: 36 seats
- Opening date for online registration: 1 November 2011 from 10 am
- Last date for online registration: 31 December 2011 till 11.30 pm
- Last date for remitting fees: 6 January 2012
- Last date of receipt of Institute copy of Challan: 16 January 2012
- Display of status of the application: 24 February 2012
- Date for downloading Hall Ticket: 2 March 2012 to 10 April 2012
- Date of ISAT- 2012: 21 April 2012 from 9 am to 12 pm
- Date of Publishing Result: 23 May 2012
Educational Qualification
- Candidate should have scored a minimum of 70% marks in aggregate in class X or equivalent examination (60% in aggregate for SC/ ST/ PD candidates).
- Candidates belonging to GEN and OBC categories must secure at least 70% marks in the aggregate in their Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics (PCM) papers in their Qualifying Examination (QE) (60% marks in the aggregate SC, ST, and PD categories).
- Year of first appearance for final Qualifying Examination (QE) should be 2011 or 2012.
- Year of attaining the required percentage of mark in QE should be 2011 or 2012 (For candidates appearing in 2012, results should be available on or before I July 2012)
- For General and OBC candidates (on or after 1 October 1987)
- For SC/ ST/ PD candidates (on or after 1 October 1982)
The Examination Fee has to be remitted in any one of the branches of State Bank of India (SBI), Punjab National Bank (PNB), or Union Bank of India (UBI), by using the challan in triplicate. Fee remitted in any other form will not be accepted. (Important: It is the responsibility of the candidate to verify if his/her journal number [SBI]/Transaction Number [PNB,UB] is correctly entered in all the challan copies of the bank along with the registration number and has the respective branch code and seal.
NRI Candidates applying for the course can remit their Examination fee for ISAT-2012 through any bank outside India in the form of a Demand Draft drawn in favour of ‘THE REGISTRAR, IIST payable at THIRUVANANTHAPURAM'. Any Demand Draft issued from a bank within India will NOT BE ACCEPTABLE.
ISAT- 2012 Test Centres
ISAT-2012 is planned to be conducted in the following 22 cities of India namely Ahmedabad, Chandigarh, Hyderabad, Nagpur, Varanasi, Bangalore, Chennai, Jaipur, Patna, Vishakhapatnam, Bhubaneswar, Dehradun, Kolkata, Port Blair, Bhopal, Delhi, Lucknow, Ranchi, Calicut, Dispur, Mumbai, and Thiruvananthapuram.
How to Apply: Candidates can apply on-line from the website http://www.iist.ac.in/isat2012/. Candidates will be guided at this stage about how to complete the application process, remit examination fee etc.
For more details, please go through Information Brochure
Wednesday, 26 October 2011
CLAT Legal GK and Constitution Questions
1. Since the commencement of the Indian Constitution on 26 January, 1950, how many persons have occupied the august office of the President of India?
1. 9
2. 10
3. 11
4. 12
2. Which of the following articles empowers the High Court to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
1. Article 225
2. Article 226
3. Article 227
4. Article 228
3. The Government of India Act, 1935, envisaged the introduction of
1. dyarchical form of government
2. federal form of government
3. republican form of government
4. unitary form of government
4. Which of the following are Financial Committees of Parliament in India?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
1. 1 and 3
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3
5. Which of the following are the circumstances under which an elected member of Parliament may be disqualified on the ground of defection?
1. If he voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party
2. If he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party without prior permission of the political party
3. If he speaks against the political party
4. If he joins a political party other than the party on whose ticket he contested and got elected.
6. The Union Territory of Mizoram was formed out of the north-eastern territories of Assam in 1962. Full status of `State’ was conferred upon it in
1. 1980
2. 1982
3. 1985
4. 1987
7. The name of the laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands was changed to Lakshadweep by an Act of Parliament in
1. 1970
2. 1971
3. 1972
4. 1973
8. The full status of `State’ was conferred upon the Union Territories of Manipur and Tripura in
1. 1970
2. 1971
3. 1972
4. 1973
9. At the end of 1995, the Union of India composed of
1. 25 States and 8 Union Territories
2. 25 States and 7 Union Territories
3. 26 States and 7 Union Territories
4. 26 States and 8 Union Territories
10. Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing the President of India?
1. Elected members of the Legislative Council
2. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state
3. Elected members of the Lok Sabha
4. Elected members of the Rajya Sabha
1. 9
2. 10
3. 11
4. 12
2. Which of the following articles empowers the High Court to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
1. Article 225
2. Article 226
3. Article 227
4. Article 228
3. The Government of India Act, 1935, envisaged the introduction of
1. dyarchical form of government
2. federal form of government
3. republican form of government
4. unitary form of government
4. Which of the following are Financial Committees of Parliament in India?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
1. 1 and 3
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3
5. Which of the following are the circumstances under which an elected member of Parliament may be disqualified on the ground of defection?
1. If he voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party
2. If he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party without prior permission of the political party
3. If he speaks against the political party
4. If he joins a political party other than the party on whose ticket he contested and got elected.
6. The Union Territory of Mizoram was formed out of the north-eastern territories of Assam in 1962. Full status of `State’ was conferred upon it in
1. 1980
2. 1982
3. 1985
4. 1987
7. The name of the laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands was changed to Lakshadweep by an Act of Parliament in
1. 1970
2. 1971
3. 1972
4. 1973
8. The full status of `State’ was conferred upon the Union Territories of Manipur and Tripura in
1. 1970
2. 1971
3. 1972
4. 1973
9. At the end of 1995, the Union of India composed of
1. 25 States and 8 Union Territories
2. 25 States and 7 Union Territories
3. 26 States and 7 Union Territories
4. 26 States and 8 Union Territories
10. Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing the President of India?
1. Elected members of the Legislative Council
2. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state
3. Elected members of the Lok Sabha
4. Elected members of the Rajya Sabha
CLAT General Knowledge Questions Sep 2011
1. Which of the following statements about the Union government’s stand on the use of pesticide Endosulphan is/are correct?
I. The pesticide is hazardous to human health and the ban on its use should continue
II. The pesticide is hazardous to human health only when it is sprayed aerially
III. The government has asked the Supreme Court to lift the ban on use of Endosulphan
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) II only
d) II and III only
e) I, II and III
Answer 1:
Maintaining that Endosulfan is unlikely to cause any public health concern or hazard, the Centre on August 2, 2011 urged the Supreme Court to lift the ban imposed on its production and sale in May this year. In its response to a petition filed by the Democratic Youth Federation of India, the Centre said that long-term use of the pesticide was unlikely to present public health concern. The Centre made it clear that Endosulfan was not the reason behind health problems in Kasaragod in Kerala. The tragedy in Kasaragod was due to aerial spraying of Endosulfan. The Centre said: “Studies by the World Health Organisation in 2006 had given a clean chit to the pesticide.”
2. Which of the following will no longer be considered for Padma Awards according to decision announced by the government in August 2011?
a) Foreigners
b) Bureaucrats
c) Sportspersons
d) Businessmen
e) All the above
Answer 2:
The government has decided not to confer Padma Awards on serving bureaucrats, Minister of State for Home Mullappally Ramachandran informed the Lok Sabha on August 2, 2011.
3. A government committee set up to review the functioning of the Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) submitted its report in August 2011. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. ICSSR is fully funded by the Union HRD Ministry
II. Sukhadeo Thorat is the Chairperson of ICSSR
III. The committee has called for increasing the allocation of funds for ICSSR
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) II only
d) II and III only
e) I, II and III
Answer 3:
A government committee set up to review the functioning of the Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) has recommended some measure of financial autonomy and major changes in the governance pattern. The report says that social science research remains extremely under-funded in India, compared to research in science and technology. The committee was constituted by the Government in September 2010 to review the functioning of the Council (in the last five years) as well as the research institutes funded by ICSSR for promoting social science research. Funding for ICSSR is quite meagre when compared to funding received by the Council for Scientific and Industrial Research and Indian Council of Medical Research. “This clearly shows that compared to the natural and medical sciences, the research support to social sciences is extremely low” says the report unveiled on August 4, 2011. The committee comprised Deepak Nayyar, Bakul Dholakia, and Kirit S. Parikh – all academics – with Krishnendu Ghosh Dastidar as member-secretary. The ICSSR was set up in 1969 as the apex body for social science research. It was envisaged to be a premier body for promoting social science research, funded by the Government, with the research agenda decided primarily by social scientists themselves. Sukhadeo Thorat was appointed ICSSR Chairperson for three years from April 1, 2011. The ICSSR is fully funded by the Human Resource Development Ministry.
4. Shahara Khatoon is Bangladesh counterpart of which Indian Minister?
a) A. K. Antony
b) Pranab Mukherjee
c) P. Chidambaram
d) S. M. Krishna
e) Anand Sharma
Answer 4:
Bangladesh and India have signed an important border management agreement to reduce incidents of killings and crime along the common frontier. The border guards of the two countries would exchange information on vulnerable areas to ensure joint patrolling in a coordinated manner. The Coordinated Border Management Plan (CBMP) was signed in the presence of Home Minister P. Chidambaram and his Bangladesh counterpart Shahara Khatoon in Dhaka on July 30, 2011. The objective is to further enhance the quality of border management. The deal was signed by Maj. Gen. Anwar Hussain, Director General of Border Guard Bangladesh (BGB) and Raman Srivastava, Director General of the Border Security Force (BSF).
5. Chamal Rajapaksa came on an official visit to India in August 2011. He is the _______ of Sri Lanka.
a) Defence Minister
b) Trade & Commerce Minister
c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
d) Foreign Minister
e) Speaker of Parliament
Answer 5:
Lok Sabha Speaker Meira Kumar on August 1, 2011 expressed the hope that there would be comprehensive engagement between India and Sri Lanka to find an honourable solution to the problems of the Tamils in Sri Lanka. Interacting with a 10-member parliamentary delegation from Sri Lanka led by its Speaker Chamal Rajapaksa, Kumar referred to the expanding relationship between the two countries in various spheres, including in resettlement of internally displaced persons and urged for more people-to-people contact.
6. M. V. Rak Carrier, a cargo ship that sank off the Mumbai coast on August 4, 2011, was registered in which country?
a) Panama
b) Colombia
c) Chile
d) Suriname
e) Venezuela
Answer 6:
A Panama-flagged cargo ship named M. V. Rak Carrier sank nearly 20 nautical miles off the Mumbai coast on August 4, 2011. All the 30 crew members were rescued by the Navy and the Coast Guard in a joint operation. The bulk carrier ship was on its way from Lubuk Tutung in Indonesia to Dahej in Gujarat to deliver more than 60,000 tonnes of coal.
7. Which of the following pairs of recent books on terrorism and their authors is/are correctly matched?
I. Deadly Embrace: Pakistan, America and the Future of Global Jihad – Bruce Riedel
II. Radical, Religious, and Violent: The New Economics of Terrorism – Eli Berman
III. The Convert: A Tale of Exile and Extremism – Deborah Baker
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) II only
d) II and III only
e) I, II and III
8. Which of the following statements about land owned by the Defence Ministry is/are correct?
I. Defence forces own more than 27 lakh acres of land
II. Approx. 12,300 acres of defence land is under encroachment across the country
III. Among states, Uttar Pradesh has the largest acreage of defence land under encroachment
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) II only
d) II and III only
e) I, II and III
Answer 8:
“A total of 12,326 acres of defence land is under encroachment...862 cases pertaining to encroachment are pending in different courts,” Defence Minister AK Antony said on August 1, 2011 in reply to a Lok Sabha query. With more than 17 lakh acres land under them, the defence forces are one of the largest owners of land in the country. As per the state-wise data, 3,080 acres land is under encroachment in Uttar Pradesh followed by 1,491 acres in Madhya Pradesh. The Defence Minister said the Directorate General of Defence Estates (DGDE) has initiated a programme for computerisation of defence land registration.
9. Which of the following statements about steps being taken by the Army to meet shortage of officers is/are correct?
I. Re-employment of retired officers
II. Higher tenure for Short Service Commission (SSC) officers
III. Faster promotions for SSC officers
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) II only
d) II and III only
e) I, II and III
Answer 9:
The government has allowed a limited re-employment of retired Brigadiers has been allowed in staff and other positions to meet shortage of officers in the armed forces. “The government has allowed re-employment of retired Brigadiers against some staff, instructional and other positions. The number of re-employed retired Brigadiers is limited to a maximum 10 per cent of the authorised strength of re-employed officers,” Defence Minister A. K. Antony informed Rajya Sabha on August 3, 2011 in reply to a question on shortage of officers in armed forces. The minister said the government is taking steps to meet the shortage of 11,137 officers in the Army. All officers including those in Short Service Commission (SSC) are now eligible to hold substantive rank of Captain, Major and Lieutenant Colonel after two, six and 13 years of reckonable service respectively. The tenure of SSC officers has been increased from 10 to 14 years and a total number of 750 posts of Lt Colonel have been upgraded to Colonel-level.
10. August 1, 2011 marked the 150th anniversary of the launch of the first train service of _________.
a) Southern Railway
b) Central Railway
c) Eastern Railway
d) Western Railway
e) Northern Railway
Answer 10:
The romance of the rail journey has been brought out in a compendium launched to mark the sesquicentenary of Southern Railway. The compendium, unveiled on August 1, 2011, marks the 150th anniversary of the maiden run of Southern Railway’s first train service from “Negapatam’ (Nagapattinam) to Tanjore. Published by the Railway Heritage Centre in Tiruchi, the “Marvels of The South Indian Railway” was conceptualised by S. Subramhanyan, DRM, Tiruchi Division, Southern Railway.
I. The pesticide is hazardous to human health and the ban on its use should continue
II. The pesticide is hazardous to human health only when it is sprayed aerially
III. The government has asked the Supreme Court to lift the ban on use of Endosulphan
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) II only
d) II and III only
e) I, II and III
Answer 1:
Maintaining that Endosulfan is unlikely to cause any public health concern or hazard, the Centre on August 2, 2011 urged the Supreme Court to lift the ban imposed on its production and sale in May this year. In its response to a petition filed by the Democratic Youth Federation of India, the Centre said that long-term use of the pesticide was unlikely to present public health concern. The Centre made it clear that Endosulfan was not the reason behind health problems in Kasaragod in Kerala. The tragedy in Kasaragod was due to aerial spraying of Endosulfan. The Centre said: “Studies by the World Health Organisation in 2006 had given a clean chit to the pesticide.”
2. Which of the following will no longer be considered for Padma Awards according to decision announced by the government in August 2011?
a) Foreigners
b) Bureaucrats
c) Sportspersons
d) Businessmen
e) All the above
Answer 2:
The government has decided not to confer Padma Awards on serving bureaucrats, Minister of State for Home Mullappally Ramachandran informed the Lok Sabha on August 2, 2011.
3. A government committee set up to review the functioning of the Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) submitted its report in August 2011. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. ICSSR is fully funded by the Union HRD Ministry
II. Sukhadeo Thorat is the Chairperson of ICSSR
III. The committee has called for increasing the allocation of funds for ICSSR
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) II only
d) II and III only
e) I, II and III
Answer 3:
A government committee set up to review the functioning of the Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) has recommended some measure of financial autonomy and major changes in the governance pattern. The report says that social science research remains extremely under-funded in India, compared to research in science and technology. The committee was constituted by the Government in September 2010 to review the functioning of the Council (in the last five years) as well as the research institutes funded by ICSSR for promoting social science research. Funding for ICSSR is quite meagre when compared to funding received by the Council for Scientific and Industrial Research and Indian Council of Medical Research. “This clearly shows that compared to the natural and medical sciences, the research support to social sciences is extremely low” says the report unveiled on August 4, 2011. The committee comprised Deepak Nayyar, Bakul Dholakia, and Kirit S. Parikh – all academics – with Krishnendu Ghosh Dastidar as member-secretary. The ICSSR was set up in 1969 as the apex body for social science research. It was envisaged to be a premier body for promoting social science research, funded by the Government, with the research agenda decided primarily by social scientists themselves. Sukhadeo Thorat was appointed ICSSR Chairperson for three years from April 1, 2011. The ICSSR is fully funded by the Human Resource Development Ministry.
4. Shahara Khatoon is Bangladesh counterpart of which Indian Minister?
a) A. K. Antony
b) Pranab Mukherjee
c) P. Chidambaram
d) S. M. Krishna
e) Anand Sharma
Answer 4:
Bangladesh and India have signed an important border management agreement to reduce incidents of killings and crime along the common frontier. The border guards of the two countries would exchange information on vulnerable areas to ensure joint patrolling in a coordinated manner. The Coordinated Border Management Plan (CBMP) was signed in the presence of Home Minister P. Chidambaram and his Bangladesh counterpart Shahara Khatoon in Dhaka on July 30, 2011. The objective is to further enhance the quality of border management. The deal was signed by Maj. Gen. Anwar Hussain, Director General of Border Guard Bangladesh (BGB) and Raman Srivastava, Director General of the Border Security Force (BSF).
5. Chamal Rajapaksa came on an official visit to India in August 2011. He is the _______ of Sri Lanka.
a) Defence Minister
b) Trade & Commerce Minister
c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
d) Foreign Minister
e) Speaker of Parliament
Answer 5:
Lok Sabha Speaker Meira Kumar on August 1, 2011 expressed the hope that there would be comprehensive engagement between India and Sri Lanka to find an honourable solution to the problems of the Tamils in Sri Lanka. Interacting with a 10-member parliamentary delegation from Sri Lanka led by its Speaker Chamal Rajapaksa, Kumar referred to the expanding relationship between the two countries in various spheres, including in resettlement of internally displaced persons and urged for more people-to-people contact.
6. M. V. Rak Carrier, a cargo ship that sank off the Mumbai coast on August 4, 2011, was registered in which country?
a) Panama
b) Colombia
c) Chile
d) Suriname
e) Venezuela
Answer 6:
A Panama-flagged cargo ship named M. V. Rak Carrier sank nearly 20 nautical miles off the Mumbai coast on August 4, 2011. All the 30 crew members were rescued by the Navy and the Coast Guard in a joint operation. The bulk carrier ship was on its way from Lubuk Tutung in Indonesia to Dahej in Gujarat to deliver more than 60,000 tonnes of coal.
7. Which of the following pairs of recent books on terrorism and their authors is/are correctly matched?
I. Deadly Embrace: Pakistan, America and the Future of Global Jihad – Bruce Riedel
II. Radical, Religious, and Violent: The New Economics of Terrorism – Eli Berman
III. The Convert: A Tale of Exile and Extremism – Deborah Baker
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) II only
d) II and III only
e) I, II and III
8. Which of the following statements about land owned by the Defence Ministry is/are correct?
I. Defence forces own more than 27 lakh acres of land
II. Approx. 12,300 acres of defence land is under encroachment across the country
III. Among states, Uttar Pradesh has the largest acreage of defence land under encroachment
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) II only
d) II and III only
e) I, II and III
Answer 8:
“A total of 12,326 acres of defence land is under encroachment...862 cases pertaining to encroachment are pending in different courts,” Defence Minister AK Antony said on August 1, 2011 in reply to a Lok Sabha query. With more than 17 lakh acres land under them, the defence forces are one of the largest owners of land in the country. As per the state-wise data, 3,080 acres land is under encroachment in Uttar Pradesh followed by 1,491 acres in Madhya Pradesh. The Defence Minister said the Directorate General of Defence Estates (DGDE) has initiated a programme for computerisation of defence land registration.
9. Which of the following statements about steps being taken by the Army to meet shortage of officers is/are correct?
I. Re-employment of retired officers
II. Higher tenure for Short Service Commission (SSC) officers
III. Faster promotions for SSC officers
a) I only
b) I and II only
c) II only
d) II and III only
e) I, II and III
Answer 9:
The government has allowed a limited re-employment of retired Brigadiers has been allowed in staff and other positions to meet shortage of officers in the armed forces. “The government has allowed re-employment of retired Brigadiers against some staff, instructional and other positions. The number of re-employed retired Brigadiers is limited to a maximum 10 per cent of the authorised strength of re-employed officers,” Defence Minister A. K. Antony informed Rajya Sabha on August 3, 2011 in reply to a question on shortage of officers in armed forces. The minister said the government is taking steps to meet the shortage of 11,137 officers in the Army. All officers including those in Short Service Commission (SSC) are now eligible to hold substantive rank of Captain, Major and Lieutenant Colonel after two, six and 13 years of reckonable service respectively. The tenure of SSC officers has been increased from 10 to 14 years and a total number of 750 posts of Lt Colonel have been upgraded to Colonel-level.
10. August 1, 2011 marked the 150th anniversary of the launch of the first train service of _________.
a) Southern Railway
b) Central Railway
c) Eastern Railway
d) Western Railway
e) Northern Railway
Answer 10:
The romance of the rail journey has been brought out in a compendium launched to mark the sesquicentenary of Southern Railway. The compendium, unveiled on August 1, 2011, marks the 150th anniversary of the maiden run of Southern Railway’s first train service from “Negapatam’ (Nagapattinam) to Tanjore. Published by the Railway Heritage Centre in Tiruchi, the “Marvels of The South Indian Railway” was conceptualised by S. Subramhanyan, DRM, Tiruchi Division, Southern Railway.
Wednesday, 5 October 2011
Uttar Pradesh B.Ed. Joint Entrance Exam. 2010
General Knowledge
1. How many schedules the Constitution of India contains ?
(A) 9
(B) 10
(C) 11
(D) 12
Ans : (D)
2. The Constitution of India was adopted in—
(A) 26 January, 1950
(B) 26 January, 1949
(C) 26 November, 1949
(D) 31 December, 1949
Ans : (C)
3. In a nuclear reactor, one of the following is used as a fuel—
(A) Coal
(B) Uranium
(C) Radium
(D) Diesel
Ans : (B)
4. The first muslim ruler to introduce the system of price control was—
(A) Balban
(B) Jalaluddin Khalji
(C) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
(D) Alauddin Khalji
Ans : (D)
5. Tansen, a great musician, was in the court of—
(A) Akbar
(B) Bahadur Shah
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Krishna Deva Rai
Ans : (A)
6. Who among the following attended all the three Round Table Conferences ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(C) Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Ans : (B)
7. Where is National Sugar Institute established?
(A) Kanpur
(B) New Delhi
(C) Lucknow
(D) Gajrola
Ans : (A)
8. A national leader, whose birthday is observed as the National Education Day on November 11, is—
(A) J. B. Kriplani
(B) Rajiv Gandhi
(C) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Sarojini Naidu
Ans : (C)
9. The Nagarjuna Sagar Project is constructed on the river—
(A) Kaveri
(B) Krishna
(C) Godavari
(D) Indus
Ans : (B)
10. The Bermuada Triangle lies in—
(A) Western North Atlantic Ocean
(B) Eastern South Atlantic Ocean
(C) North Pacific Ocean
(D) South Indian Ocean
Ans : (A)
11. Who among the following has been honoured with Bharat Ratna for the year 2008 ?
(A) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(B) G. Madhavan Nair
(C) Pt. Bhimsen Joshi
(D) Lata Mangeshkar
Ans : (C)
12. Which of the following is India’s first nuclear powered submarine launched on 26 July, 2009 ?
(A) INS Virat
(B) INS Arihant
(C) INS Vikrant
(D) INS Talwar
Ans : (B)
13. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through—
(A) Glass
(B) Vacuum
(C) Water
(D) Air
Ans : (A)
14. Galvanised iron sheets have a coating of—
(A) Tin
(B) Lead
(C) Zinc
(D) Chromium
Ans : (C)
15. I.B.R.D. is also known as—
(A) International Bank
(B) World Bank
(C) Asian Development Bank
(D) Bank of America
Ans : (B)
16. The Gupta king who assumed the title of Vikramaditya was—
(A) Skandagupta
(B) Samudragupta
(C) Chandragupta–II
(D) Kumaragupta
Ans : (C)
17. Part IV of the Constitution of India deals with—
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Citizenship
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy
(D) Union Executive
Ans : (C)
18. Which amidst the following countries of the European union has not adopted the single currency Euro ?
(A) France
(B) U. K.
(C) Germany
(D) Spain
Ans : (B)
19. Permanent members of U. N. Security Council are—
(A) U.K., U.S.A., Russia, China, Japan
(B) U.S.A., France, China, U.K., Canada
(C) U.S.A., France, U.K., Russia, Canada
(D) U.S.A., U.K., France, Russia, China
Ans : (D)
20. The author of the book ‘My Country My Life’ is—
(A) Lal Krishna Advani
(B) Jaswant Singh
(C) Dilip Kumar
(D) Sunil Gavaskar
Ans : (A)
21. The Partition of Bengal was revoked by the British Government in the year—
(A) 1907
(B) 1917
(C) 1911
(D) 1921
Ans : (C)
22. The first talkie film in India was—
(A) Raja Harish Chandra
(B) Alam Ara
(C) Chandi Das
(D) Jhansi Ki Rani
Ans : (B)
23. ‘Blue Revolution’ is related to—
(A) Space research
(B) Irrigation
(C) Fisheries
(D) Drinking water
Ans : (C)
24. India has the maximum foreign trade with—
(A) Japan
(B) Germany
(C) U.S.A.
(D) U.K.
Ans : (C)
25. The most urbanised country in the world is—
(A) Japan
(B) Singapore
(C) Germany
(D) Israel
Ans : (B)
26. Which is the highest finance body for small scale industries ?
(A) IDBI
(B) SIDBI
(C) IFCI
(D) NABARD
Ans : (B)
27. What is the new name of the old region ‘Siam’ ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Thailand
(C) Philippines
(D) Cambodia
Ans : (B)
28. Great poet Amir Khusarau’s birth place was—
(A) Patiyali (Etah)
(B) Kanpur
(C) Tehran
(D) Lahore
Ans : (A)
29. Bauxite is an ore of one of the following metals—
(A) Aluminium
(B) Silver
(C) Tin
(D) Steel
Ans : (A)
30. Who organized the fourth Buddhist council ?
(A) Ashoka
(B) Harsha
(C) Bindusara
(D) Kanishka
Ans : (D)
31. Who was the last ruler of Lodi dynasty ?
(A) Bahlol Lodi
(B) Ibrahim Lodi
(C) Sikandar Lodi
(D) Daulat Khan Lodi
Ans : (B)
32. The Capital of Andaman and Nicobar islands is—
(A) Port Blair
(B) Diu
(C) Kolkata
(D) Tirupati
Ans : (A)
33. Who among the following decides if a particular Bill is a Money Bill or not ?
(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Finance Minister
Ans : (B)
34. ‘Bar’ is the unit of—
(A) Heat
(B) Temperature
(C) Current
(D) Atmospheric pressure
Ans : (D)
35. Right to vote is a—
(A) Political right
(B) Civil right
(C) Economic right
(D) Legal right
Ans : (A)
36. Koneru Humpy is associated with—
(A) Lawn Tennis
(B) Hockey
(C) Chess
(D) Badminton
Ans : (C)
37. Which of the following hills connect eastern and western ghats ?
(A) Satpura
(B) Vindhya
(C) Nilgiri
(D) Aravalli
Ans : (C)
38. Which country is known as the ‘Cockpit of Europe’ ?
(A) Belzium
(B) Switzerland
(C) Netherlands
(D) Luxembourg
Ans : (A)
39. In Uttar Pradesh, Charkula folk dance is related with—
(A) Ruhelkhand region
(B) Brij region
(C) Bundelkhand region
(D) Avadh region
Ans : (B)
40. Which among the following is a central university in Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia Avadh University, Faizabad
(B) Mahatma Gandhi Kashi Vidyapeeth, Varanasi
(C) Chhatrapati Sahuji Maharaj University, Kanpur
(D) Allahabad University, Allahabad
Ans : (D)
41. Lucknow Congress session 1916, was presided over by—
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(C) Ambika Charan Majumdar
(D) Pt. J. L. Nehru
Ans : (C)
42. Rihand Project is located at—
(A) Lalitpur district
(B) Mirzapur district
(C) Aligarh district
(D) Sultanpur district
Ans : (B)
43. Where was ‘Tanchoi’ brocade developed ?
(A) Varanasi
(B) Dhaka
(C) Surat
(D) Tanjavur
Ans : (A)
44. Who wrote ‘Sarfaroshi Ki Tamanna Ab Hamare Dil Mein Hai’ ?
(A) Mohammed Iqbal
(B) Kazi Nazrul Islam
(C) Anand Narayan Mulla
(D) Ram Prasad Bismil
Ans : (D)
45. The chemical that is used in making artificial rain is—
(A) Silver Nitrate
(B) Silver Iodide
(C) Silver Nitrite
(D) Silver Chloride
Ans : (B)
46. Which of the following is the hardest substance in the human body ?
(A) Bone
(B) Enamel
(C) Nail
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)
47. Agricultural income tax is a source of revenue to—
(A) Central Government
(B) State Government
(C) Local Administration
(D) Centre and State Governments
Ans : (B)
48. Largest Mica deposits are in—
(A) South Africa
(B) Australia
(C) Canada
(D) India
Ans : (D)
49. Lalitpur district in U. P. is known for the—
(A) Uranium deposits
(B) Sugar industry
(C) Polic training academy
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)
50. Which of the following oceans has the shape of the English alphabet ‘S’ ?
(A) Arctic Ocean
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Pacific Ocean
Ans : (C)
Uttar Pradesh B.Ed. Joint Entrance Exam. 2010
Directions—(Q. 1–5) Select the related letter/word/number/figure from the given alternatives.
1. Book : Publisher :: Film : ?
(A) Writer
(B) Editor
(C) Director
(D) Producer
Ans : (D)
2. Menu : Food :: Catalogue : ?
(A) Books
(B) Library
(C) Newspaper
(D) Rack
Ans : (A)
3. FILM : ADGH :: MILK : ?
(A) ADGF
(B) HDGE
(C) HDGF
(D) HEGF
Ans : (C)
4. BJNT : CIOS :: DHPV : ?
(A) EGQU
(B) EIQW
(C) ELPV
(D) EIOU
Ans : (A)
5. KIJM : QOPS :: MKLO : ?
(A) LMOR
(B) OMNS
(C) KMOQ
(D) OMNQ
Ans : (D)
6. If DELHI is coded as 73541 and CALCUTTA as 82589662, how can CALICUT be coded ?
(A) 5279431
(B) 5978213
(C) 8251896
(D) 8543691
Ans : (C)
7. If in a code language PRINCIPAL is written as MBOQSOMVW and TEACHER is written as FDVSZDB, how is CAPITAL written in that code ?
(A) SVMOFVW
(B) SVMODVW
(C) BVMODVW
(D) SVMIDVW
Ans : (A)
8. A statement followed by two assumptions I and II is given. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given assumptions can definitely be drawn from the given statement. Indicate which one of the four given alternatives is correct ?
Statement : If more encouragement is given to Sports, Indians will win more gold medals at the Olympic Games.
Assumptions : I. Indians do not win gold medals.
II. More encouragement in Sports leads to better performance.
(A) Only I is valid
(B) Only II is valid
(C) Both assumptions are valid
(D) Both assumptions are invalid
Ans : (B)
9. Two statements are given followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider the two statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which one of the given conclusions is definitely drawn from the given statements.
Statement : All virtuous persons are happy.
No unhappy person is virtuous.
Conclusions : I. Happiness is related to virtue
II. Unhappy person is not virtuous.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Neither I nor II follows
(D) Both I and II follow
Ans : (D)
10. Rahim travelled straight from point E to F at a distance of 5 km. From F he turned left and travelled 6 km and reached point G, there he took a left turn and travelled 5 km to reach point H. He took another left turn and travelled 2 km and reached point I. How far is he from the starting point ?
(A) 3 km
(B) 4 km
(C) 5 km
(D) 7 km
Ans : (B)
11. A man is facing East, then the turns left and goes 10 m, then turns right and goes 5 m, then goes 5 m to the South and from there 5 m to West. In which direction is he, from his original place ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 12–17) Find the odd word/letters/number/figure from the given responses.
12. (A) Newspaper
(B) Press
(C) Edition
(D) Audition
Ans : (D)
13. (A) Microbe
(B) Microfilm
(C) Microphone
(D) Microscope
Ans : (A)
14. (A) PRSQ
(B) UWXV
(C) LONM
(D) CEFD
Ans : (C)
15. (A) YXVU
(B) ORQP
(C) KJHG
(D) MLJI
Ans : (B)
16. (A) 43
(B) 53
(C) 63
(D) 73
Ans : (C)
17. (A) 21, 42
(B) 24, 48
(C) 37, 74
(D) 35, 28
Ans : (D)
18. In a coding system PEN is written as NZO and BARK as CTSL. How can we write PRANK in that coding system ?
(A) NZTOL
(B) CSTZN
(C) NSTOL
(D) NTSLO
Ans : (C)
19. If BROTHER is coded as 2456784 SISTER is coded as 919684, What is the code for ROBBERS … ? …
(A) 18, 15, 22, 5, 18, 19
(B) 4562, 684
(C) 9245, 784
(D) 4522849
Ans : (D)
20. A word given in Capital Letters is followed by four answer words. Out of these only one can be formed by using the letters of the given words. Find out that word—
ENVIRONMENT
(A) EMINENT
(B) ENTRANCE
(C) ENTERTAIN
(D) MOVEMENT
Ans : (A)
21. A word is given in capital letters. It is followed by four words. Out of these four words, three cannot be formed from the letters of the word in capital letters. Point out the word which can be formed from the letters of the given word in capital letters—
ARCHITECTURE
(A) LECTURE
(B) UREA
(C) CHILDREN
(D) TENT
Ans : (B)
22. A word given in capital letters is followed by four words. Out of these only one cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find out that word—
REVOLUTIONARY
(A) REVOLT
(B) TRAIL
(C) VOCATION
(D) VOLUNTARY
Ans : (C)
23. Giridharlal’s family consists of his wife Radha. 3 sons and 2 daughters. One daughter is yet to be married and the other daughter has a son. Two sons have 2 children each and the third son has 3 children. An old aunt and sonin-law also stay with them. How many members are there in Giridharlal’s family ?
(A) 20
(B) 19
(C) 18
(D) 17
Ans : (A)
24. A family went out for a walk. Daughter walked before the father. Son was walking behind the mother and ahead of father. Who walked last ?
(A) Son
(B) Father
(C) Mother
(D) Daughter
Ans : (B)
25. Seema is the daughter-in-law of Sudhir and sister-in-law of Ramesh. Mohan is the son of Sudhir and only brother of Ramesh. Find the relation between Seema and Mohan—
(A) Sister-in-law
(B) Aunt
(C) Cousin
(D) Wife
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–32) Select the related letters/word/number/figure from the given alternatives—
26. Orange : Peel : : Nut : … ? …
(A) Pulp
(B) Shell
(C) Kernel
(D) Rind
Ans : (B)
27. Foundation : Edifice : : Constitution : … ? …
(A) Government
(B) State
(C) Nation
(D) Cabinet
Ans : (A)
28. Plat : Botany : : Man : … ? …
(A) Ecology
(B) Psychology
(C) Anthropology
(D) Sociology
Ans : (C)
29. GIKM : TRPN : : JLNP : … ? …
(A) QOMN
(B) WUSQ
(C) PRTV
(D) TVXZ
Ans : (B)
30. ACAZX : DFDWU : : GIGTR : … ? …
(A) JKJQO
(B) JLJQO
(C) JKJOQ
(D) JLJOP
Ans : (B)
31. 63 : 80 : : 120 : … ? …
(A) 125
(B) 143
(C) 170
(D) 180
Ans : (B)
32. 7 : 49 : 56 : : 14 : 196 : 210 : : … ? …
(A) 9 : 81 : 91
(B) 12 : 140 : 156
(C) 21 : 441 : 462
(D) 21 : 440 : 461
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 33–39) Select the related letters/word/number/figure from the given alternatives—
33. (A) Square
(B) Circle
(C) Rectangle
(D) Triangle
Ans : (B)
34. (A) Temple
(B) Mosque
(C) Theatre
(D) Church
Ans : (C)
35. (A) Sweet
(B) Bitter
(C) Salty
(D) Tasteless
Ans : (D)
36. (A) ZMYL
(B) VIUH
(C) REQD
(D) ANBO
Ans : (D)
37. (A) LJNP
(B) ECGI
(C) CAFG
(D) SQUW
Ans : (C)
38. (A) 16—64
(B) 17—68
(C) 20—100
(D) 21—84
Ans : (C)
39. (A) 63
(B) 126
(C) 215
(D) 342
Ans : (B)
40. Which one of the given responses would be a meaningful order of the following—
1. Seed 2. Flower
3. Soil 4. Plant
5. Fruit
(A) 4, 2, 5, 1, 3
(B) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3
(C) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
(D) 3, 1, 4, 2, 5
Ans : (D)
41. Arrange the following words according to the dictionary—
1. Scenery 2. Science
3. Scandal 4. School
5. Scatter
(A) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
(B) 3, 5, 4, 1, 2
(C) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
(D) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
Ans : (A)
42. A statement followed by two assumptions I and II is given. You have to consider the statement to be true even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known facts. You are to decide which of the given assumptions are implicit in the given statement. Indicate which one of the four given alternatives is correct ?
Statement : All children like icecream and some children like chocolates.
Assumptions : I. Children who like chocolates also like icecream.
II. Pinky does not like
chocolates but she likes ice-cream.
(A) Only assumption I is implicit
(B) Only assumption II is implicit
(C) Both assumptions I and II are is implicit
(D) Neither assumption I nor II is implicit
Ans : (C)
Directions—(Q. 43–44) If you start running from a point towards. North and after covering 4 km you turn to your left and run 5 km, and then again turn to your left and run 5 km, and then turn to your left again and run another 6 km, and before finishing you take another left turn and run I km, then answer questions 43 and 44 based on this information—
43. How many km are you from the place you started ?
(A) 1 km
(B) 2 km
(C) 3 km
(D) 4 km
Ans : (A)
44. In which direction will you be moving while finishing ?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans : (C)
45. In a certain code the following numbers are coded in a certain way by assigning sings—
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
∠∠⊄+⊇∨÷.-
Which number can be decoded from the following ?
∨∠-⊄⊇
(A) 62953
(B) 62935
(C) 62593
(D) 62539
Ans : (B)
46. If UNITY is written as FMRGB in a certain code, how would TRANQUIL be written using the same code ?
(A) GIZMJFRO
(B) TZMFJROM
(C) MJROIZBS
(D) GMPFZROI
Ans : (A)
47. A word given in capital letters is followed by four words. Out of these only one cannot be formed by using the letters of the given word. Find out that word—
EXEMPLIFICATION
(A) FIXATION
(B) EXAMPLE
(C) AXE
(D) EXTRA
Ans : (D)
48. A word is given in capital letters. It is followed by four words. Out of these four words, three cannot be formed from the letters of the word in capital letters. Point out the word which can be formed from the letters of the given word in capital letters—
COMMISSION
(A) OSMOSIS
(B) CONICS
(C) MOAN
(D) COMMON
Ans : (D)
49. In a cricket match, five batsman, A, B, C, D and E scored an average of 36 runs. D scored five more than E; E scored 8 fewer than A; B scored as many as D and E combined; and B and C scored 107 between them. How many runs did E score ?
(A) 62
(B) 45
(C) 28
(D) 20
Ans : (D)
50. The average age of 50 students of a class is 16 years. When 10 new students are admitted, then the average age increased by 0.5 years. The average age of the new students is—
(A) 17 years
(B) 18 years
(C) 19 years
(D) 20 years
Ans : (C)
51. Which of the following is not instructional material ?
(A) Over Head Projector
(B) Audio Casset
(C) Printed Material
(D) Transparency
Ans : (A)
52. Which of the following statement is not correct ?
(A) Lecture Method can develop reasoning
(B) Lecture Method can develop knowledge
(C) Lecture Method is one way process
(D) During Lecture Method students are passive
Ans : (A)
53. Which of the following indicates evaluation ?
(A) Ram got 45 marks out of 200
(B) Mohan got 38 per cent marks in English
(C) Shyam got First Division in final examination
(D) All the above
Ans : (D)
54. Team teaching has the potential to develop—
(A) Competitive spirit
(B) Co-operation
(C) The habit of supplementing the teaching of each other
(D) Highlighting the gaps in each other’s teaching
Ans : (C)
55. Which of the following is the most important characteristic of Open Book Examination system ?
(A) Students become serious
(B) It improves attendance in the classroom
(C) It reduces examination anxiety amongst students
(D) It compels students to think
Ans : (D)
56. Which of the following statements is correct ?
(A) Communicator should have fine senses
(B) Communicator should have tolerance power
(C) Communicator should be soft spoken
(D) Communicator should have good personality
Ans : (A)
57. An effective teacher is one who can—
(A) Control the class
(B) Give more information in less time
(C) Motivate students to learn
(D) Correct the assignments carefully
Ans : (C)
58. The main aim of teaching is—
(A) To develop only reasoning
(B) To develop only thinking
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) To give information
Ans : (C)
59. The quality of teaching is reflected—
(A) By the attendance of students in the class
(B) By the pass percentage of students
(C) By the quality of questions asked by students
(D) By the duration of silence maintained in the class
Ans : (C)
60. Another name of Basic Education or Nai Talim is—
(A) Compulsory Education
(B) New Education Policy
(C) Wardha Education Plan
(D) Sarva Shikshya Abhiyan
Ans : (C)
61. If you would be a teacher, how would you like to behave with your students ?
(A) Autocratic
(B) Democratic
(C) Laissezfare
(D) As the conditions permit
Ans : (B)
62. When you are mal-treated in your class as a new comer then how will you deal with the students ?
(A) Through tough punitive measures
(B) Through warning of expulsion
(C) Through improving your qualities
(D) You leave the class
Ans : (C)
63. If students alleged you for making favouritism in evaluation, how can you deal with this problem ?
(A) Giving threat to fail them
(B) Making efforts to reveal the position fairly
(C) Adopting punitive measures
(D) Showing the student’s answer-books in order to satisfy them
Ans : (D)
64. A scheduled caste student is admitted in your class. The other class-mates treat him as untouchable and live in isolation. How would you give him better adjustment in the class ?
(A) By putting examples by his own deeds
(B) By preaching
(C) By showing fear of legal actions
(D) By justifying the plight of downtroddens
Ans : (A)
65. A child has nail-biting habit in the class. How could you improve his habit ?
(A) You leave it because it is not a dangerous disease
(B) You attempt to mould his behaviour under strict observation
(C) You insult him in the class
(D) You make a complaint with his parent
Ans : (B)
66. When a stubborn, submissive and shameful child is sitting in your class, you think about him as he is a—
(A) Good-natured child
(B) Emotionally-disturbed child
(C) Disciplined and obedient child
(D) Serious and studious child
Ans : (C)
67. Teachers need to study educational philosophy mainly, because—
(A) Few, if any, teachers have a philosophy
(B) Most teachers follow a wrong philosophy
(C) Teacher’s are incapable of formulating their own philosophy
(D) Most teacher’s do not know anything about educational philosophy
Ans : (C)
68. Dewey liked best, the following definition of education—
(A) Education as a product
(B) Recapitulation
(C) Acquisition of knowledge
(D) Preparation for life
Ans : (B)
69. Which of the following is not one of the aims and purposes of UNESCO ?
(A) Held an educational isolationism
(B) Promote intellectual interdependence
(C) Helps to unite peoples of the world
(D) Promote pride in nationalistic groups
Ans : (C)
70. UNESCO has as one of its many promising activities, a campaign to provide—
(A) Education for all adults of the member nations
(B) Universal, free, compulsory primary education
(C) Free education to those who desires it
(D) Indoctrination against the dangers of communism
Ans : (A)
71. Suppose a child has hearing impairment but you have no idea about him. What will be your duty towards the child ?
(A) Recognise the child and manage accordingly
(B) You become neutral because it is not your headache
(C) You send him to specialist for treatment
(D) You report to teachers, parents and principal to send him to a special school
Ans : (A)
72. A student belongs to a very poor family. The student, therefore is unable to pay tuition fee for private coaching but he is eager to get some of his problems solved. What provision will you make for the student ?
(A) Give extra time to him
(B) Refuse to solve his problems as you have no spare time
(C) Creating a terror in him
(D) Not giving the ears to his request
Ans : (A)
73. If an orthopaedically handicapped girl student is studying in your class whose right hand is amputed from elbow, how would you encourage her for study ?
(A) You silently laugh at her
(B) You develop her self-confidence and high morale
(C) You treat her as a cruel creation of God
(D) You behave gently and sympathetically
Ans : (B)
74. When your student in bitten by a stray dog on games field, you do—
(A) Inform his parents and impart first-aid immediately
(B) Washing the wound with clean water and leave it open
(C) Ask financial help from school for rabies vaccination
(D) Giving personal assistance in his treatment
Ans : (C)
75. If a student wants to satisfy some querry in question-paper then—
(A) You will clarify the printing mistake
(B) You will inform the concerned subject’s teacher
(C) You will advise him to wait till the correction is being confirmed
(D) Furiously tell him to do as he understands
Ans : (A)
76. It is easier to predict ................ on the basis of aptitude testing than success in an occupation.
(A) Failure
(B) Temperament
(C) Interest
(D) Adjustment
Ans : (A)
77. Frustration for the motives causes—
(A) Inferiority
(B) Anxiety
(C) Inefficiency
(D) Behaviour disorder
Ans : (D)
78. The teacher who has developed an interest in teaching—
(A) Studies problems of student behaviour
(B) Compares different types of tests
(C) Refuses to be guided by the rules of thumb
(D) Cannot deal with children effectively
Ans : (A)
79. The teacher who can apply the principles of Educational Psychology—
(A) Has pride in the teaching profession
(B) Can provide readymade solutions
(C) Adjusts his method to suit the needs of individual children
(D) Compares the theories of learning
Ans : (C)
80. Which of the following is an audio-visual aid ?
(A) Radio
(B) Tape-recorder
(C) Television
(D) Projector
Ans : (C)
81. Motives arouse behaviour and direct it towards an/a—
(A) Appropriate goal
(B) Inference
(C) Prediction
(D) None of the rest
Ans : (A)
82. Learning which involves motor organs is called—
(A) Sensory learning
(B) Motor learning
(C) Verbal learning
(D) Sensory-motor learning
Ans : (B)
83. Find the odd one out—
(A) Recall
(B) Recognition
(C) Trace
(D) Remembering
Ans : (C)
84. The problem child is generally one who has—
(A) An unsolved problem
(B) A poor heredity
(C) A poor home environment
(D) A younger brother or sister
Ans : (A)
85. The First Kindergarten was started by—
(A) Friedrich Froebel
(B) Benjamin Franklin
(C) Johann Pestalozzi
(D) De Witt Clinton
Ans : (A)
86. Rousseau’s major contribution to modern education was the—
(A) Kindergarten
(B) Philanthropy
(C) Use of objects in teaching
(D) Philosophy of Naturalism
Ans : (D)
87. Which of the following is most characteristic of a good teacher ?
(A) He sticks to one activity at a time and completes what he starts before starting something else
(B) He is not afraid of losing dignity when he participates in children’s activities
(C) He puts more do’s than don’ts in his comments to children
(D) He remains objective and impersonal at all times
Ans : (C)
88. A prime requisite for one who enters the teaching profession is—
(A) An IQ of over 125
(B) Public speaking ability
(C) Good health
(D) Extra income
Ans : (C)
89. There is an intimate relationship between the—
(A) Teachers and Educationists
(B) Planned and unplanned School Learning
(C) School and Society
(D) Parents and Children’s Thinking
Ans : (C)
90. Four conditions that must exist in a classroom before any motivational strategies can be successful—
(A) The teacher must be a supportive person
(B) The classroom must be disorganized
(C) The tasks set for students must not be authentic
(D) Constant disruption in class
Ans : (A)
91. The students of today are—
(A) Careless and negligent
(B) Not devoted to studies
(C) Dedicated to studies
(D) Of sharp mind
Ans : (D)
92. Government Policy on Education regards Education a unique—
(A) Consumption
(B) Investment
(C) Source of income
(D) Expenditure
Ans : (B)
93. Motivation is the release of ................ by proceeding towards a goal.
(A) Pride
(B) Tension
(C) Knowledge
(D) Power
Ans : (B)
94. Helping people in the neighbourhood to solve behavioural problems is in the purview of—
(A) Community Psychology
(B) Neighbourhood Psychology
(C) Genetic Psychology
(D) Developmental Psychology
Ans : (A)
95. Nature and Nurture refer to—
(A) Internal and External Environment
(B) Temperament and character
(C) Physical features and temperament
(D) Heredity and Environment
Ans : (D)
96. Acquisition of information and knowledge is—
(A) Ability to learn
(B) Ability to adjust
(C) Ability to memorise
(D) None of the rest
Ans : (A)
97. Motivation should be followed by—
(A) Reward
(B) Reproof
(C) Knowledge of result
(D) Incentive
Ans : (A)
98. The motivated teacher will have following attributes—
(A) Unrealistic level of Aspiration
(B) Goal-directed behaviour
(C) Dissatisfaction
(D) Deprivation of needs
Ans : (B)
99. The teacher should promote—
(A) Anxiety among the students to complete the syllabus in a hurry
(B) Harassing the students for completing the work
(C) Encouraging interactive communication among students
(D) Punishment to a student whenever he puts a question
Ans : (C)
100. Teachers and parents give more importance to the development of intelligence among students as it facilitates—
(A) Academic achievement and social respectability
(B) Less risk taking behaviour
(C) Dependence behaviour
(D) Obedient behaviour
Ans : (A)
Friday, 23 September 2011
JOINT ADMISSION TEST (IIT-JAM) for M.Sc. 2012
Admission to M.Sc. (Two Year), Joint M.Sc.-Ph.D., M.Sc.-Ph.D. Dual Degree and other post-bachelor’s degree programmes
Eligibility Requirements For Admission
The candidates who qualify in JAM 2012 shall have to fulfill the following eligibility criteria for admissions in IITs. (i) At least 55% aggregate marks (taking into account all subjects, including languages and subsidiaries, all years combined) for General/OBC category candidates and at least 50% aggregate marks (taking into account all subjects, including languages and subsidiaries, all years combined) for SC, ST and PD category candidates in the qualifying degree.
For candidates with letter grades/CGPA (instead of percentage of marks), the equivalence in percentage of marks will be decided by the Admitting Institute(s).
(ii) Proof of having passed the qualifying degree with the minimum educational qualification as specified by the admitting institute should be submitted by 30 September 2012.
Test papers and corresponding academic programmes
The candidates who qualify in JAM 2012 shall have to fulfill the following eligibility criteria for admissions in IITs. (i) At least 55% aggregate marks (taking into account all subjects, including languages and subsidiaries, all years combined) for General/OBC category candidates and at least 50% aggregate marks (taking into account all subjects, including languages and subsidiaries, all years combined) for SC, ST and PD category candidates in the qualifying degree.
For candidates with letter grades/CGPA (instead of percentage of marks), the equivalence in percentage of marks will be decided by the Admitting Institute(s).
(ii) Proof of having passed the qualifying degree with the minimum educational qualification as specified by the admitting institute should be submitted by 30 September 2012.
Test papers and corresponding academic programmes
- Mathematics: M.Sc. Mathematics and Computing / M.Sc. Applied Mathematics/ M.Sc. Industrial Mathematics and Informatics / M.Sc. Mathematics / M.Sc.-Ph.D. Dual Degree in Operations Research/ M.Sc.-Ph.D.
Dual Degree in Environmental Science and Engineering / Joint M.Sc.-Ph.D. Programme in Mathematics/ M.Sc.-Ph.D. Dual Degree Programme in Energy.
- Biotechnology: M.Sc.-Ph.D. Dual Degree in Biotechnology / M.Sc. Biotechnology / M.Sc.-Ph.D. Dual Degree in Environmental Science and Engineering.
- Geology: Joint M.Sc.-Ph.D. Programme in Geology / M.Tech. in Geological Technology / M.Sc. Applied Geology / M.Sc.-Ph.D. Dual Degree in Applied Geology.
- Chemistry: Joint M.Sc.-Ph.D. Programme in Chemistry / M.Sc.-Ph.D. Dual Degree Programme in Energy / M.Sc. Chemistry / M.Sc.-Ph.D. Dual Degree in Environmental Science and Engineering.
- Physics: Joint M.Sc.-Ph.D. Programme in Physics / M.Sc. Ph.D. Dual Degree Programme in Physics / M.Sc. Physics / M.Sc.-Ph.D. Dual Degree in Environmental Science and Engineering / M.Sc.-Ph.D. Dual Degree Programme in Energy.
- Master of Computer Applications (MCA)
- Geophysics: Joint M.Sc.- Ph.D. Programme in Geophysics / M.Sc. Applied Geophysics / M.Sc.-Ph.D. Dual Degree in Applied Geophysics / M.Tech. Geophysical Technology.
- Mathematical Statistics: M.Sc. Statistics / M.Sc.-Ph.D. Dual Degree in Operations Research / M.Sc. Applied Statistics and Informatics.
- Issue of application forms and information brochures at Canara Bank counters or by post only from IIT Bombay: 22 September 2011 (Thursday)
- Commencement of Online Registration: 22 September 2011 (Thursday)
- Last date for receipt of requests at IIT Bombay for the issue of application material by post: 18 October 2011 (Tuesday)
- Last date for issue of application forms and information brochures at Bank counters: 22 October 2011 (Saturday)
- Last date for Online Registration on the website / website closure: 25 October 2011 (Tuesday) at 18:00 hrs
- Last date for receipt of completed OMR application form along with Pay-in-slip and Demand Draft (if any) at IIT Bombay: 1 November 2011 (Tuesday)
- Last date for receipt of completed Online Registration Form along with Demand Draft at IIT Bombay: 1 November 2011 (Tuesday)
- Date of JAM 2012 Test: 12 February 2012 (Sunday)
- Announcement of the result of JAM 2012: 10 April 2012 (Tuesday) at 17:00 hrs
- Issue of application form(s) for admission by JAM Office of IIT Bombay / downloading from the website of IIT Bombay starts: 12 April 2012 (Thursday)
- Last date for receipt of completed application forms for admission along with Demand Draft of Rs. 300/- at IIT Bombay: 30 April 2012 (Monday)
CEED (Common Entrance Examination for Design) 2012
Common Entrance Examination for Design (CEED) is an all India examination conducted by the Indian Institute of Technology Bombay (IIT Bombay), on behalf of the Ministry of Human Resources Development, Government of India.
The objective of CEED is to assess the candidate’s aptitude for design, involving visual perception ability, drawing skills, logical reasoning, creativity, and communication skills.
Programmes:
CEED is a qualifying examination for the following postgraduate programmes in design:
Candidates either must have completed or be expecting to complete any of the following, by July 2012:
(i) Bachelor's degree in Engineering / Architecture / Design/ Interior Design or equivalent
(ii) Professional Diploma in Design (NID/CEPT or equivalent of 4 years duration after 10+2)
(iii) B.F.A. (4 year professional programme, after 10+2)
(iv) G.D. Art (5 year programme after 10th) with one year professional experience
(v) Master’s degree in Arts / Science / Computer Applications
The candidate is responsible for showing eligibility while seeking admission to the specific programme in which they are interested.
There is no age limit and a candidate can appear in CEED any number of times.
What is new in CEED 2012?
PART-B will be evaluated for candidates who will be short-listed in the screening test
Application Form and Brochure:
CEED Application Form must be submitted online, through the website www.iitb.ac.in/gate. The application fee (non refundable) is Rs. 950/- (Rs. 475/- for SC/ST/PD Applicants).
Examination:
The examination is from 1400 hours to 1700 hours on Sunday, 4th December, 2011 and will not have any break.
Important Dates
Programmes:
CEED is a qualifying examination for the following postgraduate programmes in design:
- Master of Design Programmes
IISc Bangalore: M.Des. in Product Design and Engineering*
IIT Bombay: M.Des. in (i) Industrial Design, (ii) Visual Communication, (iii) Animation, (iv) Interaction Design, (v) Mobility and Vehicle Design.
IIT Delhi: M.Des. in Industrial Design
IIT Guwahati: M.Des. in Design
IIT Kanpur: M.Des. in Industrial Design*
*GATE qualified candidates will also be considered for admission to these programmes.
- Ph.D Programmes in Design (IISc Bangalore, IIT Bombay)
Details may be obtained from respective web sites.
Candidates either must have completed or be expecting to complete any of the following, by July 2012:
(i) Bachelor's degree in Engineering / Architecture / Design/ Interior Design or equivalent
(ii) Professional Diploma in Design (NID/CEPT or equivalent of 4 years duration after 10+2)
(iii) B.F.A. (4 year professional programme, after 10+2)
(iv) G.D. Art (5 year programme after 10th) with one year professional experience
(v) Master’s degree in Arts / Science / Computer Applications
The candidate is responsible for showing eligibility while seeking admission to the specific programme in which they are interested.
There is no age limit and a candidate can appear in CEED any number of times.
What is new in CEED 2012?
- CEED 2012 examination will be conducted on Sunday, 4 December 2011 between 14:00 hrs to 17:00 hrs. This is approximately one month earlier than previous years.
- The examination will be conducted in two Parts, A and B. All candidates must answer both Parts.
PART-B will be evaluated for candidates who will be short-listed in the screening test
Application Form and Brochure:
CEED Application Form must be submitted online, through the website www.iitb.ac.in/gate. The application fee (non refundable) is Rs. 950/- (Rs. 475/- for SC/ST/PD Applicants).
Examination:
The examination is from 1400 hours to 1700 hours on Sunday, 4th December, 2011 and will not have any break.
Important Dates
- Access to Application through website: 12 Sept. 2011 – 7 Oct. 2011
- Last Date for submitting of Application (Website closure): Friday, 7 Oct. 2011
- Last Date for Receipt of Completed Application at the GATE Office, IIT Bombay: Friday, 14 Oct. 2011
- A Candidate can contact GATE Office, IIT Bombay for non-receipt of admit card: Tuesday, 22 November 2011
- Date of Examination: Sunday, 4 December 2011 (1400 to 1700 hours)
- Announcement of Results: Friday, 20 January 2012 (after 1000 hours)
Joint CSIR-UGC NET
CSIR will hold the Joint CSIR-UGC Test on 18th December, 2011 for determining the eligibility of the Indian National candidates for the award of Junior Research Fellowships (JRF) NET and for determining eligibility for appointment of Lecturers (NET) in certain subject areas falling under the faculty of Science. The award of Junior Research Fellowship (NET) to the successful eligible candidates will depend on their finding admission/placement in a university/ national laboratory/ institution of higher learning and research, as applicable.
A candidate may apply either for ‘JRF + Lectureship’ or for ‘Lectureship (LS) only’ He/she may indicate his/her preference in the O.M.R Application Form/Online Application, as the case may be. CSIR may consider candidates applying for ‘JRF + LS’ or ‘Lectureship only” depending on number of fellowships available & performance in the test subject to the condition that they fulfill the laid down eligibility criterion .
Educational Qualification
M.Sc. or Equivalent degree under the subjects mentioned in para 2.1 above, with minimum 55% marks for General & OBC candidates; 50% for SC/ST candidates, Physically and Visually Handicapped candidates and Ph.D. degree holders who had passed Master's degree prior to 19th September 1991.
Age Limit& Relaxation For JRF (NET): Minimum 19 Years and maximum 28 years as on 01-07-2011 (upper age limit may be relaxed up to 5 years as in case of candidates belonging to SC/ ST/ OBC(Non Creamy Layer), Physically handicapped/Visually handicapped and female applicants).
For LS (NET): Minimum 19 years, as on 01.07.2011. No upper age limit.
Subjects of the Test
The Test will be held in the subjects as given under:
1. Chemical Sciences,
2. Earth Sciences
3. Life Sciences
4. Mathematical Sciences
5. Physical Sciences
Date and Scheme of the Test
The single paper MCQ based test will be held on Sunday, the 18th December, 2011 as under:
How to apply:
Option-I: Apply Through Information Bulletin:
By Hand: Candidates applying for the Test may obtain the Information Bulletin and Application forms (inclusive of fee payable) through the branches of the Bank notified below in para 5.4 (within the prescribed dates) by paying the requisite fee in cash:
OR
By Post: The information Bulletin and Application form may also be obtained through Value Payable Post(V.P.P.) from the Indian Bank,
3/1, West Patel Nagar, New Delhi - 110 008, by sending a crossed Demand draft for Rs. 400/-, Rs. 200/- or Rs.100/-(as the case may be) drawn in favour of “Indian Bank, West Patel Nagar, New Delhi” payable at New Delhi.
Option-II: Apply Through Online Application
Interested & eligible candidates may apply for this test Online through a link available at CSIR, HRDG website: www.csirhrdg.res.in.
Important Dates:
A candidate may apply either for ‘JRF + Lectureship’ or for ‘Lectureship (LS) only’ He/she may indicate his/her preference in the O.M.R Application Form/Online Application, as the case may be. CSIR may consider candidates applying for ‘JRF + LS’ or ‘Lectureship only” depending on number of fellowships available & performance in the test subject to the condition that they fulfill the laid down eligibility criterion .
Educational Qualification
M.Sc. or Equivalent degree under the subjects mentioned in para 2.1 above, with minimum 55% marks for General & OBC candidates; 50% for SC/ST candidates, Physically and Visually Handicapped candidates and Ph.D. degree holders who had passed Master's degree prior to 19th September 1991.
Age Limit& Relaxation For JRF (NET): Minimum 19 Years and maximum 28 years as on 01-07-2011 (upper age limit may be relaxed up to 5 years as in case of candidates belonging to SC/ ST/ OBC(Non Creamy Layer), Physically handicapped/Visually handicapped and female applicants).
For LS (NET): Minimum 19 years, as on 01.07.2011. No upper age limit.
Subjects of the Test
The Test will be held in the subjects as given under:
1. Chemical Sciences,
2. Earth Sciences
3. Life Sciences
4. Mathematical Sciences
5. Physical Sciences
Date and Scheme of the Test
The single paper MCQ based test will be held on Sunday, the 18th December, 2011 as under:
- Morning Session: 9.00AM-12.00PM
(i) Life Sciences
(ii) Mathematical Sciences
Marks: 200
- Afternoon Session: 2.00 PM-5.00 PM
(i) Chemical Sciences
(ii) Earth, Atmospheric, Ocean and Planetary Sciences
(iii) Physical Sciences
Marks: 200
How to apply:
Option-I: Apply Through Information Bulletin:
By Hand: Candidates applying for the Test may obtain the Information Bulletin and Application forms (inclusive of fee payable) through the branches of the Bank notified below in para 5.4 (within the prescribed dates) by paying the requisite fee in cash:
OR
By Post: The information Bulletin and Application form may also be obtained through Value Payable Post(V.P.P.) from the Indian Bank,
3/1, West Patel Nagar, New Delhi - 110 008, by sending a crossed Demand draft for Rs. 400/-, Rs. 200/- or Rs.100/-(as the case may be) drawn in favour of “Indian Bank, West Patel Nagar, New Delhi” payable at New Delhi.
Option-II: Apply Through Online Application
Interested & eligible candidates may apply for this test Online through a link available at CSIR, HRDG website: www.csirhrdg.res.in.
Important Dates:
- Date of Single MCQ Examination: 18.12.2011
- Schedule for sale of Information Bulletin through Bank
(i) Start of sale of Information Bulletin: 16.08.2011
(ii) Date of close of sale of Information Bulletin by post only: 30.08.2011
(iii) Date of close of sale of Information Bulletin by cash at all branches/ stations: 05.09.2011
- Schedule for On-Line Application
(i) Start of On-Line Submission of Application Form and Fee deposit through Bank Challan: 16.08.2011
(ii) Date of close of On-Line deposit of fee (at All stations): 05.09.2011
(iii) Date of close of On-Line submission of Applications (at All stations): 06.09.2011
- Last date of receipt of completed application forms (including duly completed hard copy of on line application in the Examination Unit: 09.09.2011
- Last date of receipt of (both kind) Completed application forms (from remote areas): 16.09.2011
- Last Date for receipt of written request for change of Examination Centre only on merit basis: 03.10.2011
- Publication of list of candidates registered for test on CSIR, HRDG website: 01.11.2011
- Last date for entertainment of any representation about non-registration for this test: 08.11.2011
- Start of dispatch of Admission Certificate to eligible candidates last week of Nov., 2011
Common Admission Test (CAT) 2011
The Indian Institutes of Management will conduct Common Admission Test 2011 (CAT 2011) during a 20 days testing window between October 22, 2011 and November 18, 2011. CAT 2011 will be conducted by IIMs as a Pre-requisite for admission to various management programs of IIMs.
PG Programs in Management:
1. IIM Ahmadabad: PGP and PGP-ABM
2. IIM Bangalore: PGP, PGSEM and PGPPM
3. IIM Calcutta: PGP-PGDM and PGP-PGDCM
4. IIM Indore: PGP and EPGP
5. IIM Kashipur: PGP
6. IIM Kozhikode: PGP
7. IIM Lucknow: PGP and PGP-ABM
8. IIM Raipur: PGP
9. IIM Ranchi: PGDM and PGDHRM
10. IIM Rohtak: PGP
11. RGII< Shillong: PGP
12. IIM Tiruchirapalli: PGP
13. IIM Udaipur: PGP
Fellow Programs in Management (FPM) (equivalent to Ph D) of IIMA, IIMB, IIMC, IIM Indore, IIM, Kozhikode, IIM Lucknow, IIM Raipur, IIM Ranchi and IIM Tiruchirapalli
Separate advertisements will appear for Fellow Program of each institute as well as PGP-ABM of IIM A and IIM Lucknow, PGSEM and PGPPM of IIMB, PGDCM of IIM Calcutta, EPGP of IIM Indore and PGDHRM of IIM Ranchi. Before a prospective candidate makes a decision to appear for CAT2011, he/ she must visit the websites and read program advertisements of the concerned IIMs and specific programs to ensure which programs they want to apply for.
Note: CAT 2011 scores are restricted only for admission to IIMs and non-IIM member institutions
CAT Eligibility
Each IIM shortlists candidates for second stage of selection which may be independent of each other. The process may include
1. IIM Ahmadabad: PGP and PGP-ABM
2. IIM Bangalore: PGP, PGSEM and PGPPM
3. IIM Calcutta: PGP-PGDM and PGP-PGDCM
4. IIM Indore: PGP and EPGP
5. IIM Kashipur: PGP
6. IIM Kozhikode: PGP
7. IIM Lucknow: PGP and PGP-ABM
8. IIM Raipur: PGP
9. IIM Ranchi: PGDM and PGDHRM
10. IIM Rohtak: PGP
11. RGII< Shillong: PGP
12. IIM Tiruchirapalli: PGP
13. IIM Udaipur: PGP
Fellow Programs in Management (FPM) (equivalent to Ph D) of IIMA, IIMB, IIMC, IIM Indore, IIM, Kozhikode, IIM Lucknow, IIM Raipur, IIM Ranchi and IIM Tiruchirapalli
Separate advertisements will appear for Fellow Program of each institute as well as PGP-ABM of IIM A and IIM Lucknow, PGSEM and PGPPM of IIMB, PGDCM of IIM Calcutta, EPGP of IIM Indore and PGDHRM of IIM Ranchi. Before a prospective candidate makes a decision to appear for CAT2011, he/ she must visit the websites and read program advertisements of the concerned IIMs and specific programs to ensure which programs they want to apply for.
Note: CAT 2011 scores are restricted only for admission to IIMs and non-IIM member institutions
CAT Eligibility
- The candidate must hold a Bachelor’s Degree, with at least 50% marks or equivalent CGPA [45% in case of the candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste (SC), Scheduled Tribe (ST) and Differently Abled (DA) or possess an equivalent qualification recognized by the Ministry of HRD, Government of India.
- Candidates appearing for the final year of bachelor’s degree/equivalent qualification examination and those who have completed degree requirements and are awaiting results can also apply. If selected, such candidates will be allowed to join the programme provisionally, only if he/she submits a certificate latest by June 30, 2012 from the Principal/ Registrar of his/ her College/ Institute (issued on or before June 30, 2012) stating that the candidate has completed all the requirements for obtaining the bachelor’s degree/ equivalent qualification on the date of the issue of the certificate.
Each IIM shortlists candidates for second stage of selection which may be independent of each other. The process may include
- Written Ability Test (WAT),
- Group Discussions (GD) and
- Personal Interviews (PI)
Performance in CAT2011 examination is an important component in the admission process. IIMs may use previous academic performance of the candidates, relevant work experience and other similar inputs in short listing and ranking of candidates at various stages of the admission process. The processes, academic cut-offs and the weights allocated to the evaluation parameters may vary across IIMs. For more information, you may refer the admissions policies of IIMs from their respective websites
CAT Result and Short-listing
CAT 2011 result will be announced on 11 January 2012 on the CAT website. List of shortlisted candidates for the next level of selection will be made available on the individual IIM websites. Each IIM will send interview letters to the candidates it has short-listed. The criteria for short-listing varies from IIM to IIM. Please visit the admission hotlinks of the respective websites of IIMs for further information.
Sale of CAT 2011 Vouchers
Before registering and scheduling for your test, you will need to purchase a CAT 2011 voucher from any of the selected Axis Bank branches between Wednesday, 17 August and Monday, 26 September 2011.
For a list of participating bank branches Click here
How to Register:
You must purchase a CAT 2011 voucher from selected list of Axis Bank branches prior to beginning the online registration process. More information may be found on www.catiim.in.
To register to take the CAT 2011, go to www.catiim.in and click on the “Register for CAT 2011” link. You can register and schedule for the CAT 2011 from 17 August – 28 September 2011.
During registration, you will:
1. Create a profile.
2. Fill out the CAT application.
3. Schedule your test.
Important Dates:
CAT Result and Short-listing
CAT 2011 result will be announced on 11 January 2012 on the CAT website. List of shortlisted candidates for the next level of selection will be made available on the individual IIM websites. Each IIM will send interview letters to the candidates it has short-listed. The criteria for short-listing varies from IIM to IIM. Please visit the admission hotlinks of the respective websites of IIMs for further information.
Sale of CAT 2011 Vouchers
Before registering and scheduling for your test, you will need to purchase a CAT 2011 voucher from any of the selected Axis Bank branches between Wednesday, 17 August and Monday, 26 September 2011.
For a list of participating bank branches Click here
How to Register:
You must purchase a CAT 2011 voucher from selected list of Axis Bank branches prior to beginning the online registration process. More information may be found on www.catiim.in.
To register to take the CAT 2011, go to www.catiim.in and click on the “Register for CAT 2011” link. You can register and schedule for the CAT 2011 from 17 August – 28 September 2011.
During registration, you will:
1. Create a profile.
2. Fill out the CAT application.
3. Schedule your test.
Important Dates:
- Sale of CAT Vouchers: Wednesday, 17 August 2011 - Monday, 26 September 2011
- Registration for CAT 2011: Wednesday, 17 August 2011 - Wednesday, 28 September 2011
- CAT Test Dates: Saturday, 22 October 2011 - Friday, 18 November 2011
- CAT Result: Wednesday 11 January 2012
SNAP Test for Symbiosis Postgraduate Programmes
Symbiosis National Aptitude (SNAP) Test is a common and mandatory written test for the admission to all the Post-Graduate Institutes of Symbiosis International University. However, it is only the first step. In addition, a candidate has to undergo the selection process of the desired Institute to qualify for the admission to the Post-Graduate programme of that Institute.
SIU has started with effect from this year Commence an additional test for non-MBA Courses as follows:
1) SIMC – MMC- (For Pune campus only)
2) SIG – M. Sc (Geoinformatics)
These tests would enable admission for students selecting the MMC course of SIMC (Pune) and for the M. Sc (Geoinformatics) course of SIG. However in addition to this candidates appearing for SNAP Test are also eligible for SIMC – MMC-(For Pune campus only) and SIG – M. Sc (Geoinformatics).
Eligibility :
To apply for SNAP one should be a graduate having scored at least 50% (general) or 45% (SC/ST) marks. Final year students can also apply.
SNAP Test Structure
SIU has started with effect from this year Commence an additional test for non-MBA Courses as follows:
1) SIMC – MMC- (For Pune campus only)
2) SIG – M. Sc (Geoinformatics)
These tests would enable admission for students selecting the MMC course of SIMC (Pune) and for the M. Sc (Geoinformatics) course of SIG. However in addition to this candidates appearing for SNAP Test are also eligible for SIMC – MMC-(For Pune campus only) and SIG – M. Sc (Geoinformatics).
Eligibility :
To apply for SNAP one should be a graduate having scored at least 50% (general) or 45% (SC/ST) marks. Final year students can also apply.
SNAP Test Structure
- General English: Reading Comprehension, Verbal Reasoning, Verbal Ability - 40 marks
- Quantitative, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency – 40 marks
- General Awareness: General Knowledge, Current Affairs, Business Scenario - 40 marks
- Analytical & Logical Reasoning – 60 marks
- Registration Closes on November 23, 2011 - Wednesday
- Payment Closes on November 25, 2011 – Friday
- SNAP Test 2011 December 18, 2011 – Sunday Time: 2pm to 4pm
- Announcement of Result January 12, 2012 - Thursday
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