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Showing posts with label UPPSC. Show all posts
Showing posts with label UPPSC. Show all posts

Thursday, 6 October 2011

UTTAR PRADESH G.I.C. FOR LECTURER EXAM., 2009 –

Geography and General Studies
Part-I
Geography
1.   “Geography  must  serve  the cause of human welfare.” This standpoint is represented by—
(A)   The ecological school
(B)   The locational school
(C)   The traditional school
(D)   The radical school
2.   Which one of the following is related to the origin of folded mountains ?
(A)   Accreting Plate Margin
(B)   Consuming Plate Margin
(C)   Conservative Plate Margin
(D)   Intra-Plate area
3.   Which one of the following is associated with fault ?
(A)   Hogback
(B)   Strike valley
(C)   Graben
(D)   Anticlinorium
4.   Which of the following is the basis for The Airy’s Theory of Isostasy ?
(A)   Law of floatation
(B)   Law of compensation
(C)   Principle of varying density
(D)   Principle of uniform depth
5.   Geography was characterized by ‘dualism’ during—
(A)   Classical (Romantic) Period
(B)   Renaissance Period
(C)   Post Darwinian Period
(D)   Modern Period (Post World War II)
6.   Study the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
I.      Dust particles promote scat-tering but obstruct reflection of solar energy in the atmos-phere.
II.    Dust particles help in the process of condensation.
III.   Dust particles are respon-sible  for  stability  of  the atmosphere.
IV.   Dust particles are responsible for causing blue colour of the sky.
Codes :
(A)   I and II are true
(B)   II and III are true
(C)   III and IV are true
(D)   II and IV are true
7.   Which one of the following racial groups is identified by external features like wavy hair, brown to white skin colour and medium to high stature ?
(A)   Caucasoid
(B)   Negroid
(C)   Mongoloid
(D)   Negrito
8.   Match  List-I  with  List-II  and select the correct answer from the codes—
List-I                   List-II
(Era)                     (Period)
(a)    Palaeozoic       1.  Jurassic
(b)   Mesozoic          2.      Archaean
(c)    Pre-cambrian  3.  Neocene
(d)   Cainozoic        4.  Silurian
Codes :
(a)      (b)      (c)      (d)
(A)    1         4         2         3
(B)     4         1         2         3
(C)    1         4         3         2
(D)    4         1         3         2
9.   The concept of ‘Geography as the study of the relations between man  and  environment’  was advocated by—
(A)   H. H. Barrows
(B)   Friedrich Ratzel
(C)   J. Clarke
(D)   Richard Hartshorne
10.   Tafoni landforms are found in—
(A)   Polar areas
(B)   Desert areas
(C)   Monsoon areas
(D)   Mediterranean areas
11.   Isogonic lines are drawn joining the places having—
(A)   Equal air pressure
(B)   Equal salinity of sea water
(C)   Equal magnetic declination
(D)   Equal temperature
12.   Match  List-I  with  List-II  and select the correct answer from the code—
List-I
(a)    Equatorial Domes
(b)   Transgressional Sea
(c)    Level of no strain
(d)   Rising column
List-II
1.   Thermal Contraction Theory
2.   Convectional Current Theory
3.   Sliding Continent Theory
4.   Radioactivity Theory
Codes :
(a)      (b)      (c)      (d)
(A)    2        1         4         3
(B)     4        3         2         1
(C)    1        3         2         4
(D)    3        4         1         2
13.   Which one of the following is the landform of Karst Region ?
(A)   Ramp Valley
(B)   Hanging Valley
(C)   Zeugen
(D)   Blind Valley
14.   Which one of the following is known as ‘thunder cloud’ ?
(A)   Cirro – cumulus cloud
(B)   Cirro – stratus cloud
(C)   Cumulo – nimbus cloud
(D)   Strato – cumulus cloud
15.   Study the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes—
I.     The average density of the rocks of lower crust is 3.
II.    There is gradual increase in the velocity of the seismic waves at the base of the lower crust.
III.   The mantle core boundary is determined by the Moho-discontinuity.
IV.  The outer core of the earth is in molten form :
Codes :
(A)   I and II are correct
(B)   II and III are correct
(C)   III and IV are correct
(D)   I and IV are correct
16.   Which  one  of  the  following    soils is found in the coniferous forests ?
(A)   Podsol        (B)  Latozol
(C)   Chestnut   (D)  Chernozem
17.   Which  one  of  the  following climates  results  due  to  the seasonal shifting of the planetary pressure belts and winds ?
(A)   Equilateral climate
(B)   Desert climate
(C)   West European climate
(D)   Mediterranean climate
18.   Which one of the following is a correct statement ?
(A)   Antecedent  streams  are adjusted to geological structure
(B)   Antecedent streams are sequent streams
(C)   Antecedent  streams  are insequent streams
(D)   Antecedent  streams  are consequent streams
19.   Daly’s ‘Glacial Control Theory’ explains—
(A)   The origin of atolls
(B)   The origin of pingos
(C)   The  origin  of  patterned ground
(D)   The sea level changes
20.   Quarzite is formed by the meta-morphosis of—
(A)   Sandstone  (B)  Lime stone
(C)   Hematite   (D)  Granite
21.   Cosnider the following state-ments and select the correct answer from the codes.
Assertion (A) : Arunachal Pradesh has vast potential of hydro-power production.
Reason (R) : Arunachal Pradesh receives more rainfall.
Codes :
(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)   Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct expla-nation of (A)
(C)  (A) is true but (R) is false
(D)  (A) is false but (R) is true
22.   There will be greater probability of ‘River capture’ when—
(A)   The base level will rise
(B)   The base level will fall
(C)   There is uniform gradient on both sides of the water divide
(D)   There is sharp difference in the gradient on both sides of the water divide
23.   Which one of the following state-ments  is  associated  with prevalence of air transportation in Indonesia is not correct ?
(A)   Air  transport  is  more popular
(B)   Most surface transport is not well developed
(C)   Most  of  the  people  are engaged in industry and trade
(D)   Flowers are exported by air transport
24.   The first attempt to divide world into natural regions was made by—
(A)   A. Hettner
(B)   A. O. Herbertson
(C)   Vidal-de-la-Blache
(D)   Carl Sauer
25.   Who of the following gave the dictum of Place Æ Work Æ Folk ?
(A)   Alexander Von Humboldt
(B)   Carl Ritter
(C)   E. Recluse
(D)   Fredric Le Play
26.   Which of the following does not figure in the population policy, declared by the Govt. of India ?
(A)   To attain population stabi-lity by 2045
(B)   To deprive any couple pro-ducing more than two children from all Govt. facilities / conces-sions
(C)   To fulfil the demand for con-traceptives
(D)   To pay fixed cash to the couple,  belonging  to  the scheduled castes on the birth of a baby
27.   ‘Any kind of relationship cannot make the subject-matter of Geo-graphy.’ This view was given by—
(A)   F. Ratzel
(B)   J. Brunhes
(C)   A. Hettner
(D)   A. J. Herbertson
28.   The book ‘A Hundred Years of Geography’ is authored by—
(A)   W. Bunge
(B)   R. Hartshorne
(C)   D. Harvey
(D)   T. W. Freeman
29.   Consider  the  following  state-ments and select the correct ans-wer using codes given below—
Assertion (A) : The long profile of a graded river is a profile of equilibrium.
Reason (R) : The   transporting capacity of a river is the function of channel gradient.
Codes :
(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)  (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D)  (A) is false, but (R) is true
30.   Who amongst the following used hair texture to classify world races in five major categories ?
(A)   A. L. Kroeber
(B)   Bluemen Basve
(C)   T. Huxley
(D)   Von Eickstedt
31.   The  principle  of  Activity  in Human Geography was intro-duced by—
(A)   J. Brunhes
(B)   F. Ratzel
(C)   Vidal de La Blache
(D)   R. Hartshorne
32.   Who amongst the following geographers first used the term ‘Pragmatic Possibilism’ ?
(A)   C. Ritter      (B)  G. Tatham
(C)   J. Brunhes   (D)  G. Taylor
33.   During  the  20th  century  the highest growth rate in popu-lation was observed in—
(A)   Africa
(B)   Latin America
(C)   Asia
(D)   Oceania
34.   Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes—
List-I                  List-II
(Tribe)               (Habitat)
(a)    Bushman   1.  Greenland
(b)   Boro           2.  Congo Basin
(c)    Pygmy      3.  Amazon Basin
(d)   Eskimo      4.  Kalahari
Codes
(a)      (b)      (c)      (d)
(A)    1         2         3         4
(B)     2         3         4         1
(C)    4         3         2         1
(D)    4         2         3         1
35.   Who  amongst  the  following developed the model of ‘Loca-tional Triangle’ ?
(A)   Walter Christaller
(B)   Max Weber
(C)   August Loseh
(D)   Alfred Weber
36.   The concept of ‘Growth Pole’ was propounded by—
(A)   J. R. Lanson
(B)   G. Myrdal
(C)   A. R. Kuklinski
(D)   F. Perroux
37.   Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
(A)   Pampas      –     Paraguay
(B)   Prairies      –     Canada
(C)   Steppes       –     Poland
(D)   Downs        –     South Africa
38.   Cement industry is generally located near the—
(A)   Source of raw material
(B)   Market
(C)   Source of labour
(D)   Source of power
39.   Who  among  the  following  is associated with the concept of ‘areal functional organization’ ?
(A)   A. K. Philbrick
(B)   F. K. Schaefer
(C)   E. W. Zimmerman
(D)   R. O. Buchanan
40.   Which one of the following does not connote dualism in Geo-graphy ?
(A)   Systematic and Regional Geography
(B)   Physical and Human Geo-graphy
(C)   Human and Economic Geo-graphy
(D)   Classical and Radical Geo-graphy
41.   Which one of the following is not related to the Darwin’s Theory of the Origin of Species ?
(A)   Abrupt speciation
(B)   Adaptation
(C)   Natural selection
(D)   Survival of the fittest
42.   Consider  the  following  state-ments  and  give  the  correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : The ozone layer protects the earth from becoming very hot.
Reason (R) : The  ozone  layer filters the solar radiation.
Codes :
(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)  (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D)  (A) is false, but (R) is true
43.   Consider the following state-ments  and  select  the  correct answer  from  the  codes  given below—
Assertion (A) : Economic deve-lopment leads to environmental degradation.
Reason (R) : Conservation implies  optimum  use  of  the resources.
Codes :
(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)  (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D)  (A) is false, but (R) is true
44.   The concept of Biosphere was initiated by—
(A)   Alexander Von Humboldt
(B)   Edward Suess
(C)   G. Taylor
(D)   E. C. Semple
45.   The basic element of an eco-system is—
(A)   Bio-uniformity
(B)   Bio-diversity
(C)   Energy flow
(D)   Energy loss
46.   Consider  the  following  state-ments  and  select  the  correct answer  from  the  codes  given below—
Assertion (A) : Green plants con-sume carbon dioxide for photo-sysnthesis.
Reason (R) : Deforestation causes global warming.
Codes :
(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)  (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D)  (A) is false, but (R) is true
47.   In which one of the following diagrams the radii of the circles is obtained with the help of the scale of cube root ?
(A)   Sphere diagram
(B)   Circle diagram
(C)   Ring diagram
(D)   Wheel diagram
48.   Which one of the following state-ments about sinusoidal projec-tion is not true ?
(A)   It is an equal-area projection
(B)   The scale is correct on all the parallels
(C)   The scale is correct on all the meridians
(D)   The shape is distorted away from the central meridian
49.   Which one of the following is the most suitable map projection for showing the world distribution of rice cultivation ?
(A)   Bonne Projection
(B)   Mercator Projection
(C)   Mollweide Projection
(D)   Simple  Cylindrical  Projec-tion
50.   If  a  map  having  the  R. F.  of          1 : 50,000 is reduced by 50%, the R. F. of the new map will be—
(A)   1 : 50,000    (B)  1 : 10,000
(C)   1 : 25,000    (D)  1 : 1,00,000
51.   Whic one of the following does not come under primary acti-vities ?
(A)   Forestry
(B)   Grazing
(C)   Financial services
(D)   Plantation farming
52.   The International Map Projection is the modified form of—
(A)   Bonne Projection
(B)   Polyconic Projection
(C)   Simple conical Projection
(D)   Sinusoidal Projection
53.   The length of the equator is correctly shown on—
(A)   Mollweide Projection
(B)   Gall’s Projection
(C)   Polyconic Projection
(D)   Sinusoidal Projection
54.   The graph that shows the total and its parts by a series of lines is known as—
(A)   Poly graph
(B)   Hyther graph
(C)   Band graph
(D)   Bar graph
55.   The highest density of popula-tion is found in—
(A)   Bangladesh
(B)   India
(C)   Pakistan
(D)   Sri Lanka
56.   The Masai Tribe is—
(A)   Pure agrarian
(B)   Food gatherer
(C)   Pastoral cultivator
(D)   Hunter
57.   Agricultural belt between Buenos Aires and Rosario is known for—
(a)    Corn           (b)  Cotton
(c)    Alfalfa        (d)  Livestock
Select the correct answer from the codes—
Codes :
(A)   (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(B)   (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(C)   (c) and (d) are correct
(D)   (a), (c) and (d) are correct
58.   The tropical grasslands are found between—
(A)   5∞–10∞ North and South
(B)   10∞–15∞ North and South
(C)   10∞–25∞ North and South
(D)   20∞–40∞ North and South
59.   Which one of the following rivers crosses the Equator twice ?
(A)   Amazon     (B)  Zaire
(C)   Nile            (D)  Zambezi
60.   Match  List-I  with  List-II  and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I
(Region)
(a)    Bangladesh
(b)   California
(c)    Siberia
(d)   West Australia
List-II
(Climate)
1.     Mediterranean
2.     Cold Temperate
3.     Hot Desert
4.     Tropical Monsoon
Codes :
(a)      (b)         (c)      (d)
(A)    1         2           3         4
(B)     4         1           2         3
(C)    4         3           2         1
(D)    1         3           4         2
61.   Japan has become the leading industrial nation of the world because—
(A)   She has plenty of mineral resources
(B)   She  possesses  abundant fossil fuel
(C)   The industrial revolution started there
(D)   She possesses high technolo-gical capability
62.   The Karaganda Basin is famous for the mining of—
(A)   Iron Ore     (B)  Bauxite
(C)   Copper      (D)  Coal
63.   Which  one  of he  following countries is the largest importer of silk in the world ?
(A)   Brazil          (B)  Italy
(C)   Japan          (D)  China
64.   The  Livestock  ranching  and maize production are well adjus-ted in—
(A)   Argentina
(B)   Australia
(C)   China
(D)   United States of America
65.   Match  List-I  with  List-II  and select the correct answer from the codes—
List-I                  List-II
(River)                (City)
(a)    Irrawaddy   1.  Bangkok
(b)   Red River    2.  Hanoi
(c)    Menam         3.  Yangon
(d)   Mekong       4.  Vientiane
Codes :
(a)      (b)      (c)      (d)
(A)    1         2         3         4
(B)     3         2         1         4
(C)    2         1         3         4
(D)    1         3         4         2
66.   Ranchi Plateau is an example of—
(A)   True peneplain
(B)   Incipient peneplain
(C)   Down warped peneplain
(D)   Uplifted peneplain
67.   The Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone  during  the  South  West monsoon season in India shifts towards the—
(A)   West           (B)  East
(C)   North         (D)  South
68.   Consider   the   following   state-ments   and   select   the   correct answer from the codes—
Assertion (A) : Plantation agri-culture is highly developed in South-East Asia.
Reason (R) : South  East  Asia remained under the European rule for long time.
Codes :
(A)   Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct expla-nation of (A)
(C)   (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D)   (A) is false, but (R) is true
69.   Which  one  of  the  following States has the longest coast line ?
(A)   Gujarat       (B)  Maharashtra
(C)   Kerala        (D)  Tamil Nadu
70.   The Atacama Desert is located in—
(A)   North Africa
(B)   South America
(C)   South West Asia
(D)   Australia
71.   The flat topped terraces made of fine silt in the Kashmir Valley are known as—
(A)   Doon          (B)  Duar
(C)   Karewa      (D)  Char
72.   Which one of the following ports has been developed on a lagoon?
(A)   Kochi
(B)   Vishakhapatnam
(C)   Mumbai
(D)   Chennai
73.   The ergograph was devised by—
(A)   A. G. Ogilvie
(B)   A. Geddes
(C)   A. H. Robinson
(D)   F. J. Monkhouse
74.   The scale of the degree Topo-sheet of India is—
(A)            (B)
(C)          (D)
75.   Consider  the  following  state-ments  and  select  the  correct answer from the codes—
Assertion (A) : China has high density of population in the river valleys and east coast plain.
Reason (R) : Agriculture is the main occupation of the Chinese people.
Codes :
(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)  (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D)  (A) is false, but (R) is true
76.   Which one of the following steel plants  is  lcoated  in  Chhattis- garh ?
(A)   Bokaro       (B)  Durgapur
(C)   Rourkela   (D)  Bhilai
77.   Cinchona is found in the valleys of the—
(A)   Aravalli     (B)  Nilgiris
(C)   Satpuras    (D)  Siwaliks
78.   Consider  the  following  state-ments  and  select  the  correct answer from the codes—
Assertion (A) : In India high intensity seismic belt lies in the Himalayan region.
Reason (R) : In the Himalayan region there are longitudinal thrust zones.
Codes :
(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)  (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D)  (A) is false, but (R) is true
79.   Which one of the following rock systems is the main source of coal in India ?
(A)   Gondwana
(B)   Vindhyan
(C)   Tertiary
(D)   Cudappah
80.   The  climate  of  the  Southern Ganga plain in the Thornth-waite’s classification is denoted by—
(A)   AA’ r (B)  BA’ w
(C)   CA’ w (D)  CB’ w
81.   Consider the following state-ments  and  select  the  correct answer from the codes—
Assertion (A) : Existing drainage pattern of North India is the outcome of the disruption in the Indo-Brahma river system.
Reason (R) : There  has  been upliftment in the Potwar Plateau and subsidence in the Malda Gap area.
Codes :
(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but  (R)  is  not  the  correct explanation of (A)
(C)  (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D)  (A) is false, but (R) is true
82.   Ankaleshwar is famous for—
(A)   Uranium
(B)   Coal
(C)   Petroleum
(D)   Diamond
83.   The core of the Great Himalaya is made up of—
(A)   Quaternary rocks
(B)   Archaean rocks
(C)   Dharwar rocks
(D)   Gondwana rocks
84.   Match   List-I   with   List-II   and select the correct answer from the codes—
List-I                  List-II
(a)    Ox-Bow-Lake   1.  Chilka
(b)   Playa lake         2.  Surha tal
(c)    Crater lake       3.  Lonar
(d)   Lagoon              4.  Sambhar
Codes :
(a)      (b)      (c)      (d)
(A)    2         4         3         1
(B)     1         3         4         2
(C)    2         1         4         3
(D)    3         2         1         4
85.   Match  List-I  with List-II and select  the  correct  answer  from the codes—
List-I                      List-II
(Project)                  (River)
(a)    Almatti            1.  Tapi
(b)   Idukki              2.  Ravi
(c)    Ranjit sagar     3.  Krishna
(d)   Ukai                  4.  Periyar
Codes :
(a)       (b)      (c)      (d)
(A)    3         4        2         1
(B)    4         3        2         1
(C)    1         2        3         4
(D)    2         1        4         3
86.   Which  one  of  the  following rivers is the outcome of faulting ?
(A)   Kaveri        (B)  Mahanadi
(C)   Narmada   (D)  Mahi
87.   Which one of the following rock formations is the richest in plant fossils ?
(A)   Cuddapah  (B)  Siwalik
(C)   Vindhyan  (D)  Gondwana
88.   Study the follwing statements and select the correct answer from the codes—
1.   Regur soil is formed by the weathering of granite.
2.   Laterite soil is the typical soil of  Tropical  areas  charac-terized with seasonal rainfall.
3.   Red soil is rich in ferrous oxide.
4.   Mountain soil is thick and mature soil.
Codes :
(A)   1 and 2        (B)  2 and 3
(C)   3 and 4       (D)  1 and 4
89.   The  rains  caused  by  thunder- storms during summer season in Karnataka are called—
(A)   Garden shower
(B)   Kal Baisakhi
(C)   Cherry blossoms
(D)   Mango showers
90.   Match  List-I  with  List-II  and select the correct answer from the codes—
List-I
(States)
(a)    Uttarakhand
(b)   Rajasthan
(c)    Arunachal Pradesh
(d)   Orissa
List-II
(National Park)
1.     Namdhapa
2.     Simlipal
3.     Rajiv Gandhi National Park
4.     Rajaji National Park
Codes :
(a)      (b)      (c)      (d)
(A)    4         3         1        2
(B)     3         4         2        1
(C)    1         2         3        4
(D)    4         3         2        1
91.   Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I
(State)
(a)    Gujarat
(b)   Maharashtra
(c)    Uttar Pradesh
(d)   Rajasthan
List-II
(Atomic Power Plant)
1.     Rawatbhata
2.     Narora
3.     Kakrapar
4.     Tarapur
Codes :
(a)      (b)      (c)      (d)
(A)    1         2        3         4
(B)     4         3        2         1
(C)    3         4        2         1
(D)    3         1        4         2
92.   The bulk of rainfall along the Coromandal  coast  is  derived from—
(A)   The  retreating   Monsoon Winds
(B)   Seasonal  shifting  of  trade winds
(C)   Depressions originating over central Bay of Bengal
(D)   North East Monsoon Winds
93.   Match  List-I  with  List-II  and select the corect answer from the codes—
List-I                  List-II
(a)    Mineral oil  1.  Jharkhand
(b)   Gypsum       2.  Kerala
(c)    Rubber         3.  Gujarat
(d)   Bauxite         4.  Rajasthan
Codes :
(a)      (b)      (c)     (d)
(A)    1         2         3        4
(B)     2         1         4        3
(C)    4         3         1        2
(D)    3         4         2        1
94.   Consider  the  following  state-ments  and  select  the  correct answer from the codes—
Assertion (A) : During the winter season Northern India experien-ces cold waves.
Reason (R) : Heavy  snowfall occurs in the Himalayas during winter due to Western distur-bances.
Codes :
(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)  (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D)  (A) is false, but (R) is true
95.   Consider  the  following  state-ments  and  select  the  correct answer from the codes—
Assertion (A) : West Bengal has the highest population density in India.
Reason (R) : West Bengal is the main rice producing State of India.
Codes :
(A)   Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)   (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D)   (A) is false, but (R) is true
96.   The largest reserves of coal in India are found in—
(A)   Bihar
(B)   Chhattisgarh
(C)   Jharkand
(D)   Orissa
97.   Consider  the  following state-ments about the causes of the development of industries in coastal Gujarat and select the correct answer from the codes—
1.     Advantage of an early start.
2.     The growth of dairy indus-try in Gujarat has stimulated the consumer market.
3.     The  availability  of  hard working human labour.
Codes :
(A)   1 is correct
(B)   1 and 2 are correct
(C)   1 and 3 are correct
(D)   1, 2 and 3 are correct
98.   Talcher coalfields lie in—
(A)   Damodar Valley
(B)   Son Valley
(C)   Godavari Valley
(D)   Mahanadi Valley
99.   Which one of the following is the correct order of States in terms of population density as per 2001 census ?
(A)   West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, U. P.
(B)   West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala, U. P.
(C)   Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar, U. P.
(D)   West Bengal, U. P., Bihar, Kerala
100.   Match   List-I   with   List-II   and select the correct answer from the codes—
List-I
(a)   Paper
(b)   Silk
(c)    Automobile
(d)   Petroleum refining
List-II
1.     Bangalore
2.     Gurgaon
3.     Jamnagar
4.     Titagarh
Codes :
(a)      (b)      (c)      (d)
(A)  1 2        3         4
(B)   3 1        2         4
(C)  4 1        2         3
(D)  1 2        4         3
101.   Which one of the following States recorded the highest percentage growth  of  population  during decade 1991-2001 ?
(A)  Meghalaya
(B)   Mizoram
(C)  Nagaland
(D)  Sikkim
102.   Consider   the   following   state-ments   and  select  the  correct answer from the codes—
Assertion (A) : Continental shelves along the Western coast of India are rich in mineral oil resources.
Reason (R) : Western coast of India  has  been  formed  by faulting.
Codes :
(A)  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B)   Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C)  (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D)  (A) is false, but (R) is true
103.   Two major producers of sugar-cane in South India are—
(A)  Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(B)   Maharashtra and Gujarat
(C)  Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
(D)  Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
104.   Match  List-I  with  List-II  and select the correct answer from the codes—
List-I                  List-II
(Place)                 (Mineral)
(a)   Badampahar    1.  Copper
(b)   Kodarma          2.  Iron ore
(c)    Mosabani         3.  Petroleum
(d)   Rava                  4.  Mica
Codes :
(a)      (b)      (c)      (d)
(A)    1        2         3         4
(B)     4        3         1         2
(C)    1        2         4         3
(D)    2        4         1         3
105.   Which one of the following reservoirs is associated with the Rihand Project ?
(A)  Gandhi Sagar
(B)   Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar
(C)  Jawahar Sagar
(D)  Govind Sagar
106.   Match  List-I  with  List-II  and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
List-I
(Railway Zone)
(a)   Northern
(b)   North Central
(c)    East Central
(d)   West Central
List-II
(Headquarters)
1.     Allahabad
2.     New Delhi
3.     Jabalpur
4.     Hajipur
Codes :
(a)      (b)      (c)      (d)
(A)       2         1         4        3
(B)       3         1         4        2
(C)       2         4         1        3
(D)       4         2         1        3
107.   Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A)  Bihar : Least literate State of the country
(B)   Punjab : State with lowest sex ratio in India
(C)  Uttar Pradesh : State having highest percentage of country’s population
(D)  West Bengal : State with highest density of population in the country
108.   The greater potential for gene-ration of tidal power in India is available in the—
(A)  Malabar coast
(B)   Konkan coast
(C)  Gujarat coast
(D)  Coromandel coast
109.   Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A)  Bhils                     —Rajasthan
(B)   Kadars                      —Kerala
(C)  Kukis   —Himachal Pradesh
(D)  Rajis                —Uttarakhand
110.   The percentage of the scheduled tribes population is the highest in—
(A)  Arunachal Pradesh
(B)   Meghalaya
(C)  Mizoram
(D)  Nagaland
111.   Polynasia does not include
1.     Hawaii
2.     New Guinea
3.     New Zealand
4.     New Caledonia
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes :
(A)  1 and 2        (B)  2 and 3
(C)  1 and 3       (D0  2 and 4
112.   In which of the following States life expectancy index is the highest ?
(A)  Punjab        (B)  Kerala
(C)  Gujarat       (D)  Maharashtra
113.   In India the highest fish produc-tive potential is in—
(A)  Deep sea areas
(B)   Inland water bodies
(C)  Shallow continental shelves
(D)  Brackish water lagoons
114.   Consider the following state-ments about the Bonne’s Projec-tion and select the correct answer from the codes—
1.     It is an orthomorphic projec-tion.
2.     It is an equal area projection.
3.     It’s parallels are concentric arcs.
4.     Only the central meridian is a straight line.
Codes :
(A)  1, 2 and 4 are correct
(B)   1, 3 and 4 are correct
(C)  2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D)  1, 2 and 3 are correct
115.   The concept of Jambu Dwip is given in the—
(A)  Vedas
(B)   Puranas
(C)  Mahabharat
(D)  Buddhist Literature
116.   The   statement   “Human   Geo-graphy is a recent sprout from the   venerable   trunk  of   geo-graphical science.” was made by—
(A)  Jean Brunhes
(B)   Ellsworth Huntington
(C)  Friedrich Ratzel
(D)  Vidal de la Blache
117.   The concept of human regions was advanced by—
(A)  A. V. Perpillon
(B)   C. D. Forde
(C)  H. J. Fleure
(D)  R. E. Dickinson
118.   Which of the following river valley projects serves more than one State ?
(A)  Chambal Valley Project
(B)   Salal Project
(C)  Ramganga Project
(D)  Hirakud Project
119.   Which  one  of  the  following States of India has the maximum number of slum cities ?
(A)  Uttar Pradesh
(B)   Tamil Nadu
(C)  Maharashtra
(D)  Andhra Pradesh
120.   In Asia the largest trade partner of India is—
(A)  Iran             (B)  Singapore
(C)  Japan          (D)  China
Part-II
General  Studies
121.  ‘Trayi’ is a name for—
(A)   Three Vedas
(B)   Dharma,  Sangha   and Buddha
(C)   Three Gods in Hindu Pantheon
(D)   Three seasons
122.  Which  one  of  the  following statements is not true ?
(A)   The  foundation   of   the system of civil administration was firmly laid down by Warren Hastings  on  which  the super-structure  was   raised   by Cornwallis
(B)   Clive was responsible for reforming the East India Com-pany’s  Civil  and  Military Services
(C)   Lord William Bentinck was one of the greatest British rulers as he consolidated the British Empire in India
(D)   Lord Dalhousie added rich territories to the British Empire on the basis of the Doctrine of Lapse
123.  Who among the following deser-ves the credit for the construc-tion of ‘Lal Qila’ ?
(A)   Sikandar Lodi
(B)   Aurangzeb
(C)   Jahangir
(D)   Shahjahan
124.  The man first landed on the moon in—
(A)   1969           (B)  1968
(C)   1970          (D)  1958
125.  The rear view mirrors of auto-mobiles  are  such  as  may produce—
(A)   real and enlarged image
(B)   real and diminished image
(C)   virtual and enlarged image
(D)   virtual  and   diminished image
126.  Which one of the following is incorrect ?
(A)   Theory of evolution was propounded by Charles Darwin
(B)   The breaking apart of the nucleus of an atom is called fusion
(C)   Dry ice is nothing but solid Carbon dioxide
(D)   Telephone was invented by Graham Bell
127.  The famous I.N.A. trials took place in the Red Fort, Delhi in—
(A)   1945           (B)  1946
(C)   1944          (D)  1947
128.  The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on the report of—
(A)   Cabinet Mission
(B)   Cripps Mission
(C)   Rowlatt Commission
(D)   Simon Commission
129.  Who among the following had headed the group of advocates to argue the case on behalf of The Indian National Army in 1946 in the Red Fort trials ?
(A)   Bhulabhai Desai
(B)   Kailash Nath Katju
(C)   Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru
(D)   Jawaharlal Nehru
130.  ‘The  Lucknow  Plan’  is  asso-ciated with—
(A)   Housing Development
(B)   Transport Development
(C)   Expansion of Education
(D)   Food Security
131.  The Constitution provides for appointment of adhoc judges in the—
(A)   Supreme Court of India
(B)   High Courts
(C)   District and Session Courts
(D)   All of the above
132.  The  First  University  Chair  of Sanskrit was founded in Europe in—
(A)   England    (B)  France
(C)   Germany (D)  Russia
133.  Which   one   of   the   following criteria for deciding an urban area,   according  to   Census   of India, is not correct ? All places with—
(A)   either  a  Municipality  or Corporation or Cantonment or Notified Town Area Committee
(B)   a minimum population of 5000
(C)   at least 60% of male popu-lation engaged in non-agricul-tural pursuits
(D)   a density of population of at least 400 persons per square km
134.  Arrange the following religious communities of India in the descending order of their sex ratio by using the codes given below—
Religious Communities—
1.     Buddhist
2.     Jain
3.     Christian
4.     Muslim
Codes :
(A)    3        2         1        4
(B)    3        1         2        4
(C)    2        1         4        3
(D)    4        3         2        1
135.  A species is considered to be extinct only if it has not been seen in its natural habitat for the last—
(A)   15 years    (B)  25 years
(C)   40 years    (D)  50 years
136.  Which river of Africa cuts the Tropic of Capricorn twice ?
(A)   Zambezi   (B)  Limpopo
(C)   Congo      (D)  Niger
137.  Which one of the following lakes is the source of the Nile river ?
(A)   Nyasa
(B)   Tanganyika
(C)   Victoria
(D)   Chad
138.  Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
(A)   Campos  —Northern Brazil
(B)   Llanos              —Venezuela
(C)   Pampas                     —Chile
(D)   Selva        —Southern Brazil
139.  Match List-I (Major Port) with List-II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I
(a)    Kandla
(b)   Nhava Shewa
(c)    Paradeep
(d)   Tuticorin
List-II
1.     Maharashtra
2.     Orissa
3.     Tamil Nadu
4.     Gujarat
Codes :
(a)     (b)      (c)       (d)
(A)    4         3         2          1
(B)    2         1         4          3
(C)    4         1         2          3
(D)    2         3         4          1
140.  The ideal habitat of the Siberian Crane is found in—
(A)   Arunachal Pradesh
(B)   Assam
(C)   Andhra Pradesh
(D)   Orissa
141.  Match  List-I  with  List-II  and select the correct answer using the codes given below—
List-I
(Islands)
(a)    Beyant Shakhodhar
(b)   Piram
(c)    Dwarka
(d)   Diu
List-II
(Location)
1.     Kathiawar Coast
2.     Arabian sea coast
3.     Raan of Kutch
4.     Gulf of Cambay
Codes :
(a)       (b)       (c)       (d)
(A)    1          2          3          4
(B)     3          4          2          1
(C)    2          1          4          3
(D)    4          3          1          2
142.  Chaurabari  glacier  is  located towards—
(A)   South of Kedarnath Temple
(B)   West of Kedarnath Temple
(C)   North of Kedarnath Temple
(D)   East of Kedarnath Temple
143.  If the price of tea is increased by 20%, then a householder must reduce her consumption of tea so as not to increase the expendi-ture by—
(A)   16%            (B)  17%
(C)   16%        (D)  16%
144.  Surabhi walks 1 km South and   2 km East. Walking in which directions will bring her back to the starting point ?
(A)   2 km East and 1 km North
(B)   1 km West and 2 km North
(C)   2 km West and 1 km North
(D)   2 km West and 1 km South
145.  If the word father is coded   as   garden,   then   the   word writer will be coded as—
(A)   Orphen
(B)   Godown
(C)   xorpen
(D)   xrgpen
146.  Of the 12 members of an organi-zation, one-half of the members belong  to  Club  A,  one-third belong to Club B and one-fourth belong to both Clubs. How many members belong to neither ?
(A)   3                 (B)  4
(C)   5                (D)  6
147.  The first music college that was established for music education in U.P. is—
(A)   Sangeet Natak Academy
(B)   Bhatkhande Hindustani Sangeet Mahavidyalay
(C)   Lalit Kala Academy
(D)   Bhartendu Natya Academy
148.  The Project Director of Chandra-yaan-2 is—
(A)   C. Rangrajan
(B)   A. P. J. Kalam
(C)   P. Chidambaram
(D)   Dr. M. Annadurai
149.  Who has been declared ‘Man of the Match’ in the 6th One Day Cricket Match played between Australia and India at Guahati in India ?
(A)   Sachin Tendulkar
(B)   Michel Johnson
(C)   Dug Bollinger
(D)   Praveen Kumar
150.  China raised strong objection to the  visit  undertaken  during November,  2009   by   the Dalailama to—
(A)   Gangtok
(B)   Tawang
(C)   Laddakh
(D)   None of the above
Answers with Hints
1.   (d) The   followers   of   radical approach in Geography mainly concentrated  on  the  issue  of great  social  relevance  like inequality, racism, sexism, crime delinquency,    discrimination agaisnt black and non-whites, females, exploitation of juveniles etc. which were related to human welfare.
2.   (b) Folded mountains are formed at the margin of convergent boundaries where two plates collide to each other in which the material due to subduction is consumed and plate margin are reduced and formed folded mountains after collision.
3.   (c) Hog back, Strike Valley and anticlinorium are the results of folding while graben is associa-ted with faulting.
4.   (a) Regarding the isostacy Law of    Compensation    (Hayford) principle  of  varying  density (Pratt) and principle of uniform depth  by  Bobby  were  given while Law of flotation was given by Airy and Airy was of the view that soil (density 2·67) is floating at Sima (desnsity 3·0) in the same way Himalayas is also floating over the heavy Glossy Magma.
5.   (b) Development of Dualism in the Geography is the outcome of 17th century while Varenius divided  Geography  into  two parts (1) General Geography and Systematic   Geography,   (2) Special Geography and Regional Geography.
6.   (D)
7.   (A) The skin colour of Caucasoid is from Pale reddish white to olive  brown,  while  hair  are straight to wavy, stature from medium to tall. While the skin colour of Mongoloid is from brown-brown black some yellow brown,  staure  medium  tall  to medium  short  and  hair  are coarse  form  straight.  While Negro hair are woolly stature tall and skin colour is black or yellow brown. The skin colour of Negrito is also black, stature is medium and hair are curley.
8.   (b)
9.   (b) Ratzel a German scholar was determinist. In his second volume of  Anthropo  Geography  he described the relationship bet-ween man and environment.
10.   (b) Tafoni or Gnamma hole, a Australian term is used for a rock hole found at the base or flanks of a bare granite dome in an arid environment.
11.   (c) 12. (d)
13.   (d) Blind valley is a land feature of Korst Region while hanging valley  is  a  land  feature  of Glaciated Region. Zeugen is a land feature of Grid Region and Ramp valley is a land feature of faulting.
14.   (c) A  storm  associated  with thunder-lightning   and   very heavy precipitation of rain or hail which causes due to cumulo-nimbus clouds as they are the principal thunderstorms clouds.
15.   (d)
16.   (a) Podsol soil is found in the areas where coniferous forests grow.
17.   (d) Mediterranean   type     of climate is found in Western margin of 30∞–40∞ Latitudes in both the hemispheres. Due to the shifting of wind belts towards the North and South. The Mediterranean climatic regions are at one time towards the dry sub-tropical areas while at other time they are at wet mid lat areas. Due to this in these regions, summers are dry while in winters (wet) the season changes like mid lat areas.
18.   (c) Insequent streams are streams which wanders irregularly across the surface and is not influenced by  the  topographic  features (consequent drainage)
19.   (a) Daly’s Glacial control theory explans origin of atolls. He was of the view that the coral reefs has formed in the oceans after the pleistocene Glacial period.
20.   (a) Quartize is a metamorphic form of Sandstone.
21.   (c) Most of the rain in India is at Meghalaya State (i.e. Mausinram)
22.   (d) One of the necessary condi-tions for the river capture is there should be a sharp gradient on both the side of rivers.
23.   (d)
24.   (b) A. O. Herbertson was the first scholar who divided the world into 15 natural regions.
25.   (d) Le-play a leading French Sociologist carried out his research on family life style and was of the view that family life is dependent on the means of obtaining subsistence that is work while the character of the later is largely determined by the nature of environment, that is place. This lead to the famous Le-Play formula of place-work-family which Gooddes (follower of Le-Play) transformed it into Place-Work-Folk as the basic concepts in the study of cities and regions.
26.   (d) Following were the themes of the Population policy 2000.
1.   To attain population stability by 2045-46.
2.   To deprive off any couple from the facilites (Govern-mental)/Concession who had more than two children.
3.   To fulfil the demand of contraceptive but to pay fixed cash to the couple, belonging to scheduled castes on the birth of a baby was not the theme of population policy 2000.
27.   (A)
28.   (d) Hundred years of Geography was written by T. W. Freemen.
29.   (a)
30.   (c) T. Huxley considering the hair style, had divided the races of world into five types : (1) Austroloid, (2) Negroid, (3) Mongoloid, (4) Chentocroid, (5) Molanocroid.
31.   (a) Principle  of  Activity  in Human Geography was intro-duced by J. Brunhes. According to this principle, all physical as well as cultural elements of environment are changeable.
32.   (b) In Human Geography the word Pragmatic Possibilism was used by G. Tatham. While G. Taylor used the word Scientific determinism or Stop and go determinism.
33.   (a) During the 20th century the maximum population growth has been recorded in Africa that is 3·0%.
34.   (c)
35.   (d)  Alfred Weber in his princi-ple of industrial location has used the location of Triangle. According to him for the locali-zation of industry transport cost is most important. For localiza-tion of industry he selected a point (place) where the cost of raw material as well as finished good is minimum alongwith least cost., for which he used a locational triangle.
36.   (d) The concept of ‘Growth Pole’ was propounded by F. Perroux.
37.   (b) Downs in Australia, Steppes in Asia, Pampas in Argentina and Paraguay and Prairies in Canada are the Grasslands.
38.   (a)   39. (a)
40.   (c) Human and Eco-Geography does not connote the dualism in Geography. It is Human and Physical Geography that con-notes the dualism in Geography.
41.   (a) In the Darwin’s theory of origin of species abrupt Specia-tion was not the related point. On the  contrary  Adaptation, Natural selection and Survival of fittest are the related points.
42.   (a) Ozone gas found in Stratos-phere protects the earth for becoming very hot as it absorbs the ultra-voilet rays from the sun and allows only that much rays which is needed for the survival for human being, plants as well as animals.
43.   (b) Economic development in which Industralization is inclu-ded, environment pollution also degrades  the  environment. Beside this conservation means optimum use of the resources.
44.   (a) Humboldt during his visit and inventions established the relationship,  between Natural environment and human activi-ties which indicates the concept of Biosphere.
45.   (c) The basic concept of Eco system is Energy flow.
46.   (b)
47.   (a) In sphere diagram the radius of a cirlce is obtained by cube root. For which if a cube root       is  known  for  any  digit,  its Logarithms is divided by 3. Thus digit obtained by division, its (dividing digit) anti logarithm will represent the cube root while in circle diagram the square root is obtained and in wheel diagram angles are obtained.
48.   (c) In Sinsoidal Projection the scale is true to Central Meridian. As we proceed towards east-west from Central meridian the scale is also exaggrated alongwith meridians or scale is incorrect.
49.   (c) For the distribution of any item in world the Mollweide projection is used.
50.   (d) If RF of a map is 1 : 50000 and if it is reduced 50% the RF shall be 1 : 1,00,000.
51.   (c) Financial services are under the category of Tertiary activities, while foresting, grazing and plantation farming are primary activities.
52.   (b) International map projection is the modified form of polyconic projection.
53.   (d) In Sinusoidal Projection scale is correct at equator as well as all the parallels.
54.   (c) It is band graph which shows the total and its part by a series of line.
55.   (a) The density of population in given countries are as follows :
1.   Bangladesh  –   1023 persons
per km2
2.   India              –   362·6 persons
per km2
3.   Sri Lanka      –   295·6 persons
per km2
4.   Pakistan        –   203·4 persons
per km2
56.   (c) Masai tribal people of Kenya, Tanzania and East Uganda are the  pastoral  cultivators  of tropical grass land rather than pure agrarian, food gatherer and hunter.
57.   (d) Agricultural belt between Buenos-Aires and Rosario is known for Corn, Alfalfa and livestock. Due to this there are many meat packaging plants in this belt.
58.   (c)
59.   (b) River Congo or Zaire Crosses equator twice.
60.   (b) 61. (d) 62. (d)
63.   (a) Italy, Japan and China are silk producing countries while Brazil does not produce silk, but imports.
64.   (d) The livestock ranching as well as Maize production is well developed in U.S.A. as the Maize is produced for Animal’s food.
65.   (b)
66.   (d) When local or natural pene-plain is uplifted due to endo-genetic foras, that peneplain is known to be the uplifted pene-plain. The peneplains are old. The Western high land of Ranchi (Pat region) is uplifted peneplain because its upper part is 915 metre high while middle part is 615 metre high.
67.   (c) Intertropical   convergence Zone during the period of South-West Monsoon season is shifted towards the North. It is due to the shifting of equatorial low pressue belt of calm winds which attracts Westerlies.
68.   (b) 69. (a)  70. (b)  71. (c)
72.   (a) Kochi a natural harbour of Kerala is situated at the Periyar lagoon.
73.   (a) In 1938 A. G. Ogilvie published research paper for that time Madras Geographical Society entitled techniques of Regional Geography in which he first used Ergograph .
74.   (c) 75. (a)
76.   (d) Bhilai     (Chhattisgarh), Rourkela   (Orissa),  Bokaro (Jharkhand)   and   Durgapur (Bihar).
77.   (B) 78. (a)
79.   (a) Near about 98% of the coal reserve is found in the rocks of Gondwana period.
80.   (D) 81. (b) 82. (c)
83.   (b) Core of Greater Himalayas is made of Granite, Griesses and cohists of Archean Period Rocks.
84.   (a)  85. (a)
86.   (c) River Narmada merges in Gulf of Cambay (Khambat) flows in a rift valley formed due to faulting.
87.   (A)
88.   (b) Regur soil which is known as a black soil is made up of Lava. Beside this the soil found in Mountainous region is thin and immature.
89.   (c) During  the  summer,  the interior part of Peninsula India receives  rain. In  Karnataka where the Coffee is grown, this rain is known as Cherry blos-soms.
90.   (a) 91. (c)
92.   (d) The bulk of the rain along the Coromandal coast is received by North East Monsoon winds in the month of Oct.–Nov.–Dec.
93.   (d) 94. (a)  95. (b)
96.   (c) The largest reserves of coal in India is in Jharkhand that is near about 28·50%.
97.   (d) 98. (d)
99.   (b) The correct order of the states as per 2001 population density is as follows—
1.   West Bengal (903 persons km2)
2.   Bihar (881 persons km2)
3.   Kerala (819 persons km2)
4.   U. P. (690 persons km2)
100.   (c)
101.   (c) Decadal (1991-2001) growth of population in the given states of India is as follows—
1.   Nagaland                    64·53%
2.   Sikkim                        33·6%
3.   Meghalaya                 38·65%
4.   Mizoram                     28·82%
102.   (b) 103. (c) 104. (d)
105. (b) Gandhi Sagar and Jawahar Sagar is at river Chambal project, Govind Sagar is in Bhakra-nangal at river Satluj and Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar is at Rihand Project.
106.   (a)
107.   (b) The lowest sex-ratio is in Haryana (861 female per 1000 male)
108. (c) The greatest potential for generation of tidal power is avaialable in Gujarat coast and Sunderban West Bengal rather than Coromandal, Konkan and Moalabar Coast.
109.   (c)
110.   (c) Percentage of scheduled tribe population census according to 2001  in  given states  is  as follows—
1.   Mizoram                           94·5%
2.   Nagaland                          88·3%
3.   Meghalaya                       85·9%
4.   Arunachal Pradesh         64·2%
111.   (b) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (c)  115. (b)
116.   (d)
117. (c) It was H. J. Fleure who advanced the concept of Human Region.
118. (a) It is Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan who are benefitted by Chambal Valley project.
119.   (c)
120.   (d) At present near about 10% trade is hold by China.
121.   (a) 122. (b) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (d)
126.   (b) 127. (A) 128. (d) 129. (a) 130. (a)
131.   (A) 132. (c) 133. (c) 134. (b) 135. (d)
136.   (b) 137. (c) 138. (b) 139. (c) 140. (B)
141.   (a) 142. (a) 143. (D) 144. (c) 145. (d)
146.         (C)          147. (b)   148. (d)  149. (c)  150. (b)

Wednesday, 5 October 2011

Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. (Pre.) Exam., 2009

Indian History 
(Held on 13-12-2009) 

1. Who wrote the Book entitled ‘Ghulamgiri’ ?
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Narayan Guru
(C) Jyotiba Phule
(D) M. P. Pillai
Ans : (C)

2. Which one of the following had supported Mahatma Gandhi on the Non-cooperation resolution at the Special Calcutta Session, 1920 ?
(A) C. R. Das
(B) B. C. Pal
(C) Annie Besant
(D) Motilal Nehru
Ans : (D)

3. Which one of the following books is the official History of Revolt of 1857 ?
(A) Eighteen Fifty Seven
(B) Theories of Indian Mutiny
(C) The Sepoy Mutiny and the Revolt of 1857
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

4. Which one of the following had for the first time accepted that British victory at Plassey was the victory of breach of faith ?
(A) Lord Clive
(B) Vansittort
(C) Hector Munro
(D) None of the above
Ans : (D)

5. Which one of the following Bengali drama was directed against Polygamy ?
(A) Bhanumati Chittavikas
(B) Kulin Kulasarvasva
(C) Vidhva Vivaha
(D) Nava Natak
Ans : (B)


6. The statement, “on bended knees I asked for bread and received stone instead” is associated with—
(A) Khilafat Movement
(B) Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) Dandi March
(D) Quit India Movement
Ans : (C)

7. Which operation was started by the British Government to arrest the leaders of Quit India Movement ?
(A) Operation Reander Paste
(B) Operation Zero Hour
(C) Operation Thunderbolt
(D) Operation Blue Star
Ans : (C)

8. Which one of the following had drafted the fundamental rights resolution at the Karachi Session, 1931 ?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Acharya Narendra Deo
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Ans : (A)

9. Which one of the following Bengali writers was the first to suggest the adoption of Hindi as India’s National Language ?
(A) Bhudeva Mukherjee
(B) Dinbandhu Mitra
(C) Madhusudan Datta
(D) Kali Prasanna Sinha
Ans : (A)

10. Which one of the following is known as Mother of Indian Revolutionaries ?
(A) Annie Besant
(B) Sarojini Naidu
(C) Madame Cama
(D) Usha Mehta
Ans : (C)

11. Which one of the following had drafted the ‘Quit India Resolution’ ?
(A) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Acharya Narendra Deo
Ans : (B)

12. In which of the following places Hindu Mahasabha was for the first time organised in 1915 ?
(A) Haridwar
(B) Allahabad
(C) Varanasi
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

13. Who among the following had read the English version of Presidential address in the Tripuri Session of Indian National Congress, 1939 ?
(A) Acharya Narendra Deo
(B) Sarat Chandra Bose
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
Ans : (C)

14. The party which observed the ‘Black Day’ on July 3, 1947 against Partition of India was—
(A) Indian National Congress
(B) Forward Bloc
(C) Hindu Mahasabha
(D) Communist Party of India
Ans : (C)

15. The First President of Muslim League was—
(A) Nawab Viqar-ul-Mulk Mustaq Hussain
(B) Mian Abdul Aziz
(C) Hidayat Hussain Khan
(D) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
Ans : (A)

16. Who said, “Like summer gale revolt of Meerut was unprecedented and short-lived” ?
(A) S. N. Sen
(B) R. C. Majumdar
(C) S. B. Chaudhuri
(D) V. D. Savarkar
Ans : (A)

17. Which one of the following had drafted the Hindu Widows Remarriage Act ?
(A) Lord Canning
(B) Lord Dalhousie
(C) Lord Hardinge
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

18. When was the Treaty of Alinagar signed ?
(A) February 1756
(B) September 1756
(C) February 1757
(D) April 1757
Ans : (C)

19. In which of the following Sessions of Muslim League Two—
Nation Theory was propounded ?
(A) Lahore Session, 1940
(B) Bombay Session, 1915
(C) Delhi Session, 1918
(D) Calcutta Session, 1917
Ans : (A)

20. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Author —Drama
(A) Girish Chandra Ghose —Mir Kasim
(B) D. L. Roy —Chhatrapati Shivaji
(C) Kshirod Prasad Vidyavinod —Nand Kumar
(D) Nikhil Nath Roy —Pratapaditya
Ans : (B)

21. Who was the biographer of A.O. Hume ?
(A) W. Wederbirn
(B) Lord Dufferin
(C) J. Charles
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

22. Which young woman leader was symbol of defiance and resistance during Quit India Movement ?
(A) Sarojini Naidu
(B) Kalpana Dutt Joshi
(C) Sucheta Kriplani
(D) Aruna Asaf Ali
Ans : (D)

23. Who hailed Gandhi’s call for ‘Quit India’ as an ‘Epic Movement’ ?
(A) Ram Manohar Lohia
(B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) Jai Prakash Narayan
Ans : (B)

24. In which year English was made the medium of instruction in India ?
(A) 1844 A.D.
(B) 1835 A.D.
(C) 1833 A.D.
(D) 1813 A.D.
Ans : (B)

25. Who is known as the “Father of Muslim Renaissance in Bengal” ?
(A) Abdul Latif
(B) Mirza Ghulam Ahmed
(C) Muhammad Qasim
(D) Rashid Ahmed Gangohi
Ans : (A)

26. Which one of the following leaders was not a part of Noncooperation movement ?
(A) M. A. Ansari
(B) M. A. Zinnah
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Hakim Ajmal Khan
Ans : (B)

27. Between which stations was the first railway line opened in India ?
(A) Calcutta to Raniganj
(B) Bombay to Pune
(C) Calcutta to Jamshedpur
(D) Bombay to Thane
Ans : (D)

28. Who was the President of the ‘Flag Committee’ ?
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) J. B. Kriplani
(C) K. M. Munshi
(D) D. P. Khetan
Ans : (B)

29. Who said over the radio on 30th January 1948 “The Father of Nation is no more” ?
(A) Sardar Patel
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Rajgopalachari
Ans : (B)

30. In which year was the National Development Council set up ?
(A) 1949 A.D.
(B) 1950 A.D.
(C) 1951 A.D.
(D) 1952 A.D.
Ans : (D)

31. Which one of the following books is associated with rise of National Movement in India ?
(A) Gitanjali
(B) Anand Math
(C) Satyagrah Prakash
(D) Gita Rahasya
Ans : (B)

32. Bijauliya Movement was related to—
(A) Kerala
(B) Assam
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Orissa
Ans : (C)

33. Which was the first State to be created on linguistic basis ?
(A) Madras
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Bombay
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (B)

34. Indo-Pak border is known as—
(A) Durand Line
(B) Mc Mohan Line
(C) Redcliffe Line
(D) Line of Control
Ans : (C)

35. The excavation at Chanhu Daro was directed by—
(A) John Marshall
(B) J. H. Mackay
(C) R. E. M. Wheeler
(D) Aurel Stein
Ans : (B)

36. Which of the following Harappan towns is divided into three parts ?
(A) Kalibanga
(B) Lothal
(C) Chanhudaro
(D) Dholavira
Ans : (D)

37. Which of the following is the most common motif of the Indus Seals ?
(A) Unicorn
(B) Bull
(C) Rhinoceros
(D) Elephant
Ans : (A)

38. Robert Bruce Foote, who discovered first Palaeolithic tool in India, was originally a—
(A) Palaeobotanist
(B) Geologist
(C) Archaeologist
(D) Historian
Ans : (B)

39. The earliest evidence of agriculture in Indian Subcontinent has been obtained from—
(A) Brahmagiri
(B) Chirand
(C) Mehrgarh
(D) Burzahom
Ans : (C)

40. Which of the following was not worshipped by the Harappans ?
(A) Shiva
(B) Mother Goddess
(C) Peepal
(D) Vishnu
Ans : (D)

41. Satapatha Brahmana is related to—
(A) Rigveda
(B) Yajurveda
(C) Samaveda
(D) Atharvaveda
Ans : (B)

42. King Ashvapati of the Upanishadic Age was the ruler of—
(A) Kekaya
(B) Matsya
(C) Panchala
(D) Sursena
Ans : (A)

43. Who of the following propounded the theory of the Arctic region as the home land of the Aryan speaking people ?
(A) Max Muller
(B) Edward Meyer
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(D) Herzefeld
Ans : (C)

44. Who was the priest of the Bharatas in the battle of Ten Kings ?
(A) Visvamitra
(B) Vasishtha
(C) Atri
(D) Bhrigu
Ans : (B)

45. To which Sakha does the published Rigveda Samhita belong ?
(A) Saunaka
(B) Ashvalayan
(C) Shakala
(D) Sankhayana
Ans : (C)

46. Who among the following teachers were visited by Siddhartha Gautama in the quest of knowledge before his enlightenment ?
1. Alara Kalama
2. Udraka Ramaputra
3. Makkhali Gosala
4. Nigantha Nataputta
Indicate your answer from the codes given below—
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 4 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 2
Ans : (D)

47. Which of the following Upnishads is written in prose ?
(A) Isa
(B) Katha
(C) Brihadaranyaka
(D) Svetasvatara
Ans : (C)

48. The twenty thrid Jain Tirthankar was associated with—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Kausambi
(C) Varanasi
(D) Sravasti
Ans : (C)

49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Jain Tirthankaras)(a) Santinatha
(b) Mallinatha
(c) Parsvanatha
(d) Mahavira
List-II (Cognizance)1. Antelope
2. Lion
3. Serpent
4. Water jar
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 4 1 3 2
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 1 4 3 2
Ans : (D)

50. Who among the following laid down punishment for a person becoming mendicant without making adequate provision for dependent wife and children ?
(A) Manu
(B) Yajnavalkya
(C) Kautilya
(D) Narada
Ans : (C)

51. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : In the maximum number of Varsavasas Gautama Buddha stayed at Sravasti.
Reason (R) : Prasenjit, the ruler of Sravasti was of the same age as Gautama Buddha.
Codes :(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (B)

52. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Sakyas —Kapilvastu
(B) Koliyas —Ramagrama
(C) Kalamas —Allakappa
(D) Mallas —Kusinagara
Ans : (C)

53. Where did the Mahasamghika School arise ?
(A) Bodha Gaya
(B) Rajagriha
(C) Sravasti
(D) Vaisali
Ans : (D)

54. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Charsada —Pushkalavati
(B) Sirkap —Takshasila
(C) Nagarjundakonda —Dhanyakataka
(D) Tamluk —Tamralipti
Ans : (C)

55. Rulers of which of the following dynasties bore the title Devaputra ?
(A) Maurya
(B) Sunga
(C) Kushana
(D) Saka-Kshatrapa
Ans : (C)

56. Rulers of which of the following dynasties maintained diplomatic relations with distant countries like Syria in the West ?
(A) Maurya
(B) Gupta
(C) Pallava
(D) Chola
Ans : (A)

57. Who identified ‘Sandra Kottus’ of the Greco-Roman literature with Chandragupta Maurya ?
(A) D. R. Bhandarkar
(B) Alexander Cunningham
(C) R. P. Chanda
(D) William Jones
Ans : (D)

58. Who were the beneficiaries of Asoka’s donations in the region of Barabar Hill ?
(A) Buddhists
(B) Ajivikas
(C) Svetambar Jains
(D) Digambar Jains
Ans : (B)

59. In which of the following inscriptions Ashoka made his famous declaration, ‘All men are my children’ ?
(A) Minor Rock Edict (Ahraura)
(B) Pillar Edict VII
(C) Lumbini Pillar Edict
(D) Separate Kaling Rock Edict I
Ans : (D)

60. Who among the following is credited to have performed four Asvamedha sacrifices ?
(A) Pushyamitra Sunga
(B) Pravarasena I
(C) Samudragupta
(D) Nandivarman Pallavamalla
Ans : (B)

61. Who among the following was the ruler of Kanchi during the time of Samudragupta ?
(A) Hastivarman
(B) Mantaraja
(C) Nilaraja
(D) Vishnugopa
Ans : (D)

62. Which one of the following places was a mint centre of the Yaudheyas ?
(A) Bayana
(B) Rohtak
(C) Bareilly
(D) Mathura
Ans : (B)

63. Which of the following parts were situated on the west coast of South India ?
1. Kaveripattanam
2. Korkai
3. Musiri
4. Tondi
Indicate the correct answer from the codes given below—
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 2, 3, 4
Ans : (C)

64. Who among the following was the first Satavahana King to introduce the ruler’s head on the coins ?
(A) Satakarni I
(B) Gautamiputra Satakarni
(C) Vasishthiputra Pulumavi
(D) Yajna Satakarni
Ans : (A)

65. The largest of the Pallava Rathas is—
(A) Arjuna
(B) Bhima
(C) Dharmaraja
(D) Draupadi
Ans : (C)

66. Who of the following adopted ‘Garuda’ as dynastic emblem after the imperial Guptas ?
(A) Rashtrakutas
(B) Western Chalukyas
(C) Shilaharas
(D) Chedis
Ans : (A)

67. Who among the following had the title ‘Parama-Saugata’ ?
(A) Bhaskar Varman
(B) Shashanka
(C) Rajya Vardhana
(D) Harsha
Ans : (D)

68. Who had appointed Parnadatta as the Provincial Governor of Saurashtra ?
(A) Chandragupta Maurya
(B) Rudradaman
(C) Chandragupta II
(D) Skandagupta
Ans : (D)

69. Who among the following was a lady Alvar Saint ?
(A) Andal
(B) Madhura Kavi
(C) Perumal
(D) Tirupan
Ans : (A)

70. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Nagananda —Harsha
(B) Mudrarakshasa—Visakhadatta
(C) Mrichchhakatika —Sudraka
(D) Ratnavali —Rajasekhara
Ans : (D)

71. Who among the following called themselves ‘Brahma-Kshatriay’ ?
(A) Palas
(B) Senas
(C) Pratiharas
(D) Chahamanas
Ans : (B)

72. The North Indian Dynasties that confronted the Rashtrakutas were—
(A) The Pratiharas and the Paramaras
(B) The Palas and the Chandelas
(C) The Pratiharas and the Palas
(D) The Chalukyas and the Chahamanas
Ans : (C)

73. ‘Niralamba Saraswati (Saraswati is now without support)’ thus lamented a poet at the demise of—
(A) Chahmana Visaladeva
(B) Chandela Kirtivarma
(C) Mihira Bhoja
(D) Bhoja Paramara
Ans : (D)

74. The custom ‘Santhara’ is related to which of the following sects ?
(A) Jain
(B) Saiva
(C) Sakta
(D) Vaishnava
Ans : (A)

75. Who is supposed to be the future Buddha in Mahayana Buddhism ?
(A) Krakuchanda
(B) Amitabha
(C) Maitreya
(D) Kanak Muni
Ans : (C)

76. Which of the following incarnations of Vishnu is represented in art as raising the Earth from the
Ocean ?
(A) Kurma
(B) Varaha
(C) Matsya
(D) Nrisingha
Ans : (B)

77. The Srivijaya ruler, who completed the construction of the Buddhist Vihara started by his father at Nagapattana during the reign of Rajaraja I, was—
(A) Samaragravira
(B) Balaputradeva
(C) Maravijayottunga Varman
(D) Trailokyaraja
Ans : (C)

78. Gangaikondacholapuram became the capital of the Chola empire from the time of—
(A) Parantaka I
(B) Rajendra I
(C) Kulottunga I
(D) Vikrama Chola
Ans : (B)

79. Who are the four Rajput clans described in Prithviraja-Raso of Chanda Bardai, who are said to have emerged from fire-pit of Mount Abu ?
(A) Pratiharas, Chahamanas, Gahadavalas, Kalachuris
(B) Paramaras, Chandelas, Chahamanas, Chalukyas
(C) Chahamanas, Kalachuris, Chandelas, Pratiharas
(D) Pratiharas, Chahamanas, Chalukyas, Parmaras
Ans : (D)

80. The Vikramshila Mahavihara, the renowned educational centre of Pala period was at—
(A) Antichak
(B) Aphasad
(C) Basarh
(D) Chandimau
Ans : (A)

81. Which one of the following temples does not belong to the Cholas ?
(A) Brihadishwara
(B) Koranganatha
(C) Kailashanatha
(D) Airavateshwar
Ans : (C)

82. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
(A) Baz Bahadur —Malwa
(B) Sultan Muzaffar Shah—Gujarat
(C) Yusuf Adil Shah—Ahmednagar
(D) Qutub Shah —Golkunda
Ans : (C)

83. During the time of Alauddin’s invasion Warangal was ruled by—
(A) Chalukya Dynasty
(B) Chola Dynasty
(C) Kakatiya Dynasty
(D) Yadava Dynasty
Ans : (C)

84. Who of the following Rajput rulers gave donation for the reconstruction of a mosque ?
(A) Mihir Bhoja
(B) Bhoja Parmar
(C) Prithviraj III
(D) Jai Singh Siddharaj
Ans : (D)

85. Arrange the followig rulers of Kashmir in a chronological order—
1. Avantivarman
2. Didda
3. Harsha
4. Jaya Singh
Indicate your answer from the codes below—
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 3, 4, 1
(C) 3, 4, 1, 2
(D) 4, 1, 2, 3
Ans : (A)

86. Which one of the following was not constructed by Qutubuddin Aibak ?
(A) Kubbat-ul-Islam mosque
(B) Qutub Minar
(C) Adhai din Ka Jhopada
(D) Alai Darwaja
Ans : (D)

87. Vijayanagar empire was founded during the reign period of—
(A) Firoz Tughlaq
(B) Sikandar Lodi
(C) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(D) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
Ans : (D)

88. The historian Sewell has written a book entitled ‘A Forgotten Empire’. What was the name of empire ?
(A) Mughal Empire
(B) Vijayanagar Empire
(C) Maratha Empire
(D) Mauryan Empire
Ans : (B)

89. Who among the following had joined Akbar’s Din-i-Ilahi ?
(A) Birbal
(B) Bhagwan Das
(C) Man Singh
(D) Surjan Rai
Ans : (A)

90. Jonaraja in his Rajatarangini, continued the narration of Kalhana upto—
(A) Jaya Singh
(B) Sultan Sikandar
(C) Sultan Zainul Abidin
(D) Muhammad Shah
Ans : (C)

91. Which new department was started by Muhammad-bin- Tughlaq for the development of agriculture ?
(A) Diwan-i-Risalat
(B) Diwan-i-Ashraf
(C) Diwan-i-Kohi
(D) Diwan-i-Mustkharaz
Ans : (C)

92. Who among the following constituted Turkan-e-Chihalgani ?
(A) Qutubuddin Aibak
(B) Iltutmish
(C) Balban
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

93. Who was Qazi Fazilat during the reign of Sher Shah ?
(A) The Qazi of Bengal
(B) The Chief Qazi of the Afghan Empire
(C) The Governor of Bengal
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

94. Which one of the following officers was the superintendent of port under the Mughals ?
(A) Mutsaddi
(B) Mir-i-Bahar
(C) Tahvildar
(D) Mushrif
Ans : (B)

95. Which one of the following was not a reason for Balban abandoning the policy of conquest and adopting the policy of consolidation ?
(A) Threat of external invasion
(B) Internal revolts
(C) Indian Kings willing to throw off the Turkish rule
(D) His weak nature
Ans : (D)

96. Which one of the following Sultans, was not an off spring of Iltutmish, but was the last successor of his dynasty ?
(A) Rukn-ud-din Firoz
(B) Razia
(C) Muizuddin Bahram Shah
(D) Nasiruddin Mahmud
Ans : (D)

97. Which one of the following sons of Alauddin Khalji was born of his wife Jhatyapali, the daughter of Raja Ramchandra Dev of Devagiri ?
(A) Shihabuddin Umar
(B) Khizr Khan
(C) Qutbuddin Mubarak
(D) Sadi Khan
Ans : (A)

98. What was Khanqah ?
(A) Works of Poet Amir Khusro
(B) Court of Sikandar Lodi
(C) Birth place of Khwaja Muinud-din Chisti
(D) The place where Sufi Mystics lived
Ans : (D)

99. On whom Emperor Akbar conferred the title of ‘Jagat Guru’ ?
(A) Purushottam
(B) Dastur Meherji Rana
(C) Hira Vijay Suri
(D) Devi
Ans : (C)

100. Which Queen of Jahangir had committed suicide by consuming poison ?
(A) Harkhabai
(B) Manmati
(C) Jodhpuri Begam
(D) Zeb-un-nisa
Ans : (B)

101. Who among the foreign travellers describes how the ‘Ganges water’ was carried in copper vessels for Mughal Emperors to drink ?
(A) Thomas Coryat
(B) Edward Terry
(C) Ralph Fitch
(D) Sir Thomas Roe
Ans : (B)

102. Who was the member of Ulema, who issued the ‘Fatwa’ against Akbar from Jaunpur ?
(A) Mullayazdi
(B) Mirza Hakim
(C) Abdun Nabi
(D) Abdullah Sultanpuri
Ans : (C)

103. Who wrote Futuhat-i-Ferozshahi ?
(A) Alberuni
(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(C) Utbi
(D) Ibn Batuta
Ans : (B)

104. Who among the following was the lowest in rank in the Maratha infantry ?
(A) Nayak
(B) Hawaldar
(C) Zumladar
(D) Hazari
Ans : (B)

105. In the third battle of Panipat Marathas were defeated by—
(A) Mughals
(B) Rohillas
(C) Britishers
(D) Afghans
Ans : (D)

106. Roshan Akhtar was of another name of—
(A) Ahmed Shah
(B) Muhammad Shah
(C) Jahandar Shah
(D) Shah Alam
Ans : (B)

107. What was the original name of Afzal Khan ?
(A) Abdullah Bhatari
(B) Samsuddin
(C) Sabar
(D) Muhammad Khan
Ans : (A)

108. Who among the following were Saints of Varkari sect ?
1. Chakradhar
2. Jnanesvar
3. Namadev
4. Ramdas
Indicate the correct answer form the codes given below—
(A) 1, 2
(B) 2, 3
(C) 3, 4
(D) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans : (D)

109. What was Bargir in Maratha army ?
(A) Infantry
(B) Front liner
(C) Cavalry
(D) Water carrier
Ans : (C)

110. Who among the following was a Jahangiri Painter ?
(A) Abul Hasan
(B) Abdus Samad
(C) Daswant
(D) Mir Sayyid Ali
Ans : (A)

111. Where in India, did the Protuguese build their first fortress ?
(A) Cochin
(B) Goa
(C) Anjidiv
(D) Cannanore
Ans : (A)

112. Which Maratha State was the last to accept the Subsidiary Alliance of the British ?
(A) Gaikwad
(B) Sindhia
(C) Holkar
(D) Bhonsle
Ans : (B)

113. During the Mughal period, what was ‘Narnal’ or light artillery ?
(A) One carried on elephantback
(B) One carried on camel-back
(C) One carried by man
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)

114. What do the terms ‘Elchi’ or ‘Safir’ denote in the sixteenth century Mughal administrative vocabulary ?
(A) Ambassadors
(B) Rebels
(C) Spies
(D) Governors
Ans : (A)

115. Which year of Akbar’s reign has been regarded by the historian, Vincent A. Smith as ‘the most critical time’ ?
(A) 1556 A.D.
(B) 1561 A.D.
(C) 1571 A.D.
(D) 1581 A.D.
Ans : (D)

116. Who of the following was the first Indian to write English verse ?
(A) Kashi Prasad Ghosh
(B) Ramchandra Vidyavagish
(C) Krishna Mohan Banerjee
(D) Hariharanand
Ans : (A)

117. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Bahadur Shah Zafar ?
(A) He was an emperor without empire
(B) He was a warrior without any war experience
(C) Hassan Askari was his spiritual guide
(D) He succeeded to the throne in 1845 A.D.
Ans : (D)

118. During whose tenure did the incident of ‘Black Hole’ take place ?
(A) Mir Zafar
(B) Mir Qasim
(C) Alivardi Khan
(D) Sirajuddaula
Ans : (D)

119. Which one of the following had bestowed the title of ‘Jagat Seth’ to Fatehchand ?
(A) Alivardi Khan
(B) Sirajuddaula
(C) Mir Zafar
(D) Muhammad Shah
Ans : (D)

120. In which of the following languages the book entitled ‘Hind Swaraj’ was written ?
(A) Hindi
(B) Urdu
(C) Gujarati
(D) English
Ans : (C)