IBPS CWE MODEL QUESTIONS

Reasoning

1. 'DIVE' is related to 'EIVD' and. 'SOUL' is related to 'LOUS' in the same way as 'FEAR' is related to
1) AERF   

2) AFRE   

3) RFAE

4) REAF   

5) None of these

Ans: (4)
Directions (Q.2 - 3): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below: 493 879 365 258 642
2. Which of the following is the sum of the first and the second digits df the second highest number ?
1) 13   

2) 15   

3) 9

4) 7   

5) 10

Ans: (5)

3. If the positions of the first and the second digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the third digit of the lowest number ?
1) 3

2) 9

3) 5

4) 2

5) 8

Ans: (4)
4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TACKLE, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ?
1) None   

2) One   

3) Two   

4) Three   

5) More than three

Ans: (3)

Directions (Q.5 - 7) Each of the questions given below is based on the given diagram. You have to take the given diagram to be true even if it seems to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the five alternatives following each question logically follows from the given diagram. The diagram comprises three circles showing people from three different countries who have travelled to either, both or none of the countries mentioned in the diagram.
5. Which of the following represents Indians who have travelled only to Europe but not to the US ?
1) Only C   

2) Only B   

3) Only A

4) A and C   

5) Only E

Ans: (1)
6. Which of the following represents such Indians as have travelled only to the US and not to Europe ?
1) Only F   

2) Only D   

3) A and D

4) D and F   

5) C and F

Ans: (2)
7. Which of the following represents US citizens who have travelled neither to Europe nor to India ?
1) Only D   

2) C and D   

3) A and D

4) Only F   

5) Only C

Ans: (4)
8. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RCA using each letter only once in each word ?
1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three   

5) More than three

Ans: (3)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TORNADO each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order ?
(A) None   

(B) One

(C) Two   

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans: (B)
10. 'VT' is related to 'QO' in the same way as 'MK' is related to '.................'
(A) HF

(B) IG

(C) RP

(D) JG

(E) QO

Ans: (A)

English Language

Directions (Q.11 - 15): In the following passage there arc blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
It is very difficult to (11) the extent of the poverty in India. Hence, it is called the mass poverty. It is a problem of low national income and its (12) distribution. The slow pace of development (13) the extent of poverty. The mass poverty makes India belong to the category of the (14) countries in the world. In many Asian countries practically about 50 per cent people live below the poverty line. ln India, more than 46.33 per cent people are below the poverty line and the level of the per capita income is very (15). The Planning Commission has defined the poverty line on the basis of nutritional requirement or2,4OO calories per person per day in rural areas and 2,100 calories for the persons in urban areas.
11.   
1) visualize    

2) formulate

3) nullify

4) eradicate    

5) calculate

Ans: (5)
12.
1) unequal    

2) normal

3) absolute

4) proper    

5) usual

Ans: (1)
13.
1) augments    

2) accentuates    

3) gains

4) helps    

5) thwarts

Ans: (1)
14.
1) neediest    

2) poorest

3) best

4) developed    

5) richest

Ans: (2)
15.
1) low    

2) fine

3) negligible

4) high    

5) small

Ans: (1)
Directions (Q.16 - 17): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.
16. Resumed
1) dissolved

2) disorganised

3) discontinued

4) depleted

5) denounced

Ans: (3)
17. Sacrifice
1) assimilate

2) abandon

3) associate

4) absorb

5) acquire

Ans: (5)
Directions-(Q.18 - 20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.
18. After a great deal of effort she finally managed to success in her venture.
(A) managing to succeed

(B) managed to succeed

(C) managing success

(D) manage to success

(E) No correction required

Ans: (B)
19. He is a very lazy person and hate doing any kind of work.
(A) hated doing

(B) hate does

(C) hates do

(D) hates doing

(E) No correction required

Ans: (D)
20. Usha could not thinking of travelling without her car and feared the crowd.
(A) could not think

(B) cannot thinking

(C) cannot think

(D) could not thinks

(E) No correction required

Ans: (A)

Numerical Ability

Directions-(Q.21 - 25) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
21. 256.33 - 14.32 = ? - 55.44
(A) 189.57    

(B) 168.57

(C) 176.57    

(D) 182.57

(E) None of these

Ans: (E)
22. 8544 - 5757 + 1111 = 1255 + ?
(A) 2463    

(B) 2643

(C) 2453    

(D) 2653

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)
23. 35.62 -12.67 + 15.96 = ? - 43.22                
(A) 85.13    

(B) 82.13

(C) 87.13    

(D) 83.13

(E) None of these    

Ans: (B)
24. 5⁵ x (25)³  625 = (5) ^?
(A) 6    

(B) 9

(C) 8    

(D) 5

(E) None of these

Ans: (E)
25. ? % of 400 - (7)² = 159
(A) 55    

(B) 53

(C) 51    

(D) 52

(E) None of these

Ans: (D)
26. Sumit purchased an item for Rs. 4,000 and sold it at the gain of 35%. From that amount he purchased another item and sold it at the loss of 20%. What is his overall gain/loss ?
(A) Loss of Rs. 340

(B) Gain of Rs. 350

(C) Loss of Rs. 360

(D) Neither gain nor loss

(E) None of these

Ans: (E)
27. Sahil got 45 marks in Hindi, 47 marks in Science, 49 marks in Maths, 45 marks in Social Science and 32 marks in English. The maximum marks of each subject are 50. How much overall percentage of marks did he get ?
(A) 89.5    

(B) 83.2

(C) 88.3    

(D) 87.2

(E) None of these

Ans: (D)
28. The sum of five consecutive odd numbers is equal to 175. What is the sum of the second largest number amongst them and the square of the smallest number amongst them together ?
(A) 989    

(B) 997

(C) 979    

(D) 995

(E) None of these

Ans: (E)
29. Shweta can complete a piece of work in 8 hours and Priyanka can complete the same piece of work in 4 hours. How much time will both of them take together (approximately) to complete the same piece of work ?
(A) 2 hours    

(B) 3 hours

(C) 5 hours    

(D) 8 hours

(E) 4 hours

Ans: (B)

30. What is thirty two per cent of three-eighth of 5000 ?
(A) 606    

(B) 610

(C) 580    

(D) 600

(E) None of these

Ans: (D)

General Awareness (with special reference to banking industry)

31. Which country won its first Fed Cup title in 23 years on 6 November 2011 after securing a 3-2 win over Russia in the final ?
(A) Iran

(B) South Korea

(C) Greece

(D) Czech Republic

Ans: (D)


32. Which Indian city is to host the World Economic Forum's (WEF's) India Economic Summit for the first time in 26 years of the summit's history from 12-14 November 2011 ?
(A) New Delhi

(B) Mumbai

(C) Ahmedabad

(D) Kolkata

Ans: (B)

33. Which of the following companies entered into a partnership with the department of information technology to provide rural population socially oriented investment options ?
(A) UTI Infrastructure Technology

(B) L&T Infrastructure

(C) ICICI Mutual Fund

(D) RIL

Ans: (A)

34. Palestine won the membership of UNESCO( United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation). UNESCO is the ___ UN agency Palestine has joined as a full member.
(A) First

(B) Second

(C) Third

(D) Fourth

Ans: (A)

35. According to a UN study what is India’s rank among a total of 187 countries in terms of Human Development Index ?
(A) 95

(B) 134

(C) 119

(D) 73

Ans: (B)

36. India scientists succeeded in decoding the genome of the arhar dal, which is also known as _____.
(A) Pigeon Pea

(B) Black-eyed Pea

(C) Sweet Pea

(D) Split Pea

Ans:  (A)

37. Name the Indian golfer who became the first Indian golfer to shoot a spectacular round of 12-under 60 on home soil when he took a three-stroke lead on the second day of the Rs. one-crore BILT Open golf championship at the Jaypee Greens golf course on 3 November 2011.
(A) Jyoti Randhawa

(B) Amandeep Johl

(C) Anirban Lahiri

(D) Rahil Gangjee

Ans: (C)

38. According to the data released by the commerce and industry ministry on 31 October 2011, the eight core infrastructure industries growth slowed down to what percentage for September 2011 as against 3.3 per cent in September 2010 ?
(A) 3.1%

(B) 2.3%

(C) 2%

(D) 1.8%

Ans: (B)

39. Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 16 October 2011 voiced the Finance Ministry’s decision to to recapitalise which of the following PSU lenders to help it achieve compliance with capital adequacy ratio (CAR) norms ?
(A) State Bank of India

(B) United Bank of India

(C) Punjab National Bank

(D) Bank of Baroda

Ans: (A)

40. Which one of the following launched social security scheme for Gramin Dak Sevaks?
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs

(B) Ministry of Communications and IT

(C) Ministry of Personnel and Grievance

(D) Ministry of Rural Development

Ans: (B)

Computer Knowledge

41. Which of the following commands is given to reboot the computer ?
1) Ctrl + Alt + Del

2) Ctrl + Shift + ?

3) Ctrl + Shift + Del

4) Ctrl +Alt + shift

5) Ctrl + Alt + Tab

Ans: (1)
42. By default, your documents print in _ mode.
1) Landscape   

2) Portrait

3) Page Setup   

4) Print View

5) None of these

Ans: (2)
43. To find and load a file that has been saved _.
1) select the Close command

2) select the New command

3) select the Save command

4) select the Open command

5) None of these

Ans: (4)
44. Which function calculates the largest value in a set of numbers ?
1) Average

2) Count

3) Minimum

4) Maximum

5) None of these

Ans: (4)
45. Which of the following statements is true ?
1) Minicomputer works faster than Microcomputer

2) Microcomputer works faster than Minicomputer

3) Speed of both the computers is the same

4) The speeds of both these computers. cannot be compared with the speed of advanced computer

5) None of these

Ans: (1)
46. In page preview mode-
(A) You can see all pages of your document

(B) You can only see the page you are currently working

(C) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics

(D) You can only see the title page of your document

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)
47. If the file saved earlier is edited, then-
(A) It is essential to save the file again to store the change

(B) The change will automatically be saved in the file

(C) If the length is more than a page, the file will be needed to be saved

(D) The name will be needed to be changed

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)
48. When creating a word-processed document, this step involves the user changing how words on the page appear, both on the screen and in printed form-
(A) Editing text

(B) Inserting tables and indexes

(C) Formatting text

(D) Proofing documents

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)
49. A CPU contains-
(A) a card reader and a printing device

(B) an analytical engine and a control unit

(C) a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit

(D) an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)
50. Aligning of text in column is-
(A) Justified

(B) Right

(C) Centre    

(D) Left

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)

IBPS CWE MODEL QUESTIONS

Reasoning

 1. Each consonant in the word TEMPORAL is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and then letters so arrived are arranged in alphabetical order, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end ?
(1) F
(2) P
(3) L
(4) K
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1) 14
(2) 18 
(3) 24
(4) 36
(5) 26
Ans: (4)
Directions (Q. 3 - 6) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the the questions given below:
R $ 5 4 I J M @ P 3 © A Q T 2 W 1 % U V 6 B E N 8 * 7 d D
3. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a vowel ?
(1)None 
(2) One 
(3) Two
(4) Three 
(5) Four
Ans: (3)
4. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and not immediately followed by a letter ?
(1) None 
(2) One 
(3) Two
(4) Three 
(5) More than three
Ans: (4)
5. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the nineteenth from the right end ofthe above arrangement ?
(1) T 
(2) W 
(3) N
(4) J 
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
6. If all the numbers from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the ninth to the right of J ?
(1) 1 
(2) A 
(3) Q
(4) T 
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
Directions (Q.7 - 8): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting in a straight line facing North, not necessarily in the same order.
(a) Q sits third to the right of T.
(b) T sits second to the right of P.
(c) V is not an immediate neighbour of T.
(d) R sits second to the left of S.
7. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to the original seating positions ?
(1) None
(2) One 
(3) Two 
(4) Three
(5) Four
Ans: (3)
8. Which of the following pairs sit at the extreme comers of the line ?
(1) TS 
(2) VS 
(3) RT 
(4) PQ 
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
9. The positions of the first and the sixth letters of the word CARPET are interchanged; similarly, the positions of the second and fifth letters; and the third and fourth letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many alphabets are there between the letter which is second from the right and the letter which is second from the left end, in the English alphabetical series?
(1) None 
(2) One 
(3) Two 
(4) Three 
(5) More than three
Ans: (4)
10. In a certain language 'row a boat' is coded as '947', 'boat in water' is coded as '415' and 'boat sunk in water' is coded as '1654'. How is 'sunk' coded in the same code language ?
(1) 5
(2) 9
(3) 7
(4) 6
(5) 1
Ans: (4)
11. 'Lyrics' is related to 'Song' in the same way as 'Rhyme' is related to.
(1) Poetry
(2) Episode
(3) Chapter
(4) Story
(5) Passage
Ans: (1)

English Language

Directions-(Q.12 to 13) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E), i.e., 'All Correct' as your answer.
12. My friends thesis was acclaimed
                         (A)            (B)
as a pioneering peice of research
          (C)          (D)
All Correct
     (E)

Ans: (D)
13. Air travel expanded enourmously
                       (A)             (B)
in the Second half of the twentieth century.
                                          (C)        (D)
All correct
   (E)
Ans: (B)
Directions (Q.14 - 17): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words in the passage have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
In July 1920 barely eight months after his arrival in England, Subhash Chandra Bose appeared in the Civil Service Examination and passed it with distinction. But the prospect of being a member of the bureaucracy did not make him happy. He felt that the first step towards equipping oneself for public service was to sacrifice all worldly interest. Much against the wishes ofhis father Subhash resigned from the I.C.S. and returned to India it? July 1920. Here he became Deshbandhu's most promising recruit. When C.R: Das became the chief organiser of the boycott of the visit of Prince of Wales, Subhash was by his side. The hartal in Calcutta. was a spectacular success and both the guru and sishya found themselves in jail. This was Subhash's first incarceration, the first of a total of eleven. Later. when C.R. Das was elected Mayor of Calcutta, Subhash was appointed Chief Executive Officer, While holding this post he was arrested in a case of conspiracy and was lodged without trial in Mandalay jail for two-and-a-half years. After release from jail, he became President of the Bengal Pradesh Congress Committee and once again resumed his political activities.
Subhash became President of the All India Youth Congress, Central Officer Commanding of the Congress Volunteer Corps, and in 1920, was the co-founder, with" Jawaharlal Nehru ofthe Left Wing of the Congress Party. He also became President of the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931. His dynamism was a source of inspiration for the trade unionists in the struggle for their rights as well as for India's freedom. In 1938, he was elected President of the Indian National Congress at the Haripura Session. This was the time when Congress ministries were in office in seven states under the scheme of Provincial Autonomy granted under the Government of India Act of 1935. He emphasised on the revolutionary potential of the Congress ministries in the presidential address. He was re-elected Congress President the following year at Tripuri, defeating the veteran, Dr. Pattabhi Sitaramayya though the latter enjoyed Gandhiji's support.'
14. When Subhash was the Chief Executive Officer
(1) he was arrested in a conspiracy case
(2) the Government oflndia Act of 1935 was passed
(3) he became President of the Bengal Pradesh Congress Committee
(4) The hartal in Calcutta was observed
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
15. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(1) The session of the Congress party was held at Calcutta
(2) Subhash liked the idea of working in a bureaucratic set up
(3) Subhash became the President of the All India Trade Union Congress in 1928
(4) In British rule, Congress was allowed to form ministries in States
(5) Subhash was lodged in the Mandalay jail after a proper trial
Ans: (4)
16. Shri c.n. Das (was)
(1) the-co-founder of the Left Wing of the Congress Party
(2) the President of.the All India youth Congress
(3) arrested and lodged in Mandalay jail without trial
(4) organised the boycott of the visit of Price of Wales
(5) elected unopposed as the President of the congress Party
Ans: (4)
17. Why did Subhash feel he should do for preparing himself to undertake public service?
(1) He should decide not to work in a bureaucratic set up
(2) He should feel pulse of the Nation
(3) He should feel renounce all pleasure available in the world
(4) He should dissociate himself from all dogmatic ideas and set notions
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
Directions (Q.18 - 20): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
18. The new assignment is (1)/more challenging than (2)/much of the (3)/ earlier assignments (4)/ No error (5)
Ans: (3)
19. We are sure that (1)/ they will definitely help us (2)/ if we approach (3)/ them well in advance (4)/No error (5)
Ans: (2)
20. They now claim that (1)/they would have (2)/ guided us if we (3)/ would have requested them (4)/No errors (5)
Ans: (4)

Numerical Ability

Directions-(Q.21 - 25) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
21. 9418 -? + 1436 + 2156 = 5658
(1) 7523
(2) 7352
(3) 7232
(4) 7325
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
22. 666 + (2-4 x ?) = 185
(1) 1.5
(2) 2.5
(3) 0.5
(4) 5
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
23. [(9)3 x (?)2] + 21 = 1701
(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 11
(4) 4
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
24. 21x14-34/12.4+5.6-15.5=?
(1) 95
(2) 100
(3) 110
(4) 106
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
25. 11 1/7 + 2 5/8 = ?
 (1) 110 1/7
(2) 13 45/56
(3) 96 3/8
(4) 13 43/56
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
26. The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 19043. Which is the smaller number ?
(1) 137
(2) 131
(3) 133
(4) 129
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
27. Monica, Veronica and Rachael begin to jog around a circular stadium. They complete their revolutions in 42 seconds, 56 seconds and 63 seconds respectively. After how many seconds will they be together at the starting point ?
(1) 336
(2) 252
(3) 504
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
28. A sum of money is to be divided equally amongst P, Q and R in the respective ratio of 5 : 6 : 7 and another sum of money is to be divided between Sand T equally. If S got Rs. 2,100 less than P, how much amount did Q receive ?
(1) Rs. 2,500
(2) Rs. 2,000
(3) Rs. 1,500
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
29. If the value of 21 a + 21 b = 1134, what is the average of a + b ?
(1) 29
(2) 27
(3) 58
(4) 54
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
30. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ? 82050125? 781.25
(1) 300
(2) 295.5
(3) 315
(4) 312.5
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)

Computer Knowledge

31. How do you prevent emailed word documents from always opening in the Reading Layout ?
(1) From the Tools Menu > Options > General Tab > uncheck the' Allow starting in Reading Layout'
(2) From the View Menu > Reading Layout > General Tab > uncheck the 'Allow starting in Reading Layout'
(3) From the Format Menu > Autoformat > Edit Tab > uncheck the 'Use with emailed attachments'.
(4) All the above
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
32. To find and load a file that has been saved _.
(1) select the Close command
(2) select the New command
(3) select the Save command
(4) select the Open command
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
33. What displays the content of the active cell ?
(1) Name box
(2) Row Headings
(3) Formulabar
(4) Taskpane
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
34. The Word function that corrects text as you type is referred to as 
(1) Auto Summarize
(2) Auto Insert
(3) Auto Correct
(4) Track Changes
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
35. By default, your documents print in _ mode.
(1) Landscape
(2) Portrait
(3) Page Setup
(4) Print View
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
36. Why are unknown e-mails deleted?
(1) You may be sentenced to jail
(2) That man can identify and harm you
(3) These are dirty manners
(4) The e-mail may consists of virus that may damage your computer
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
37. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network ?
(1) LAN
(2) OSL
(3) RAM
(4) USB
(5) CPU
Ans: (1)
38. A word in a web page that, when clicked, opens another document
(1) anchor
(2) URL
(3) hyperlink
(4) reference
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
39. 'GUI' stands for-
(1) Gnutella Universal Interface
(2) Graphical User Interface
(3) Graphic Uninstall/lnstall
(4) General Utility Interface
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
40. For doing some specific work, a key is used jointly with which of the following ?
(1) Function
(2) Arrow
(3) Space bar
(4) Control
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)

General Awareness

41. According to global fund-tracking agency EPFR, emerging markets attracted USD 3.5 billion or over 70 per cent of total fresh capital invested in the equity funds across the world during the week ended 2 November 2011. As per capital market regulator SEBI, FIIs made a net investment of  what amount in Indian equities during the week ended 2 November 2011?
(1) USD 680 million
(2) USD 650 million
(3) USD 666 million
(4) USD 715 million
Ans: (1)
42. Indirect tax collections in October 2011 dropped by 2.5 percent to Rs 30,278 crore on account of a slowing economy. Indirect tax comprises which of the following?
(1) corporate, excise and service tax
(2) customs, excise and service tax
(3) service, excise and sales tax
(4) value added tax, sales tax and income tax
Ans: (2)
43. Which of the following rating agencies on 9 November 2011 downgraded the entire Indian banking system's rating outlook from stable to negative indicating a deterioration in asset quality in the months ahead?
(1) Standard & Poor's (S&P)
(2) Fitch Rating
(3) Moody's
(4) A.M. Best
Ans: (3)
44. Which of the following public sector banks in November 2011 froze its lending to the power sector?
(1) State Bank of India
(2) Allahabad Bank
(3) Punjab National Bank
(4) United Bank of India
Ans: (2)
45. Russia and Bangladesh on 2 November 2011 signed a deal to build a nuclear power plant.  Consider the following statements on the nuclear deal.
(i) It would be Bangladesh’s first nuclear plant.
(ii) The nuclear power plant will be set up at Rooppur in Pabna district.
Choose the right option:
(1) Both i and ii are correct.
(2) Only i is correct.
(3) Only ii is correct.
(4) Neither i nor ii is correct.
Ans: (1)
46. Nabum Tuki was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh on 1 November 2011. He is the__ Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh?
(1) Seventh
(2) Sixth
(3) Fith
(4) Fourth
Ans: (1)
47. A report recently stated that bluefin tuna was fished illegally during Libya conflict. Consider the following statements:
(i) Bluefin Tuna are dark blue-black on the back, and white on the lower sides and belly.
(ii) The scientific name of bluefin tuna is Thunnus thynnus.
Choose the right option:
(1) Both i and ii are correct.
(2) Neither i nor ii is correct.
(3) Only i is correct.
(4) Only ii is correct.
Ans: (a)
48. Name the top seeded tennis duo who won the Stockholm Open after outplaying Marcelo Melo and Bruno Soares 6-1, 6-4 in the summit clash in October 2011.
(1) Baghdatis of Cyprus and Del Potro of Argentina
(2) Rohan Bopanna of India and Aisam-Ul-Haq Qureshi of Pakistan
(3) Michael Kohlmann and Alexander Wask of Gremany
(3) Gael Monfils of France  and Alexander Wask of Gremany
Ans: (2)

49. Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 31 October 2011 inaugurated a fully secure government e-payment system. Which of the following facts regarding the e-payment system is not true?
(i) e-payment system will enable the Central  government to directly credit dues into the accounts of beneficiaries.
(ii) It has been developed by Comptroller & Auditor general of India.
(iii) It has been designed to serve as middleware between COMPACT (computerised payment and accounts) application at PAOs and the core banking solution (CBS) of the agency banks/Reserve Bank of India, to facilitate paperless transaction.
(iv The e-payment system will save both time and effort in effecting payments and also facilitate the elimination of physical cheques and their manual processing.
(1) 1 & 2
(2) Only 1
(3) Only 2
(4) 1 & 3
Ans: (3)
50. Conference of Parties to the Stockholm Convention in Geneva on 29 April 2011 approved the recommendation for elimination of production and use of which of the following?
(1) Endosulfan
(2) Neonicotinoids
(3) Organophosphates
(4) Metarhizium anisopliae
Ans: (1)

IBPS CWE MODEL QUESTIONS

Reasoning

1. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ORGANISED each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet?

(1) None

(2) One    

(3) Two

(4) Three   

(5) More than three

Ans: (3)

2. '12' is related t6 '36' in the same way as' 17' is related to _.

(1) 51    

(2) 34    

(3) 68

(4) 63    

(5) 71

Ans: (1)

Directions (Q. 3-4): Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

P, Q, R, S, T, Y and Ware sitting around a circle facingat the centre. R is second to the right of P who is to the immediate right of Y. S is second to the left of V. Q is second to the right of W who is not an immediate neighbour of Y or S.

3. Who is second to the right to T ?

(1) V    

(2) P

(3) W

(4) Data inadequate

(5) None of these

Ans: (2)

4. In which of the following pairs is the first person sitting to the immediate right of the second person ?

(1) RQ    

(2) QS    

(3) ST

(4) VP    

(5) None of these

Ans: (5)

Directions (Q. 5-7): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting in a straight line facing North, not necessarily in the same order.

(1) Q sits third to the right of T.

(2) T sits second to the right of P.

(3) V is not an immediate neibhour of T.

(4) R sits second to the left of S.

5. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to the original seating positions?

(1) None

(2) One    

(3) Two    

(4) Three

(5) Four

Ans: (3)

6. How many persons sit between R and V?

(1) None

(2) One    

(3) Two

(4) Three

(5) Four

Ans: (3)

7. Which of the following pairs sit at the extreme comers of the line?

(1) TS    

(2) VS    

(3) RT    

(4) PQ    

(5) None of these

Ans: (4)

8. A building of fifteen floors has been recently constructed in which A, B, C, and 0 are staying as tenants. 8 lives on the tenth floor. D lives immediately above B but two floors below C. A lives above B but below C. On which of the following floors does A live on?

(1) 11th

(2) 12th

(3) 14th

(4) Either 12th or 13th

(5) Cannot be determined

Ans: (2)

Directions-(Q. 9-10) In each question below is given a number/ symbol followed by five combinations of letter codes numbred (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the number/symbol based on the following coding system and the conditions and mark the number of that combination as your answer.
Number/Symbol : 5Q2~6 9 8 1 @ 7 $ 4 3 0 n

Letter Code : J K P A O C B R S L V F T M E

Conditions :

(i) If both the first and the fifth elements are even numbers, the codes for both these are to be interchanged.

(ii) If the group of numbers contains only one symbol, that symbol is to be coded as the code for the element following it.

(iii) If the third element is an even number and the fourth an odd number, the fourth element is to be coded as the code for the second element.

9. 2~785$

(1) PBALJV

(2) PLBAJV

(3) PALBJV

(4) PJLBAV

(5) PLABJV

Ans: (3)
10. Q1690$

(1) KROMRV

(2) KORRMV

(3) KORMRV

(4) KOMRRV

(5) KRORMV

Ans: (5)

English Language

Directions-(Q. 11 to 12) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (1), (2), (3) and (4). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (5), i.e., 'All Correct' as your answer.
11. My friends thesis was acclaimed
                         (1)            (2)
as a pioneering peice of research
          (3)             (4)
All Correct
     (5)

Ans: (4)

12. Air travel expanded enourmously
                       (1)             (2)
in the Second half of the twentieth century.
                                        (3)          (4)
All correct
   (5)

Ans: (2)

Directions-(Q. 13 to 16) Read the following passage and answer the questions given after it -

Every afternoon, on their way back from school, the children used to go and play in the Giant's garden. It was a large lovely garden, with soft green grass. Over the grass stood beautiful flowers like stars, and there were twelve peach-trees that bore rich fruit. The birds would sit on the trees and sing sweetly to the children playing below. One day the Giant came back. He had been on a long tour and was now determined to return to his own castle. When he arrived he saw the children playing in the garden and was outrageous. "What are you doing here ?" He shouted in a very gruff voice, and the children ran away. "I will not allow anybody to play in my garden but myself" said the Giant. And so, he built a high wall around it, and put up a notice-board that read TRESPASSERS WILL BE PROSE-CUTED. He was a very selfish Giant. The poor children h&d now, nowhere to play. They tried to play on the road, but the road was very dusty and full of stones, and they did not like it. On their way back from school, they used to wander around the high wall and remember the good times.

Then came spring, and all over the country there were little blossoms and little birds. Only in the garden of the Selfish Giant it was still winter. The birds did not care to sing in it as there were no children and the trees forgot to blossom. The only people who were pleased were the snow and the frost. "Spring has forgotten this garden," they cried, "so we will live here all the year round." I cannot understand why the spring is so late in coming," said the selfish Giant, as he sat at the window and looked out at his cold white garden, "I hope there will be a change in the weather." But the spring never came, nor did the summer. The autumn gave golden fruit to every garden, but to the Giant's garden she gave none. "He was too selfish," she said. So it was always winter there.

One morning the Giant was lying awake in bed when he heard the birds singing. "I believe the spring has come at last," said the Giant, and he jumped out of bed and looked out. He saw the most wonderful sight. Through the little hole in the wall the children had crept in, and they were sitting on the branches of the trees. On every tree there was a child. The birds were flying about and twittering with delight, and the flowers were looking up through the green grass and laughing. It was a lovely scene however, in one corner it was still winter. It was the farthest corner of the garden, and in it was standing a little boy. He was so small that he could not reach the ranches of the tree, and he was wandering all around it crying bitterly. The Giant's heart melted as he looked out. "How selfish I have been '" he said, "now I know why spring would not come here. I will put that poor little boy on the top of the tree, and then I will knock down the wall, and my garden shall be the children's play-ground for ever and ever." He was really sorry for what he had done.

13. "Spring has forgotten this garden." They cried. Who is the author referring to ?

(1) The children

(2) The snow and the frost

(3) The autumn trees

(4) The spring

(5) None of these

Ans: (2)

14. What does the author compare the flowers in the garden to ?

(1) Stars

(2) Pearls

(3) Soft grass

(4) Frost

(5) None of these

Ans: (1)

15. What made the Giant believe spring had finally arrived?

(1) He heard the sounds of the children playing

(2) He smelt the flowers blooming in the garden

(3) He heard the singing by the birds

(4) He saw a hole in the compound wall

(5) He saw the trees bearing fruits

Ans: (3)

16. Why did the Giant put up the sign 'Trespassers will be prosecuted' in front of his garden?

(1) He did not want visitors

(2) It was a strategy to keep the children away

(3) Trespassers had ruined his garden in the past

(4) He was possessive about his property

(5) None of these

Ans: (2)

Directions-(Q. 17 to 18) Choose the word/phrase which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word/ phrase printed in bold as used in the passage.
17. Knock down

(1) Demolish

(2) Build

(3) Elevate

(4) Raise

(5) Step up

Ans: (1)

18. Scene

(1) Wish    

(2) Drawing

(3) Fantasy

(4) Picture

(5) Dream

Ans: (4)

Directions-(Q. 19 to 20) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
19. Pleased

(1) Upset

(2) Satisfied

(3) Happy

(4) Tortured

(5) Critical

Ans: (1)

20. Farthest

(1) Extreme

(2) Nearest

(3) Distant

(4) Shortest

(5) Endless

Ans: (2)

Numerical Ability

Directions-(Q. 21 to 24) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

21. 5544 - 6633 + 7744 = ? + 1111

(1) 5455

(2) 5454

(3) 5545

(4) 5445

(5) None of these

Ans: (5)

22. (5)³ ÷ (25)² x 125 = (5)^?

(1) 2

(2) 4

(3) 3

(4) 5

(5) None of these

Ans: (1)

23. 63 65. 75 _?/ 13 x 21 7 9 - .

(1) 21/5

(2) 11/5

(3) 5/9

(4) Z/9

(5) None of these

Ans: (2)

24. 7/12-3/4+2/3=?   

(1) 5/6

(2) 5/12

(3) 1/2

(4) 1/6

(5) None of these

Ans: (1)

25. The sum of five consecutive numbers is equal to 170. What is the product of the largest and the smallest numbers?

(1) 1512

(2) 1102

(3) 1152

(4) 1210

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

Directions-(Q. 26 to 27) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following number series?

26. 11, 19, 31, 47, 67, ?

(1) 80

(2) 81

(3) 86

(4) 96

(5) None of these

Ans: (5)

27. Reena got 76 marks in Hindi, 48 marks in Science, 84 marks in Maths, 38 marks in Social Science and 72 marks in English. The maximum marks of each subject are 100. How much overall percentage of marks did she get?

(1) 63.8    

(2) 62.6

(3) 63.6

(4) 64.8

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

28. Six boys can complete a piece of work in 16 hours. In how many hours will 8 boys complete the same piece of work?

(1) 10

(2) 8

(3) 12

(4) 14

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

Directions-(Q. 29 to 30) What will come in place of question mark (?) in the following questions?

29. 5/18 of 6/25 of 675 = ?

(1) 40

(2) 55

(3) 35

(4) 75

(5) None of these

Ans: (5)

30. 521.42 - 86.74 = ? + 112.89

(1) 321.69

(2) 312.79

(3) 322.79

(4) 312.69

(5) None of these

Ans: (5)

Computer Knowledge

31. Which function calculates the largest value in a set of numbers ?

(1) Average

(2) Count

(3) Minimum

(4) Maximum

(5) None of these

Ans: (4)

32. What do you use to create a chart ?

(1) Pie Wizard    

(2) Excel Wizard

(3) Data Wizard    

(4) Chart Wizard

(5) None of these

Ans: (4)

33. What displays the content of the active cell ?

(1) Name box    

(2) Row Headings

(3) Formulabar    

(4) Taskpane

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

34. By default, your documents print in _ mode.

(1) Landscape    

(2) Portrait

(3) Page Setup    

(4) Print View

(5) None of these

Ans: (2)

35. What is the best way to have a data and the slide number appear on every slide ?

(1) choose Tools, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the desired options, click Apply to All

(2) choose Insert, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the desired options, click Apply to All

(3) chouse View, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the desired options, click Apply to All

(4) choose File, Header and Footer, click Slide tab, select the desired options, click Apply to All

(5) None of these

Ans: (2)

36. To move to the bottom of a document, press _ .

(1) Insert key    

(2) Home key

(3) Ctrl key + End key    

(4) End key

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

37. Which one of the following four words is odd?

(1) Application

(2) Peripheral

(3) Programme

(4) Software

(5) None of these

Ans: (2)

38. If formation of computer, the hardwares..........are used.

(1) Monitor, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Keyboard, Mouse, Software and Network

(2) Monitor, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Keyboard, Mouse Programme and Network

(3) Monitor, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Keyboard, Mouse, Printer and Modem

(4) Monitor, Central Processing Unit (CPU), Keyboard, Mouse, Application and Network

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

39. In page preview mode-

(1) You can see all pages of your document

(2) You can only see the page you are currently working

(3) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics

(4) You can only see the title page of your document

(5) None of these

Ans: (1)
40. A CPU contains-

(1) a card reader and a printing device

(2) an analytical engine and a control unit

(3) a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit

(4) an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader

(5) None of these

Ans: (3)

General Awareness (with special reference to banking industry)

41. Which PSU topped the list by clinching five awards including the best financial performance award in Maharatna and Navaratna category among the Public Sector Enterprises in september 2011?

(1) BHEL

(2) ONGC

(3) NTPC

(4) Indian Oil

Ans: (2)

42. Union government on 20 September 2011 extended the terms of reference of the Nilekani task force. Which of the following facts about the task-force is/are not true?

1. The task-force was set up by the HRD under the chairmanship of Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) chief Nandan Nilekani in October 2010.

2. The task force was asked to recommend and implement a solution for direct transfer of subsidies on kerosene, LPG and
fertiliser to the intended beneficiaries.

3. The terms of reference of the Nilekani task force on direct transfer of subsidies. The extended terms of reference is to include an Aadhaar-enabled unified payment infrastructure.

4. The panel was asked to recommend an architecture for e-banking through inter-operable business correspondents

(1) Only 4

(2) 1 & 4

(3) Only 1

(4) 2 & 4

Ans: (3)

43. Coal Ministry on 21 September 2011 during the Round table conference on Coal approved, in principle, the allotment of five coal blocks to which of the following PSU power generators?

(1) BHEL

(2) NTPC

(3) PowerGrid Corporation of India

(4) Gujarat State Energy Generation

Ans: (2)

44. 44th Jnanpith Award for 2008 was presented to renowned Urdu poet Professor Akhlaq Mohammad Khan Shahryar  for his distinguished contribution in enriching Indian literature. He received the Sahitya Academy Award in 1987 for which of the following?

(1) Ism-e-azam

(2) Khwab ka Dar Band Hai

(3) Kahin Kuchh Kam Hai

(4) Hijr ke mausam

Ans: (2)

45. Astronomers discovered that the planet named TrES-2b is blacker than any planet in our solar system. Astronomers made this observation after using NASA’s__spacecraft.

(1) Kepler

(2) Freedom 7

(3) Faith 7

(4) Discovery

Ans: (1) Kepler

46. Government panel headed by Planning Commission member Arun Maira in its report presented on 27 September 2011 suggested giving more powers to which of the following bodies with respect to mergers and acquisitions in the pharmaceutical sector?

(1) Competition Commission of India

(2) Finance Ministry

(3) Reserve Bank of India

(4) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry

Ans: (1)

47. Union Government on 26 September 2011 announced the reconstitution of the National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council (NMCC) under whose chairmanship to energise and sustain the growth of manufacturing industries and help in the implementation of strategies by the government?

(1) V. Krishnamurthy

(2) Pranab Mukherjee

(3) U K Sinha

(4) Dr D Subbarao

Ans: (1)

48. Who was honoured with the Swiss Ambassador's award for exceptional leadership and his contribution to strengthening bilateral ties between India and Switzerland on 16 October 2011?

(1) Anil Ambani

(2) Rattan Tata

(3)Narayan Murthy

(4)G D Birla

Ans: (2)

49. The Indian kabaddi team lifted its first-ever Circle Style Asian kabaddi title by defeating which team at Tabriz in Iran on 27 September 2011?

(1) Phillipines

(2) Japan

(3) Pakistan

(4) Iran

Ans: (3)

50. Name the Kenyan athlete who on 25 September 2011 shattered the world men's marathon record by 21 seconds when he clocked two hours three minutes 38 seconds in Berlin course?

(1) Japheth Kimutai

(2) Reuben Kosgei

(3) Patrick Makau

(4) Musa Amer Obaid

Ans: (3)

IBPS CLERKS ENGLISH MODEL PRACTICE PAPER

Directions (Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

During the reign of King Veer, there lived a wise magistrate. Haripant’s verdicts were always just and people from all over the vast kingdom came to him in order to settle their disputes. In the city where Haripant lived, there was a greedy ghee merchant named Niranjan. He always kept twenty barrels of ghee. Of these, fifteen would contain good quality ghee and the remaining would be adulterated. He would mix the two and sell it. This went on for a long time, till finally the people fed up of being cheated, complained to Haripant.
Haripant had the ghee examined and found it to be adulterated. He gave Niranjan a choice of punishment– drink the five barrels of adulterated ghee from his shop, or receive a hundred lashings, or pay a thousand gold coins to the treasury. Niranjan thought for a while. Losing a thousand gold coins was too much and a hundred lashings too painful. So he decided to drink the five barrels of ghee. Though Niranjan sold adulterated goods in his shop, he made sure his own food was of the best quality. So after drinking one barrel of ghee he began to feel sick. By the second barrel, he was vomiting. At this point he decided to opt for the lashings instead. But he was pampered and his body was unused to any harsh treatment. After ten lashes, he started trembling and by twenty he was giddy. ‘Stop !’ he screamed. ‘I will pay the thousand gold coins !’ And he handed them over.
So he ended up suffering all three punishments, something he did not forget in a hurry and the people of the city got to use only the best quality ghee in their food from then on !

1. Why did Niranjan keep five barrels of adulterated ghee?
(A) To sell to customers who could not afford high quality ghee
(B) To make a profit by cheating people
(C) Being a miser he kept the low quality ghee for his family
(D) Demand for this ghee was low so he kept only a small quantity
(E) None of these
2. Why did the people decide to go to Haripant with their complaint?
(A) He was close to the King and would get justice for them
(B) They knew Niranjan was afraid of Haripant who punished people severely
(C) They were confident that he would listen to their complaint and give a fair judgement
(D) He was the only magistrate in the entire kingdom
(E) None of these
3. Why did Haripant allow Niranjan to choose his own punishment?
(A) He felt sorry for Niranjan
(B) Niranjan’s offence was minor
(C) He did not want Niranjan to appeal to the King for leniency
(D) He did not want to give the wrong punishment
(E) None of these
4. Which of the following can be said about Niranjan?
i. He took a lot of time to make any decision.
ii. He only cheated those who would not dare complain against him.
iii. He was allergic to ghee and fell sick whenever he consumed it.
(A) None
(B) Only i
(C) Both i and ii
(D) All i, ii and iii
(E) None of these
5. Why did Niranjan decide to drink adulterated ghee for his punishment?
(A) Since the barrels were from his shop he thought he could substitute the adulterated ghee with good ghee
(B) He wanted to prove that the quality of ghee he sold was good
(C) He was greedy and had a big appetite so he thought he would easily drink the ghee
(D) He considered it the easiest of the punishments as he did not realise what effect the ghee would have on him
(E) None of these
6. How did Haripant arrive at the conclusion that Niranjan sold adulterated ghee?
(A) Niranjan was ill when he drank the ghee from his shop
(B) He had the ghee tested to see if it was adulterated
(C) He trusted the word of those who had complained to him
(D) He too was duped by Niranjan
(E) Niranjan admitted his guilt when confronted
7. Which of the following is not true in the context of the passage?
i. Niranjan’s customers were so angry that they beat him mercilessly.
ii. King Veer’s kingdom was large.
iii. Niranjan had a very good memory.
(A) Only i
(B) Only ii
(C) Both i and iii
(D) All
(E) None of these
8. What made Niranjan opt for paying the fine last of all?
(A) He would be deeply in debt if he paid it
(B) He knew Haripant would keep the money for himself
(C) No one was willing to lend him money
(D) He could not bear to part with such a huge sum
(E) His business would be ruined if he paid such a large fine
9. What effect did Niranjan’s punishment have?
(A) All the merchants learnt their lesson and supplied only good quality ghee
(B) Niranjan lost all his customers and had to close down his shop
(C) People began to fear Haripant because of his severe punishments
(D) Niranjan gave in to all his customers’ demands even if it meant making a loss
(E) Niranjan improved the quality of the ghee that he sold
10. Why did Niranjan suffer three punishments?
(A) He had cheated so many people that his punishment had to be severe
(B) Haripant had ordered this so that Niranjan would never repeat his offence
(C) Haripant wanted to make an example of him so that other merchants would not cheat their customers
(D) Niranjan could not decide which punishment to undergo so Haripant awarded him all the three punishments
(E) None of these

Directions (Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

11. SETTLE
(A) Resolve
(B) Occupy
(C) Compromise
(D) Arrange
(E) Quiet

12. CHEATED
(A) Unfaithful
(B) Blamed
(C) Exploited
(D) Prevented
(E) Dodged

13. SUFFERING
(A) Hardship
(B) Distressing
(C) Hurting
(D) Experiencing
(E) Trouble

Directions—(Q. 14-15) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. BEST
(A) Damaged
(B) Inferior
(C) Spoiled
(D) Defective
(E) Cheap

15. UNUSED
(A) Accustomed
(B) Routine
(C) Often
(D) Normal
(E) Repeated

Directions (Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Since books are quite expensive that many children do not have access to them.
(A) More expensive than
(B) So expensive that
(C) Very expensive
(D) Too expensive for
(E) No correction required

17. At the meeting they told us what kind of difficulties we may likely to face while establishing a rural branch.
(A) May like to face
(B) Were being faced
(C) Could be likely face
(D) Would be likely to face
(E) No correction required

18. What response you get to the proposal that you circulated among our investors?
(A) Responses have you
(B) Response did you
(C) Were your responses
(D) Did you respond
(E) No correction required

19. One of our representatives will meet you at the airport and accompanies you to our office.
(A) And accompany you
(B) To accompany
(C) Accompanying you
(D) Will be accompanied by you
(E) No correction required

20. I knew that because I refused to accept the old man’s gift I would hurt his feelings.
(A) Not to refuse
(B) By refusal
(C) If I refused
(D) Should I refused
(E) No correction required

Directions (Q. 21–25) In each question below, a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate, if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e., ‘All correct’ as your answer.

21. It is better to seek (A) advice (B) from a financial consultant (C) on how to safe (D) your business. All correct (E)
22. This is the list (A) of people who should be insisted (B) to participate (C) in the conference. (D) All correct (E)
23. The impact (A) of those schemes (B) was visible (C) after a decade. (D) All correct (E)
24. Since this offer is available (A) for a limited (B) period alone (C) you should register (D) immediately. All correct (E)
25. I patently (A) explained (B) to the customer that it was not possible (C) to fulfill his request. (D) All correct (E)
Directions (Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) Thus they teach us that no matter how insignificant you think you are, you can accomplish extraordinary things.
(2) During the course of its life it was struck by lightning fourteen times.
(3) But one day it was attacked by an army of beetles.
(4) The tree stood at the foot of the Himalayas for over four hundred years.
(5) The tiny insects ate their way through the tree and destroyed it.
(6) It even survived innumerable storms and avalanches.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
27. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
28. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
29. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
30. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Directions (Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any.)
31. My cousin’s wedding provided (A) / me with the chance (B) / to meet which relatives I (C) / had not met for a long time. (D) No error (E)
32. There are floods in this (A) / region last year but (B) / many of the victims have (C) / not yet been compensated. (D) No error (E)
33. We must ensure that (A) / all our records (B) / are computerised (C) / for next year. (D) No error (E)
34. In order to impart (A) / training to bank employees (B) / we are setting up (C) / centres at various location. (D) No error (E)
35. When Rahul reached (A) / the office there was (B) / nobody there so (C) / he sat down to wait. No error (E)
36. I shall have to check (A) / our records to find out (B) / how much cheques (C) / have been collected so far. (D) No error (E)
37. Our first task as (A) / board members is (B) / to decide on what we (C) / should spend these funds. (D) No error (E)
38. She was lucky (A) / to find a good paying (B) / job as soon (C) / as she graduated. (D) No error (E)
39. For the last six months (A) / Seema has been asking them (B) / to refund the money but (C) / there is been no action. (D) No error (E)
40. He promised to get (A) / in touch with myself (B) / as soon as he had (C) / the information I needed. (D) No error (E)

Directions (Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
A professor was …(41)… the Indian Independence Movement and the idea of non-violence …(42)… by Mahatma Gandhi. “Although others like Nelson Mandela followed this idea and …(43)… the Nobel Prize for Peace Mahatma Gandhi did not,” she said. One student spoke up, “It is good that he didn’t, …(44)… it was an award started by Alfred Nobel who invented dynamite, which causes …(45)… !”

The professor …(46)…. “In fact the world should be …(47)… to Nobel because he invented dynamite. It was very useful to build tunnels …(48)… mountains for trains to pass. If we choose to use it for war it is not his fault. Furthermore he …(49)… all his wealth into instituting prizes for literature, physics, chemistry, medicine, peace, etc. His …(50)… was that anything which would benefit the human race deserved recognition so that the person who had started it would have no financial difficulties in achieving his goal”.

41. (A) lecturing
(B) talking
(C) discussing
(D) speaking
(E) arguing
42. (A) originate
(B) specialised
(C) start
(D) conceived
(E) thought
43. (A) awarded
(B) given
(C) presented
(D) win
(E) received

44. (A) that
(B) get
(C) accept
(D) though
(E) since

45. (A) blast
(B) ruins
(C) destruction
(D) bombs
(E) damages

46. (A) disagreed
(B) answers
(C) shouted
(D) upset
(E) agreed

47. (A) dedicated
(B) grateful
(C) appreciated
(D) thanking
(E) cursing

48. (A) from
(B) through
(C) over
(D) under
(E) within

49. (A) put
(B) left
(C) gave
(D) donated
(E) contributed

50. (A) decision
(B) logic
(C) cause
(D) excuse
(E) discovery

Answers:

1	B	2	C	3	D	4	E	5	D	6	B	7	D	8	D	9	A	10	E
11	A	12	E	13	D	14	B	15	A	16	C	17	D	18	B	19	A	20	C
21	D	22	E	23	E	24	C	25	A	26	D	27	A	28	E	29	E	30	A
31	C	32	A	33	C	34	D	35	E	36	C	37	C	38	E	39	D	40	C
41	A	42	D	43	E	44	E	45	C	46	A	47	B	48	D	49	C	50	B

IBPS CLERKS BANKING AWARENESS MCQs

1. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The licence to open branches of bank is granted by Board of Directors of that Bank
b) There is no need of licenses to open branch of a bank
c) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Central Government
d) A licence to open a branch is issued by the Reserve Bank of India under the provisions of Banking Regulation Act, 1949

2. The important condition for granting licence of banking companies is?
a) Banking company need not plan to pay for future depositors
b) Banking company can plan for its capital structure once the licence is granted
c) The business undertaken by the banking company should not frustrate the interest of public
d) The banking company can undertake business other than banking with the permission of annual general body

3. Who of the following is not a party to the IPO?
a) Registrar of Issue
b) Investment Banker
c) Advertisement Agency
d) Registrar of Companies

4. Which of the following is not shown as an asset in the balance sheet of a Bank?
a) Investments
b) Advances
c) Cash Balances with other banks
d) Borrowings

5. The credit policy of a bank does not consists of?
a) Lending policies
b) Quality control
c) Loan product mix
d) Advertising of loan products

6. Which of the following is a function of the agent bank relating to flow of money in the process of loan syndication?
a) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan
b) Calling of loans in the event of default
c) Receiving the fee from the borrower and distributing among the participating banks
d) Receiving notices relating to transfers of banks

7. Which of the following is the parameter to recognize the SSI unit as sick unit?
a) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 25% of its net worth during the previous account year
b) The erosion in the net-worth due to accumulated losses is up to 50% of its net worth during the previous account year.
c) The unit should have been in commercial production for at least five years
d) Lack of updations in technological development

8. Which of the following is not the service provided by the Small Industries Service Institute?
a) Providing entrepreneurship development programs
b) Developmental efforts
c) Export promotion and liaison activities
d) Financial support

9. Service Area Approach (SAA) is associated with?
a) Rural and Semi-urban branches of commercial banks
b) Urban branches of commercial banks
c) Branches of commercial banks situated in metro cities
d) Development banks

10. Which of the following cannot be securitized?
a) Future rentals of a fishing boat
b) Hire purchase receivables
c) Demand drafts received by the banker during clearing
d) Future billings for an airline

11. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The special purpose vehicle (SPV) purchases the assets from the borrower directly during the securitization
b) The originator and obligor are the same persons in securitization process
c) Administrator collects the payments due from the obligor and passes it to the SPV and follows with defaulters
d) Mortgage based securitization provides high yields to the investor


12. The important feature of an anticipatory letter of credit is that?
a) The letter of credit can be used as back- to- back letters of credit
b) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the pre-shipment stage
c) The beneficiary under the letter of credit may receive payment even at the post-shipment stage
d) The cash advance is not permitted against such letter of credits

13. The Shipping guarantee is a?
a) Type of a letter of credit
b) Guarantee issued by the ship captain to the purchaser
c) Guarantee issued to the borrower towards the loan granted by the shipping company
d) Deferred payment guarantee issued by a banker at the request of the consignee when the documents are not received and goods are received, for facilitating the delivery of goods.

14. Which of the following statements is true?
a) The charge card is a credit instrument
b) Under this facility the cardholders need to pay amount within ten installments
c) Cardholder has to pay the 100% of the purchase amount within 30 days of purchase
d) The charge card shall have revolving credit

15. Which of the following is not augmented feature of a credit card?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawals
c) Add-on facility
d) Issue of deferred guarantee

16. Which of the following is the disadvantage of going for public issue?
a) Liquidity to existing shares
b) Increase in visibility and reputation to the company
c) Better pricing and placement with new investors
d) Need to make continuous disclosures

17. Which of the following is not a criterion to select the Investment Bankers?
a) No professional memberships or incorporations are required
b) General reputation in the market
c) Good rapport with market intermediaries
d) Distribution net work of the organization

18. Which of the following is not an asset of a bank?
a) Notes and small coins
b) Overdue recurring deposits
c) Short term loans
d) Staff advances

19. The banking company has restriction to sanction loan to?
a) Directors of the bank
b) Staff working in the bank
c) Students going abroad
d) Professionals

20. Which of the following is a non-depository institution?
a) Credit unions
b) Commercial banks
c) Mutual funds
d) Regional rural banks

21. The disadvantage associated with leasing company is?
a) Low costs
b) Flexibility in payments
c) Eliminates the risk of obsolescence
d) High competitions because of entry to all financial institutions

22. Which of the following theory is associated with the financial system in the economic growth?
a) Retributive theory
b) Reformative theory
c) Financial repression theory
d) Jurisdictional theory

23.Which of the following is not a financial intermediary in the financial markets?
a) Pension funds
b) Credit unions
c) Life insurance companies
d) Small scale service institute.

24 Which of the following is not a function of a commercial bank?
a) Registration of charges and mortgages
b) Transactions services
c) Asset transaction
d) Real-time Gross Settlement

25. Which of the following is one of the three pillars of new Basel Capital Award?
a) Market competitions
b) Market rapport
c) Market discipline
d) International market relations

26. The interest in savings bank accounts of a bank is calculated on?
a) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last day of month
b) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 10th and the last of month
c) Minimum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last day of month
d) Maximum amount of balance that is maintained in the account in between 1st and the last of month

27. The credit policy of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Documentation standards
c) Review and renewal of advances
d) Outstanding balances in deposit accounts

28. Issuing credit cards is a component of ?
a) Corporate banking
b) Rural banking
c) Retail banking
d) Micro finance

29. The origin of bank instruments can be traced to?
a) The priests and worship places of public deposits
b) Goldsmith receipts
c) Bonds issued by the British Government in India
d) Bank notes issued by Bank of Venice

30. Which of the following is not the function of commercial banks?
a) Providing transaction services
b) Intermediation in financial services
c) Providing transformation services
d) Regulating the issue of bank notes.

31 Which of the following is the most important challenge before the commercial bank?
a) Maintenance of foreign currency
b) Evaluating the need of the customers
c) Maintenance of SLR and CRR
d) Meet the technological revolution

32. The asset's side of balance sheet consists of ?
a) Cash balances with other banks
b) Fixed deposits of customers
c) Savings deposits
d) Recurring deposits

33. Which of the following is an income for a bank?
a) Depreciation on bank's property
b) Interest on inter bank borrowings
c) Profit on revaluation of investments
d) Provisions made on account of write-offs

34. Saving Bank Account can be opened in the name of ?
a) State text book printing corporations
b) District level housing cooperative societies
c) Communist Party of India
d) Aravind Samuel, Anurag Deepak and Amarish Sugandhi Jointly

35. The interest on recurring deposit is paid on the basis of ?
a) Simple interest calculated monthly basis
b) Simple interest on monthly products basis
c) Quarterly compounding
d) Interest calculated on daily products basis

36. Which of the following statements is true?
i. Term deposits are non-transaction deposits
ii. Cheques can be issued on short-term deposits
iii. All term deposits are interest bearing deposits
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i) and (iii)

37. The credit policy laid down by the top management of a bank does not deal with?
a) Credit risk management
b) Pricing of the credit products
c) Appraisal of time and demand deposits
d) Documentation standards.

38. Which of the following factors is not required to be considered to analyze the repayment capacity of a borrower?
a) Working capital management
b) Personal educational qualifications
c) Financial leverage
d) Interest rate risk management

39. Which of the following is a facilitating service of core loan products of retail banking services?
a) Current or savings accounts
b) Legal services for documentation
c) Delivery of loan at promised time period
d) Flexibility in prepayment of loan

40. Which of the following is an most important advantage of retail banking on the resource side?
a) Consumer loans are low risk products
b) Innovative product development and disbursal
c) Increases the subsidiary business of a bank
d) Requires less efforts to market retail loan products

41. Lenders may not provide trade-offs to the borrowers on the basic term of consumer installment credit relating to?
a) Interest rate
b) Maturity of the loan
c) Maturity of the deposit
d) Quantum of finance

42. Which of the following is the risk associated with the retail banking?
a) Strong recovery strategy
b) Definite lending limits
c) Effective credit process and proposals
d) Inadequate risk pricing

43 The advantage of consortium finance is?
i. Speedy transactions and individual approach
ii. Involvement of huge amounts
iii. Use of expertise of all the banks
a) (i) only
b) (ii) only
c) (iii) only
d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

44 Which of the following is not a function of the agent bank in loan syndication?
a) Ensuring the compliance of conditions precedent under the loan agreement
b) Determining the LIBOR interest rate for each interest rate
c) Planning for future syndication of loans
d) Receiving notices relating to cancellation of any part of the loan

45. Which of the following is not a phase/step in the formation of loan syndication?
a) Finalization of supply agreement
b) Identify the needs of the borrower
c) Preparation of information memorandum
d) Invite other banks to participate

46. Which of the following statements is true?
a) SSI is an undertaking in which the investments in fixed assets in plant and machinery does not exceed one million
b) Small and medium enterprises both in size and shape are not homogenous in nature
c) The small and medium enterprises contribution towards the GDP is nominal
d) Small and medium enterprises do not support the large industries.

47. The Nayak Committee has suggested the turnover method for assessing the working capital and pegged it at?
a) 15% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
b) 20% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
c) 25% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit
d) 30% of the projected annual turnover, as working capital limit

48. Which of the following is not a part of the rehabilitation package granted for revival of sick industry?
a) Waiver of penal interests
b) Funding by sanctioning of term loans towards the unpaid installments of loans
c) Grant of additional working capital loans
d) Not demanding the promoters contribution towards the rehabilitation package

49. Service Area Approach is associated with?
a) Industrial finance
b) Microfinance
c) Rural finance
d) Consortium finance

50. Which of the following resources cannot be securitized?
a) Credit balances outstanding in cash credit accounts
b) Credit Card receivables
c) Hire purchase receivable
d) Mortgage in lieu of future payments

51. Which of the following is a type of anticipatory letter of credit?
a) Green clause letter of credit
b) Yellow clause letter of credit
c) Back to back letters of credit
d) Revolving letter of credit

52. Performance guarantee is issued?
a) In lieu of earnest money
b) In lieu of retention money
c) In lieu of indemnity bonds
d) For successful competition of Turnkey projects

53. Which of the following is not a transfer of funds by using the electronic media?
a) Mail transfer of funds
b) Telegraphic transfer of funds
c) Electronic credit transfers
d) Electronic clearing transfers

54. Which of the following is not an augmenting feature of credit cards?
a) Personal accident insurance
b) Cash withdrawal facility
c) Add-On facility
d) Automatic recovery of interest on term loans

55 Which of the following is a disadvantage of going public issue?
a) Provides liquidity to existing shares
b) Commands better pricing than placement with few investors
c) Increased regulatory norms
d) Enables valuation of the company

56 Which of the following is not a reason for regulating the banking operations?
a) Banks hold a major portion of the public savings
b) Banks intermediate between the savings and investments
c) Banks hold a large part of the money supply
d) Banks earn profit from non-fund services

57. Which of the following statements is true?
a) Resave Bank of India empowers the banks to open branches according to their will and pleasure
b) Reserve Bank of India is a central bank which monitors only lending activities pertaining to export credit
c) Banks have authority to establish the ATMs at their convenience
d) Rural banks of commercial banks do not have freedom to issue credit cards

58. When the customer withdraws cash from ATM, the banker and customer relation ship is?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Creditor and Debtor
c) Lessor and Lessee
d) Agent and principal

59. Which of the following is a public sector Bank?
a) IDBI
b) ICICI
c) AXIS
d) HDFC

60. Trade control in India is regulated by?
a) RBI
b) SEBI
c) EXIM Bank
d) DGFT

61 Which of the following businesses is prohibited as per Sec 8 of B.R Act 1949?
a) Executing the trusts
b) Leasing
c) Retail trading
d) Underwriting

62. Which of the following is not one of the essential elements of internal audit?
a) Totality
b) Expertise
c) Independence
d) Subjectivity

63. The letter of credit, which facilitates the exporter to get pre- shipment finance (from the stage of purchase of raw material until the warehousing of the finished goods) from advising bank is called?
a) Red Clause LC
b) Lines of credit
c) Packing credit loan
d) Green Clause LC

64. A term loan is classified as a non-performing asset, if interest or installment is overdue for period exceeding how many days?
a) 90
b) 91
c) 180
d) 182

65. Which of the following is an interest bearing demand deposit?
a) Time Deposit
b) Re-investment deposits
c) Cash Certificates
d) Savings Bank account

66. Debt Recovery Tribunals accept petitions from Banks and financial institutions, only when the amount of suit is for Rs?
a) 1 00 000 and above
b) 5 00 000 and above
c) 7 50 000 and above
d) 10 00 000 and above

67. An endorsement is deemed as an instruction to?
a) Collecting Bank
b) Paying Bank
c) Drawer
d) Payee

68. Ideal Credit deposit ratio for a bank is?
a) 60%
b) 40%
c) 90%
d) 30%

69. The rate at which RBI rediscounts the bills of commercial banks is called as?
a) Bank Rate
b) Prime Lending rate
c) Repo rate
d) BPLR

70. Which of the following is not one of the RBI directives on clean note policy?
a) Currency note packets are not to be stapled and secured with paper bands
b) Soiled notes are to be stapled before they are remitted to Currency Chest.
c) Water mark window of bank notes shall not contain any writings
d) Currency notes are to be sorted in to Issuable and non-issuable notes.

71. Which of the following committees are related to 'Micro financing'?
a) Nayak Committee
b) Tandon committee
c) Vyas Committee
d) Narasimham committee

72. The relation ship between RBI and the Bank maintaining the currency chest is that of?
a) Debtor and Creditor
b) Principal and Agent
c) Bailor and Bailee
d) Creditor and Debtor

73. Normally, the number of members in a self Help Group shall not exceed?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 50
d) 15

74. Short fall in fulfilling the targets of Priority sector and agricultural finance by domestic commercial banks shall be deposited with/in?
a) RIDF
b) SIDBI
c) RBI
d) IDBI

75. The maturity value of a Recurring deposit with a monthly contribution of Rs 500 kept for a period of 12 months, at 9% interest rate compounded quarterly would be Rs.?
a) 6, 265
b) 6, 625
c) 7, 255
d) 7, 555

76. Which of the following is not an imperfect note?
a) Washed note
b) Bleached note
c) Mutilated note
d) Oiled note

77. Credit rating helps in measuring the credit risk and facilitates?
a) Considering higher credit limits
b) Making loan provisioning at an early stage
c) Accurately calculate the probable loan losses
d) Pricing of a loan

78. The Reverse Repo has the following characteristic?
a) Borrowing by RBI from banks
b) Borrowing with government security as collateral
c) Short term borrowing
d) All of these

79. Under the Nayak Committee recommendations, the quantum of working capital limits from the bank is minimum percentage of the projected annual sales?
a) 5%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%

80. Banks insist on providing finance for those projects or activities only which they consider to be viable. What is meant by viability of project?
a) Capacity to generate cash, adequate to service debt and surplus for borrower's personal requirement.
b) Generation of cash to meet debt liability
c) Generation of profits.
d) Generation of gross profits

81. Letter of negative lien obtained from borrower by a bank contains?
a) An undertaking that the property mortgaged to the bank is his own
b) A confirmation that the borrower had earlier deposited title deeds to create mortgage on the property.
c) An undertaking not to create any encumbrance/lien on the property which he owns but not yet mortgaged to the bank
d) A declaration that he is the joint owner of the property furnishing the details of his share and valuation thereof.

82. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a) Consortium advances to be treated as NPA on the basis of recovery by individual banks
b) If one facility of a borrower is treated as NPA other facilities to him also to be treated as NPA even if there are no irregularities in that account.
c) Consortium must be formed if the total exposure of fund based limit exceeds Rs 100 crore.
d) Both (a) and (b)

83. If an IPO is under-priced, which of the following can be considered as consequences/implications of the same?
I. The company looses the opportunity to raise more funds
II. Under pricing would give less returns to the investor
III. Under pricing results in lower net worth on an increased equity.
a) Only (II) above
b) Only (III) above
c) Both (I) and (III) above
d) Both (II) and (III) above all.

84. Corporate Bank files suit for recovery of its loan against the guarantor only and not the borrower. Guarantor pleads in the court that before filing suit against him, money should be recovered from the borrower. In such circumstances, the bank can seek recourse in the court against?
a) All the liable parties together only
b) Any one of them at a time
c) All separately
d) At its discretion it can proceed against any one

85. A letter of credit (LC) wherein the credit available to the customer gets reinstated after the bill is paid is known as?
a) Back to back LC
b) Red clause LC
c) Back to front LC
d) Revolving LC

86. Regional Rural Banks are?
a) Private Sector scheduled commercial banks
b) Cooperative banks
c) Foreign banks
d) Public sector scheduled commercial banks

87. Large corporate customers demand?
a) Short term products from their banks irrespective of the cost at their times of need.
b) Increasingly sophisticated products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
c) Disintegrated financial products from their banks at the lowest possible cost.
d) Basic banking products from their banks but with speed and efficiency.

88. Funded Services under corporate banking does not include?
a) Working Capital Finance
b) Bill Discounting
c) Export Credit
d) Letters of Credit

89. Which of the following is not directly involved in rural lending?
a) Cooperatives
b) RRBs
c) Commercial banks
d) SIDBI

90. PACSs provide?
a) Mainly long term credit
b) Mainly short term credit
c) Both long term and short term credit
d) Do not provide any credit

91. The purpose of which is to make credit of available to essential sectors of the economy according to national priorities?
a) Selective Credit Control (SCC)
b) Maintenance of cash reserve
c) Reserve fund
d) Comprehensive Credit Control

92. The system of note issue followed by the RBI is?
a) Proportional reserve system
b) Minimum reserve system
c) Minimum fiduciary system
d) Maximum fiduciary system

93. The rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends to the commercial banks in very short term against the backing of the Government securities is known as?
a) Bank rate
b) Repo rate
c) Reverse Repo
d) Discount rate

94. Scheduled banks are those?
a) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Banking Regulation Act-1949
b) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Companies Act-1956
c) Includued in the 2nd schedule of the Reserve Bank of India Act -1934
d) Bank Nationalization Act -1969

95. The following is classified as a public sector bank?
a) ICICI Bank
b) IDBI Bank Ltd
c) Axis Bank
d) Local area bank

96. The banker-customer relationship in credit card payment is?
a) Creditor-debtor
b) Debtor-creditor
c) Agent principal
d) Principal-agent

97. The base rate is set by?
a) Individual banks
b) RBI
c) Government of India
d)RBI in consultation with Government

98. State Bank of India's new floating rate of deposit is directly linked to?
a) Inflation Rate
b) BPLR
c) Base Rate
d) BankRate

99. Six private sector banks were nationalised on April 15, 1980, whose reserves were more than?
a) 100 Crores
b) Rs. 200 crores
c) 300 crores
d) 400 crores

100. Security printing press was established in 1982 at?
a) Kolkata
b) New Delhi
c) Bombay
d) Hyderabad

Answers

1) d      2) c  3) d     4) d        5) d   6) c    7) b   8) d    9) a  10) c
11) c 12) b 13) d 14) c 15) d 16) d 17) a 18) b 19) a 20) c
21) d 22) c 23) d 24) a 25) c 26) a 27) d 28) c 29) b 30) d
31) d 32) a 33) c 34) d 35) c 36) d 37) c 38) b 39) a 40) c
41) c 42) d 43) d 44) c 45) a 46) b 47) b 48) d 49) c 50) a
51) a 52) d 53) a 54) d 55) c 56) d 57) c 58) a 59) a 60) d
61) c 62) d 63) d 64) a 65) d 66) d 67) b 68) a 69) a 70) b
71) c 72) b 73) b 74) a 75) a 76) c 77) d 78) d 79) c 80) a
81) c 82) a 83) c 84) d 85) d 86) d 87) b 88) d 89) d 90) b
91) a 92) b 93) b 94) c 95) b 96) b 97) a 98) c 99) b 100) d