Baroda Rajasthan Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2011

General English

(Held on 13-3-2011) 

Directions–(Q. 1 to 10) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words/phrases are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/phrase in each case.

The chasm between India's flourishing cities and bleak rural hinterland is narrowing. Spread across 650,000 villages, with an average population of l,100, rural villagers were long ...(1)... by city dwellers as primitive, impoverished and irrelevant, something to drive past on the way to something else. That is no longer the ...(2) ... Anew prosperity is ...(3)... in rural India, with tens of millions entering the pressure-cooker-and-tele-vision-owning class and tens of thousands becoming sippers of Scotch, ...(4)... of premium tractors and drivers of multiple sedans.

The opening of this new frontier of consumer demand from 700 million people could tip India's role in the global economy from seller to buyer, from a vendor of outsourced skills to a source of consumers for the world's ...(5)....Mulinational corporations, appear increasingly ...(6)... to understand Indian villagers. Rural dwellers are now nearly twice as likely to be crorepatis as city dwellers in Bangalore, the high-technology hub, according to the National Council for Applied Economic Research. It may be a trickle, but India's urban prosperity is flowing to the countryside and well-to-do villages are early testing grounds of ...(7)... the benefits of India's economic makeover and opening to the world will flow to its villagers, many of them living in its poorest rural nooks. The ...(8)... of such villages will also add fuel to the debate over democracy's influence on economic development. India has been faulted for growing more lethargically than China, in part because of its democracy. But the new rural prosperity ...(9)... that the high cost democracy also has a hidden benefit. By compelling each politician to ...(10)... results to his own narrow constituency, democracy spreads economic change more thinly. But that in turn broadens the consensus in favour of change, perhaps making liberalization more sustainable in India than in China.

1. (A) wished
(B) awaited
(C) imagined
(D) abolished
(E) drawn
Ans : (C)

2. (A) question
(B) case
(C) feature
(D) issue
(E) views
Ans : (B)

3. (A) emerged
(B) visual
(C) associating
(D) sprouting
(E) instilling
Ans : (D)


4. (A) sellers
(B) owners
(C) makers
(D) marketers
(E) hirers
Ans : (B)

5. (A) price
(B) wares
(C) stuff
(D) commodity
(E) today
Ans : (E)

6. (A) aware
(B) disinterested
(C) keen
(D) intend
(E) tough
Ans : (C)

7. (A) really
(B) about
(C) since
(D) if
(E) whether
Ans : (A)

8. (A) transformation
(B) propensity
(C) downfall
(D) revolution
(E) decrease
Ans : (D)

9. (A) suggests
(B) narrates
(C) says
(D) show
(E) remarks
Ans : (E)

10. (A) derive
(B) distribute
(C) give
(D) seek
(E) deliver
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 11 to 15) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

11. NA8ARD has the responsibility of lay down the policies for the RRBs, to oversee their operations, provide refinance facilities, to monitor their performance and to attend their problems.
(A) to laid down
(B) of laying down
(C) on lays down
(D) for lay downs
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

12. Groundwater and surface water are traditionally concerned of rural communities, as those communities are almost exclusively served by well water.
(A) a tradition of concern
(B) traditions of concerning
(C) traditionally concerns
(D) tradition for concerned
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

13. The very publicised mid day meal scheme meant to reduce dropout rates in schools seems to be not yielding the desired results.
(A) much publicised
(B) many publicity
(C) too public
(D) little publicity of
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

14. No like the urban schools and colleges, the schools in rural areas do not encourage the children to excel in extra-curricular activities.
(A) Similarly to
(B) Inspite of
(C) Unlike
(D) Despite
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

15. The government said that the iron levels in groundwater were higher than that prescribe in 254 districts.
(A) then those prescribe
(B) then that prescribed
(C) prescription
(D) than those prescribed
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 16 to 20) Rearrange the following five sentences (1), (2), (3), (4) and (5) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
(1) Therefore, it is important to source a large part of economic growth in agriculture, in rural non-agricultural activities and in productive expansion of the informal sector which all have high employment elasticities, as well as in an export strategy based on labour intensive exports.
(2) It is important because it creates more resources and has the potential of creating more space for the involvement of the poor.
(3) If the growth is sourced upon those sectors of the economy or those activities that have a natural tendency to involve the poor in their expansion, such growth helps poverty eradication.
(4) Economic growth is important.
(5) But this involvement depends on the sources of growth and the nature of growth.

16. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

17. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 1
Ans : (D)

18. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

19. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(6) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 1
Ans : (C)

20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(6) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

Directions–(Q. 21 to 25) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. A model-based approach has been …………….to identify the factors that are …………….for the problems faced by the rural areas.
(A) pursued, guilty
(B) placed, accountable
(C) approved, made
(D) identified, liable
(E) adopted,. Responsible
Ans : (E)

22. Farm living is dependent on …………….environmental conditions, and in times of drought, flood or pestilence, survival becomes extremely …………….
(A) irregular, simple
(B) sedentary, dangerous
(C) erratic, easy
(D) unpredictable, problematic
(E) impulsive, tough
Ans : (D)

23. It is also a …………….of industrialization that farms become more mechanized, putting many labourers out of …………….
(A) result, work
(B) point, city
(C) idea, labour
(D) consequence, bounds
(E) cause, employment
Ans : (A)

24. since their inception, regional rural banks (RRBs) have taken …………….roots and have become a sort of. …………….part of the rural credit structure in India.
(A) many, frivolous
(B) to, vital
(C) several, small
(D) all, essential
(E) deep, inseparable
Ans : (E)

25. Any new proposal in the education sector should …………….the chances for the rural poor to have a …………….education at par with their urban counter parts in their villages themselves.
(A) increase, well
(B) improve, good
(C) search, standard
(D) glorify, better
(E) lessen, regular
Ans : (B)

Directions–(Q. 26 to 35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i. e. 'No error'. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)

26. Neither the opera singers or (A) the general public had seen as (B) much glitter (C) in years as they did during Turandot, the finale (D) of the opera season. No error (E)
Ans : (A)

27. His story about the strange beings (A) in a space ship was so (B) incredulous (C) that (D) no one believed him. No error (E)
Ans : (C)

28. The hot air ballon had burst as they were preparing (A) for launch, (B) and the platform had broke (C) as a result. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

29. I fail to understand (A) why (B) you are seeking my council (C) after the way you ignored (D) my advice last week. No error (E)
Ans : (C)

30. Ann Landers, whose (A) name is a household word to millions of (B) readers, are (C) well-known (D) for family advice. No error (E)
Ans : (C)

31. Between you and I, (A) the highway department must review bridge construction across the country (B) in order to (C) avoid major catastrophes resulting from (D) mental fatigue. No error (E)
Ans : (A)

32. Child custody in surrogate mother cases is just one of the many (A) controversial issues which (B) are (C) currently being decided upon (D) in the courts. No error (E)
Ans : (D)

33. John usually eats a quick lunch, ignoring (A) the question of whether (B) what (C) he eats is healthy or (D) not. No error (E)
Ans : (E)

34. If (A) you continue to drive so recklessly, (B) you are likely (C) to have a serious accident in the very (D) near future. No error (E)
Ans : (E)

35. The general along with (A) the members of his general staff (B) seem (C) to favour immediate retaliation (D) at this time. No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 36 to 43) Read the passage carefully and answers the questions correctly.

This is a time when the demography of our population is changing significantly to drive organized retail growth. India now has a large young working population with a median age of 24. The number of nuclear families in urban areas is growing fast. Then there is the increase in working women population. Add to these the emerging opportunities in the service sector. Lifestyle habits are shifting from austerity to complete self-indulgence and Indians are now unapologetic about spending lavishly on non-essential goods such as luxury watches, cars, and hi-tech products.

India can be said to have entered the second phase of retail growth when there is high-speed growth. There are retail chains along with global players which are trying to tap the country's vast potential. Bringing all these under one roof are mega malls. Now, top names in inter-national malls are also eyeing the Indian market. It is only later that the retailing scene will move to the other phases when the fruits of rapid growth will result in economies of scale and greater efficiency leading finally to consolidation through mergers and acquistions. Thus, retailing in India has a very long haul ahead.

In India for a long time a large chunk of retail outlets were grocery shops. This pattern had been changing in recent years, in urban and rural markets. Of late, India's largely rural population has also caught the eye of retailers looking for new areas of growth. A slew of supermarket chains are set to storm the rural areas of the country as corporates realize the huge potential of the untapped market. A well-known brand launched the country's first rural mall, offering a diverse product range from FMCG to electronic appliances to automobiles, attempting to provide farmers a one-stop destination for all of their needs. Other companies are launching 'one-stop shops' for farmers and their communities too.

As clear from the story of some of the companies already established, organized retail sector can bring a revolutionary change in rural India unless it goes for quick short-term gains. With Walmart famous for its 'Always Low Prices' coming to India, Indian farmers and rural craftsmen can hope for a better direct deal. Retailing does not benefit just the consumer. It can give huge benefits to other industries, to government, and to the entire economy.

The rural market is no longer a non-player in the retail game. It is now accounting for about one-third of the market for most durable and non-durable products. Even manufacturers are developing new products with the rural consumer in mind besides using village-oriented marketing strategies for brand promotions. Whether it is an actress promoting a chocolate of a cricketer wowing village lads with a soft drink, both ad makers as well as top company honchos know where to put their money and how. The rural market is no longer of hypothetical empirical value but is well researched and reached by most companies looking to tap India's vast and abundant bounty.

The Indian retail scenario is poised for a quantum leap. Not only are newer names set to dot the retail landscape but also new and emerging retail formats will drive the diversity of the fast-changing retail backdrop. Organized Retail means 'Big Stores' a common myth. ..nothing can be further from the truth. In its very essence, organized retailing is about "aggregating value" and what shape, size and configuration your customer facing entity takes is largely a function of your offer and proposition. A growing population, a young workforce and zooming consumer confidence will fuel the expansion of the retail sector. As organized retail in rural India awaits the arrival of known companies, current majors are expanding their retail operations by setting up more stores, entering new states and offering newer product categories. A shift from selling agri-inputs will help these stores target the non-farming segments. It is a little known fact that, while 25% of the rural population is not engaged in agriculture, it earns 50% of the rural income. The retail
market is the next growth frontier for corporate India. It offers an opportunity for a large player to build a Rs. 40,000 cr retail business spanning multiple categories by 2015 (at current prices). However, to capitalize on the opportunity, a player needs to be aggressive in his outlook and build scale quickly.

36. What according to the author is 'Organized Retailing' ?
(A) Setting up a number of stores in a short span of time in order to achieve visibility
(B) Selling the same products under different names
(C) Assigning a higher value to all products so that a greater margin of profit is attained in a shorter span of time
(D) Adapting one's strategy of selling or making products according to customer needs and demands
(E) Building bigger stores to attract more number of people
Ans : (D)

37. What according to the author, is not well known ?
(A) Encouraging the retail industries to set up stores in the rural areas will lead to disaster
(B) Half of the income in rural areas comes from people engaged in non-agricultural activities
(C) People in the rural areas are unwilling to spend on products other than those related to
agriculture
(D) People in the rural areas have a very limited spending capacity because of low incomes
(E) Rural areas have a high potential for success of retail industries
Ans : (B)

38. Which of the following, according to the author, is/are the reason/s for the change in the spending habits of Indians ?
(1) Increase in the number of youngsters securing jobs
(2) Increase in the number of employed women
(3) Increase in the number of nuclear families
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (1) and (3)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (1) and (2)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (E)

39. Which of the following can aptly replace the phrase 'caught the eye of' as used in the passage ?
(A) made a demand for
(B) been painful to
(C) been noticed by
(D) paid attention to
(E) sought approval of
Ans : (C)

40. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) Retail Industry – The Way Ahead For Farmers
(B) Retail Industry – Growth Opportunities
(C) Walmart and the Retail Industry
(D) Challenges faced by the Retail Industry
(E) The History of Retail Industry
Ans : (B)

41. Which of the following is true about rural market, as given in the passage ?
(1) Product are being designed to suit rural requirements.
(2) Companies are taking into account rural settings while conceptualizing advertisements.
(3) It forms around 33 per cent of the consumers of most retail products.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (1)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (E)

42. Which of the following is true about Walmart, as given in the passage ?
(1) Walmart achieved a fair amount of success in smaller towns of the US.
(2) Walmart has presence in all the countries.
(3) Goods sold at Walmart are priced low.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (1)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) Only (3)
Ans : (E)

43. What is the present situation of retail growth in India ?
(A) The growth of the retail sector is progressing at a medium pace and India lacks the resources to capitalize on the potential market
(B) India's growth in the retail sector can be compared to the growth of the US in the same
(C) India has a huge untapped market for the retail sector which at present only the international companies are using to their advantage
(D) India is witnessing rapid growth in the retail sector with most companies trying to make maximum of the available market
(E) India is witnessing a lot of mergers and acquisitions in the retail sector
Ans : (C)

Directions–(Q. 44 to 47) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

44. NUCLEAR
(A) One
(B) Central
(C) Single
(D) Extended
(E) Joint
Ans : (C)

45. ZOOMING
(A) Fast
(B) Whizzing
(C) Increasing
(D) Burning
(E) Quick
Ans : (B)

46. AGGRESSIVE
(A) Forceful
(B) Hostile
(C) Violent
(D) Antagonistic
(E) Destructive
Ans : (C)

47. DURABLE
(A) Perishable
(B) Existing
(C) Settlement
(D) Long-lasting
(E) Ever-lasting
Ans : (D)

Directions–(Q. 48 to 50) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

48. DIVERSITY
(A) Fairness
(B) Uniformity
(C) Reliability
(D) Difference
(E) Equality
Ans : (B)

49. UNAPOLOGETIC
(A) Guilty
(B) Reformed
(C) Unrepentant
(D) Ignorant
(E) Accountable
Ans : (A)

50. UNTAPPED
(A) Over-insistent
(B) More frequent
(C) Available
(D) Intact
(E) Over-exploited
Ans : (E)

UPSC CIVILS MAINS PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION PAPER-I

Public Administration

Paper I

Time Allowed: Three Hours                     Maximum Marks: 300
                                                                

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English.

Answers must be written U1 the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

Candidates should attempt Questions no. 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

SECTION A

1. Answer the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20x3 = 60
(a) 'A crisis of credibility' in the administrative system can be overcome only by 'reinventing government'. Comment.

(b) 'Media is a Parliament of citizens.' Explain.

(c) E-governance is the' final arrival of Max Weber's 'iron cage of rationality', Discuss,
2. (a) In the evolution of' the discipline of Public Administration, Minnowbrook Conferences I, II and III reflect the discipline's reconceptualisation and its changing values. Elucidate, 30
(b) Critically examine conflict resolution according to M.P. Follett. Explain how McGregor took forward her ideas in the context of complex organizations. 30
3. (a) Whereas Downs' model is largely dependent on a theory of psychological motivation, Niskanen's model is framed by neo-classical thinking. In the light of the above, discuss the public choice approach to decision-making.  30
(b) The Systems Approach is relevant .even today for organisational analysis. Discuss how Chester Barnard and David Easton adopted this approach in their respective areas of study. 30
4. (a) Whereas 'value for money' audit aims at economy and 'performance' audit seeks efficiency, 'social' audit goes beyond both, to examine the effectiveness of a programme or activity. Examine this statement with suitable illustrations.
         
(b) (i) Make a critical assessment of Dicey's understanding of the Rule of Law and Droit Administratif.   15

(ii) Make out a case for Delegated Legislation.  15

SECTION B

5.  Answer the following questions in not more than 200 words each: 20 x 3 = 60
(a) 'Budget is a series of goals with price-tags attached.' Explain.
(b) 'Policy is being made .as it is being administered arid administered as it is being made.' Comment.
(c) 'Position Classification can be problematic. A serious complaint in its practice is that it dehumanises the employee.' Discuss.
6. (a) Neither Edward Weidner nor Fred Riggs was able to describe the process of development administration adequately. Explain the drawbacks and weaknesses in their theoretical analyses. 30
(b) Indicate the milestones in the story of development from the Nehruvian Model to the Liberalisation Model. 30
7. (a) Civil Servants must be social moralists in action, living up to Paul Appleby's dictum that 'responsible government is ethical government'. Examine this statement in the light of rod governance.  30
(b) Critically examine the following statements in the field of Policy Sciences.
(i) The instrumentalist paradigm posits a conservative tendency In public policy making.  15
(ii) Dror's Optimal Model is a fusion of the economically rational model with the extra-rational model. 15
8. (a) (i) What are the main functions of an O and M office?  15
(ii) A system of Information ties planning and control by managers to the, operational system of implementation. Elaborate. 15
(b) An administrator uses the budget as a framework for communication and co-ordination, as well as for exercising administrative discipline throughout the administrative structure Explain. 30

UPSC CIVILS MAINS PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION PAPER-II

Public Administration

Paper-II

Time Allowed: Three Hours                  Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English.

Answers must be written in the medium specified in the Admission .Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-Book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

Candidates should attempt Question Nos. 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from, each Section.
The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Section-A

1.  Attempt the following m not more than 200 words each:  20 x 3 = 60

(a) "Over-dependence on bureaucracy for bringing about socio-economic development in India has proved to be dysfunctional." Comment.

(b) "The performance of Lok Ayuktas in various States has been uneven." Comment with examples.

(c) Explain with appropriate illustrations the interface between' political culture and bureaucratic culture in contemporary India.


2.  (a) Discuss the evolution of the role of the Prime Minister's Office (PMO) since independence. 30

(b) "Administrative reforms get diluted because of constant tinkering on the margin rather than a holistic transformation." Discuss the statement in the context of reforming district administration in India. 30

3. (a) Comment on the following statement: 30

"The Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) of India is a prosecutor with a law that hobbles. its functioning, a judge without the 'power to sentence and a litigant with no right to appeal."

(b) "Indian federalism is passing through a state of potential maturity." Discuss this statement in the context of the views of the Commission on Centre-State Relations (Justice M. M. Punchi). 30

4. (a) "The theme of Police Reforms continues to haunt the Parliament." In the light of this statement, discuss the state of Criminal Justice System administration in India.  30

(b) 'Performance Appraisal Systems' with special reference to the Performance Management and Evaluation System (PMES) are expected to transform the bureaucratic culture of Indian administration. Do you agree? Give reasons.  30

Section-B

5. Attempt the following in not more than 200 words each: 20x3=60

(a) "The real problem of administrative reforms in India at the State and the local levels is that they are imposed from above." Comment.

(b) Discuss the basic principles of 'New Localism' as a part of the global-local debate.

(c) "Absence of District Planning Committees in a large number of districts has prevented convergence of planning at the district level." Examine the above statement with examples.

6.  (a) (i) "One Lok Pal, howsoever strong I it may be, cannot eliminate corruption in the , politico- administrative system in India." Comment.  15

(ii) "Grievance redressal system is perhaps the weakest link in India's civil service management," Comment.  15

(b) "Community policing has become a victim of elite capture." Discuss the concept of community policing and bring out the implications of the above statement.  30

7. (a) Can the holding company's structure act as an institutional change to add to efficiency? Give your answer with appropriate illustrations.  30

(b) Examine the institutional  vulnerability of municipal. governance in the midst of an ‘emerging spectre of multiple partnerships.  30

8. (a) (i) Identify the different conceptual categories of disasters. 15

(ii) Write a note on the the new culture of disaster management. 15

(b) "Disaster insurance is 'desirable but not an easy proposition to implement." Illustrate with suitable examples. 30

Rural Development Programmes

S.No.	Rural Development Programme	Year of Beginning	Objective/Description
1	Community Development Programme (CDP)	1952	Over-all development of rural areas with people's participation.
2	Rural Electrification Corporation	1969	Electrification in rural areas
3	Accelerated Rural Water Supply Programme(ARWSP)	1972-73	For providing drinking water in villages
4	Crash Scheme for Rural Employment	1972-73	For rural employment
5	National Institution for Rural Development	1977	Training, investigation and advisory organization for rural development
6	National Rural Employment Programme (NREP)	1980	To provide profitable employment opportunities to the rural poor
7	Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas (DWCRA)	1982	To provide suitable opportunities of self-employment to the women belonging to the rural families who are living below the poverty line.
8	Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP)	1983	For providing employment to landless farmers and laborers
9	National Fund for Rural Development (NFRD)	1984	To grant 100% tax rebate to donors and also to provide financial assistance for rural development projects.
10	Council for Advancement of People's Actions and Rural Technology (CAPART)	1986	To provide assistance for rural prosperity.

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE MCQs

1. Which of the following is not an advantage of magnetic disk storage
(a) The access time of magnetic disk is much less than that of magnetic tape
(b) Disk storage is longer lasting than magnetic tape
(c) Disk storage is less expensive than tape storage
(d) None of the above
ANSWER: (d)


2. A prefix for billion which is equal to _____is called as billi.
(a) 100
(b) 10000
(c) 1000
(d) 10
ANSWER: (a)

3. One kilobyte -byte
(a) 1250
(b) 2088
(c) 1024
(d) 1000
ANSWER: (c)

4. To move the cursor to the end of the document press
(a) Ctrl + Esc
(b) Ctrl + End
(c) Ctrl + B
(d) Ctrl + c
ANSWER: (a)

5. The shortcut key to print documents is
(a) Ctrl + A
(b) Ctrl + B
(c) Ctrl + P
(d) Ctrl + C
ANSWER: (c)

6. In MICR, C stands for
(a) Code
(b) Colour
(c) Computer
(d) Character
(e) None of these
ANSWER: (d)

7. The simultaneous processing of two or more Programs by multiple processors is
(a) Multiprogramming
(b) Multitasking
(c) Time-sharing
(d) Multiprocessing
(e) None of these
ANSWER: (d)

8. First layer in the OSI reference model is
(a) Data link
(b) Network
(c) Physical
(d) Application
ANSWER: (c)

9. Viruses, Trojan horses and worms are
(a) Able to harm computer system
(b) Unable to detect if affected on computer
(c) User-friendly applications
(d) Harmless applications resident on computer
ANSWER: (a)

10. Failure of passwords security due to exposure can result from
(a) Electronic monitoring
(b) Visual
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) Light
ANSWER: (c)

11. Data security threats include
(a) Hardware failure
(b) Privacy invasion
(c) Fraudulent manipulation of data
(d) All of the above
ANSWER (b)

12. Graphical pictures that represent an object like file, folder etc. are
(a) Task bar
(b) Windows
(c) Desktop
(d) Icons
ANSWER (d)

13. Accessing records from a file directly without searching from the beginning of the file is
(a) Time sharing
(b) Random
(c) Direct access
(d) Access time
ANSWER (c)

14. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the
(a) Database is structured
(b) Database is well-designed
(c) Database has no data
(d) Database is relatively small
ANSWER (c)

15. Which of the following SQL statements are helpful in database redesign ?
(a) Correlated sub queries only
(b) EXISTS/ NOT EXISTS expressions only
(c) Both of the above are helpful
(d) Creating the database are helpful
ANSWER (c)

16. The EXISTS keyword will be true if
(a) Any row in the sub query meets the condition only
(b) All rows in the sub query fail the condition only
(c) Both of these two conditions are met
(d) Neither of these two conditions is met
ANSWER (a)

17. How can you find rows that do not match some specified condition ?
(a) EXISTS
(b) Double use of NOT EXISTS
(C) NOT EXISTS
(d) ROWS EXIT
ANSWER (c)

18. The process of reading a database schema and producing a data model from that schema is known as
(a) Data modeling
(b) Database design
(c) Reverse engineering
(d) Inverse engineering
ANSWER (c)

19. A tool that can help designers understand the dependencies of database structures is a
(a) Dependency graph
(b) Data model
(c) Graphical display
(d) Hierarchical model

20. Which SQL-92 standard SQL command can be used to change a table name ?
(a) RENAME TABLE
(b) CHANGE TABLE
(c) ALTER TABLE
(d) None of the above is correct
ANSWER (a)

21. What SQL command can be used to delete columns from a table ?
(a) MODIFY TABLE Table Name DROP COLUMN Column Name
(b) MODIFY TABLE Table Name DROP Column Name Column Name
(d) ALTER TABLE Table Name DROP Column Name
ANSWER (c)

22. Which of the following modifications may not succeed?
(a) Changing a column data type from char to date
(b) Changing a column data type from numeric to char
(c) Both of the above actions should succeed
(d) Neither of the above actions will succeed
ANSWER (a)

23. Changing cardinalities in a database is
(a) A common database design task
(b) A rare database design task, but does occur
(c) A database design task that never occurs
(d) Is impossible to do, so a new database must be constructed and the data moved into it
ANSWER (a)

24. A regular sub query can be processed
(a) From the top down
(b) From the bottom up
(c) By nesting
(d) From the right up
ANSWER (b)

25. How many copies of the database schema are typically used in the redesign process ?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
ANSWER (c)

UPSC CIVILS MAIN POLITICAL SCIENCE & INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS PAPER - I

Political Science and International Relations

Paper-I

Time Allowed : Three Hours                              Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English

Answer must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answer written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

Candidates should attempt Questions Nos. 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Section-A

1.  Comment on the following in about 150 words each:  15x4=60

(a)  “The State is a creation of nature and man is by nature a political animal.”(Aristotle)

(b)  “The worth of a State... is the worth of individuals composing it.” (J.S.Mill)
(c)  Hobbies as an individualist
(d)  Views of Gandhi and Ambedkar on ‘social justice’

2.  (a) Make an assessment of the post-colonial understanding of State. 30
(b) Examine the significance of the behavioural revolution in politics. 30

3. (a) It is said where there is no law there is no liberty. Give your views on this statement. 30
(b) Examine the debate on the ‘End of Ideology’. 30


4.  (a) Attempt a Comparative examination of the views of Marx and Weber on ‘Power’. 30
(b) Examine the ‘Participatory Model of Democracy.  30

Section-B

5. Comment on the following in about 150 words each : 15x4=60
(a) Dalit perspective on Indian National Movement
(b) Significance of the Civil Disobedience Movement
(c) Role of National Commission for Scheduled Castes
(d) Trade union as pressure group in Indian politics


6. (a) Examine the significance of the Directive Principles of State Policy in achieving the goal of socio-economic justice. 30
(b) In normal conditions, the Governor is a constitutional executive but in case of constitutional crisis, he can become a powerful and effective executive.
Discuss 30

7. Critically examine and comment on the assertions given below in about 200 words each : 20x3=60
(a) It is not constitutional law but political factors that ultimately determine Centre-States relations in India.
(b) Indian politics has influenced caste and caste has influenced Indian politics.
(c) Secularism in Indian politics is a myth.


8. (a) Make an assessment of the role of the Election Commission of India in the conduct of free and fair elections. 30
(b) Examine the changing pattern of electoral behaviour in India. 30

UPSC CIVILS MAIN POLITICAL SCIENCE & INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS PAPER - II

Political Science and International Relations

Paper-II

Time Allowed : Three Hours                             Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English

Answer must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answer written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

Candidates should attempt Questions Nos. 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Section-A

1.  Answer the following in about 200 words each : 20x3=60

(a) “Either terrorism triumphs or civilization triumphs.” Comment on the above statement. 20

(b) What is ‘New Social Movement (NSM) ? Explain the main challenges of the NSM in the developing countries.  8+12=20

(c) Examine the nature and dynamics of contemporary globalization. 20

2.  (a)  What is comprehensive approach to national security? 20

(b) Do you agree with the view that over-widening of the concept of ‘national security’ has made it a more amorphous concept? Discuss. 40
3. (a) “Structural-functional approach to political analysis focuses more on status quoism, and less on change.” Elucidate. 30

(b) Expplain the uses of systems approach in international relations and examine the relevance of Kaplan’s system analysis.  10+20=30
4. (a) How for the efforts to maintain international order in the post-Cold War period by the UN have been successful?  30

(b) What are the major impediments to UN Security Council reform ? 30

Section-B

5.  Answer the following in about 200 words each: 20x30=60

(a) Explain the role of the Parliament in the shaping of 123 Agreement between India and the US on Civil-nuclear Cooperation.

(b) Do you think that India should sign a treaty with China on water-sharing of Brahmaputra River, similar to what she did with Nepal and other neighboring states?

(c) “While India opposes NPT as discriminatory, it opposes CTBT on the ground of ineffectiveness.” Comment.
6.  Explain the following statements and elucidate their implications : 30+30=60

(a) “India’s policy of non-alignment was based on both idealist and realist calculations.”

(b) “India’s policy in post-Cold War era is tilted towards pragmatism and wisdom.”
7. (a)  Explain the major flaws in India’s ‘Look East Policy’. Is it possible to steer and implement the policy successfully in views of China’s emergence as a high-tech power in Asia-Pacific ? 20+10=30

(b) To what extent is multi-lateralism a reality with regard to India’s constructive strategic partnership’ with Central Asian states?  30
8. (a) Explain the impact of coalition politics on India’s Foreign Policy since late 1990’s.  30

(b) Discuss the implications of ethnicity and nation-building in South Asia, and their impact in the relations of states within South Asia.  30

UPSC CIVILS MAIN GEOGRAPHY PAPER - I

Geography

Paper-I

Time Allowed : Three Hours                    Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English

Answer must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

Candidates should attempt Questions Nos. 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section. Wherever a question is attempted, all its parts are to be attempted.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Illustrate your answers with suitable sketches, maps and diagrams, where appropriate.

Section-A

1. Write short note on the following in about 150 words each : 12x5=60
(a) Geomagnetism and paleomagnetism
(b) Rossby waves and Jet Stream
(c) Salinity patterns in Indian Ocean
(d) Soil profile in Zonal and Azonal soils
(e) Marine Ecosystem
2. (a) Name the climatically controlled agents of erosion. Explain how they differ in terms of properties of matter. Compare the landforms produced by each one of them.  30

(b) Explain the concept of Isostasy as postulated by Airy and Pratt.  30
3. (a) Give an account of global distribution of precipitation.  30

(b)  “Contemporary global climate change is an anthropogenic phenomenon.” Discuss.  30
4. (a) “Temperature, salinity and density differences in ocean water are the prime causes of ocean water circulation.” Elaborate.  30
(b) Define the term biome. List the terrestrial biomes and describe the characteristics of Savanna biome.  30

Section-B

5. Write short explanatory notes on the following : 12x5=60

(a) Welfare Approach in Human Geography

(b) Secondary cities in the context of urbanization in developing world

(c) Isodapane in the Theory of Industrial Location

(d) Population and Food security

(e) Ingredients of Sustainable Development
6. (a) Discuss the impact of positivism in paradigm shift in Geography.  30

(b) Enumerate alternative strategies of planning for backward regions.  30
7. (a) Distiguish between boundaries and frontiers. Identify different types of boundaries.

(b) Mention the agricultural regions as classified by whittlessey and discuss their relevance.  30
8. (a) Discuss System Approach and its applicability in Geography.  30
(b) Critically examine the salient features of Central Place Theory propounded by Christaller and Losch.  30

UPSC CIVILS MAIN GEOGRAPHY PAPER - II

Geography

Paper-II

Time Allowed : Three Hours                                       Maximum Marks : 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Each question is printed both in Hindi and in English

Answer must be written in the medium specified in the Admission Certificate issued to you, which must be stated clearly on the cover of the answer-book in the space provided for the purpose. No marks will be given for the answers written in a medium other than that specified in the Admission Certificate.

Candidates should attempt Questions Nos. 1 and 5 which are compulsory, and any three of the remaining questions selecting at least one question from each Section.

The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

Illustrate your answers with suitable sketch-maps and diagrams, where considered required.

An outline map of India is attached to this question paper for answering Question No.1 This map is to be carefully detached from the question paper and attached securely to the answer book by the candidate.

Section-A

1. On the outline map of India provided to you, mark the location of All of the following for which 1 (One) mark is given to each correct entry.
Write in your answer script the significant geo-graphical relevance or strategic importance of these locations, whether physical/commercial/economic/ecological environmental/cultural in not more than 30 words for each entry. Four (4) marks are allotted for each write-up of  these correctly marked locations.   5x12=60

(a) Badami

(b) Mandvi

(c) Dodital

(d) Yanam

(e) Netarhat

(f) Shamsabad

(g) Lakshmantirath River

(h) Bara-Lacha La

(i) Kakolat Fall

(j) Singrauli

(k) Dafla Hills

(l) Tree Island


2. Present a comparative analysis of the regimes of Himalayan and Peninsular rivers of India and examine their implications in the irrigation system of the country. 60


3. (a)  Identify the major biosphere reserves of India and discuss their role in the conservation of forest and wildlife. 30

(b) Give an account of potentiality and prospects of development of marine resources of India. 30


4. (a) Discuss the potentiality and status of aqua-culture in the Ganga Plain. 30

(b) Assess the scope and development of Pharmaceutical Industry in India. 30

Section-B

5. Write about the following in about 200 words each:  15x4=60

(a) Prospects of Rainbow Revolution in India.

(b) Karewa Deposits and their economic significance.

(c) Impact of land tenure on agriculture productivity in India.

(d) Agro-forestry in India.


6. (a) Assess the growing importance of air transport in India and examine its role in the regional development of the country.  30

(b) Discuss the spatital pattern of intra-regional migration in India and examine its implications in regional development. 30


7. (a) Differentiate between conurbations and metropolitan regions. Give a reasoned account of emerging conurbations in India. 30

(b) Identify the ravine-affected areas in India and discuss the environmental and economic impacts of their reclamation. 30


8. (a) Discuss the problems of environmental degradation generated by urban wastes in India.  30

(b) Analyse the causes of desertification in India. Represent the desertified areas of the country on a sketch map and suggest remedial measures to control it.  30

VIJAYA BANK OFFICERS RECRUITMENT

Vijaya Bank
(A Government of India Undertaking)
Head Office, 41/2, M.G. Road, Bangalore - 560001

Vijaya Bank, a leading listed Public Sector Bank, having Head Office in Bangalore, with all India representation, invites Online applications  for recruitment to the following posts of Specialist/ Generalist Officers :

1. Chief Manager - Company Secretary : 01 post
2. Chief Manager - Credit : 05 posts
3. Chief Manager - Domestic Dealer : 02 posts
4. Chief Manager - Forex Dealer : 02 posts
5. Chief Manager - Forex : 02 posts
6. Chief Manager - Personnel: 02 posts
7. Senior Manager - FOREX : 18 posts
8. Senior Manager - Domestic Dealer : 05 posts
9. Senior Manager - Forex Dealer : 05 posts
10. Senior Manager - Credit III : 25 posts
11. Senior Manager - Risk Management : 27 posts
12. Senior Manager - Personnel : 03 posts
13. Senior Manager - Credit Faculty: 10 posts
14. Senior Manager - IT Programming : 02 posts
15. Senior Manager - General Banking : 276 posts
16. Manager - FOREX II : 10 posts
17. Manager - Credit/Financial Analyst : 02 posts
18. Manager - Economist : 03 posts
19. Manager - Law : 26 posts
20. Manager - Personnel : 03 posts
21. Technical Officer - Engineer (Industrial Production / Chemical / Mechanical / Electrical Engineering) : 04 posts
22. Manager - IT Information Security : 04 posts
23. Manager - IT Network Engineering : 02 posts
24. Manager - IT Infrastructure & Enterprise Management System : 02 posts
25. Manager - IT Programming : 02 posts
26. Manage - DBA : 01 post
27. Manager - IT System Administration : 02 posts
28. Manager - Public Relations : 10 posts
29. Manager - Security : 15 posts
30. Manager Fire & Safety : 01 post
31. Manager - Merchant Banking : 02 posts
32. Manager - General Banking  : 345 posts

Pay Scales :

1. Officers in SMG-S-IV Rs. 30600 – Rs. 36200
2. Officers in MMG-S-III Rs. 25700 – Rs. 31500 
3. Officers in MMG-S-II Rs. 19400 – Rs. 28100

Application fee : Rs.300/- (For SC/ST/PWD : Rs.50/- ) should be sent by deposited in the special Vijaya Bank accounts by a challan form.

How to Apply : Candidates are required to apply through on-line only between 22/11/2011 and 14/12/2011. After applying on-line, the registered candidates should obtain a print out of the Computer Generated On-Line Application ,complete in all respects should be sent by ordinary post by 21/12/2011 (28/12/2011 for the candidates of far-flung areas) to the following address :

• Vijaya Bank Recruitment Project - 2011-12 (Specialist / Generalist Officers in MMG - S-II to SMG - S - IV Post Box No.9724, Borivali - East, Mumbai  - 400066

Kkindly visit  http://vijayabank.com/vijaya/vijaya/internet-en/menus/announcements/RecruNoticeMainPage.html for all the details and a link to online submission of application is also provided here.

IBPS CWE MODEL QUESTIONS

Reasoning

1. 'DIVE' is related to 'EIVD' and. 'SOUL' is related to 'LOUS' in the same way as 'FEAR' is related to
1) AERF   

2) AFRE   

3) RFAE

4) REAF   

5) None of these

Ans: (4)
Directions (Q.2 - 3): Following questions are based on the five three-digit numbers given below: 493 879 365 258 642
2. Which of the following is the sum of the first and the second digits df the second highest number ?
1) 13   

2) 15   

3) 9

4) 7   

5) 10

Ans: (5)

3. If the positions of the first and the second digits within each number are interchanged, which of the following will be the third digit of the lowest number ?
1) 3

2) 9

3) 5

4) 2

5) 8

Ans: (4)
4. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TACKLE, each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical series ?
1) None   

2) One   

3) Two   

4) Three   

5) More than three

Ans: (3)

Directions (Q.5 - 7) Each of the questions given below is based on the given diagram. You have to take the given diagram to be true even if it seems to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of the five alternatives following each question logically follows from the given diagram. The diagram comprises three circles showing people from three different countries who have travelled to either, both or none of the countries mentioned in the diagram.
5. Which of the following represents Indians who have travelled only to Europe but not to the US ?
1) Only C   

2) Only B   

3) Only A

4) A and C   

5) Only E

Ans: (1)
6. Which of the following represents such Indians as have travelled only to the US and not to Europe ?
1) Only F   

2) Only D   

3) A and D

4) D and F   

5) C and F

Ans: (2)
7. Which of the following represents US citizens who have travelled neither to Europe nor to India ?
1) Only D   

2) C and D   

3) A and D

4) Only F   

5) Only C

Ans: (4)
8. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters RCA using each letter only once in each word ?
1) None

2) One

3) Two

4) Three   

5) More than three

Ans: (3)
9. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TORNADO each of which has as many letters between them in the word (in both forward and backward directions) as they have between them in the English alphabetical order ?
(A) None   

(B) One

(C) Two   

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans: (B)
10. 'VT' is related to 'QO' in the same way as 'MK' is related to '.................'
(A) HF

(B) IG

(C) RP

(D) JG

(E) QO

Ans: (A)

English Language

Directions (Q.11 - 15): In the following passage there arc blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
It is very difficult to (11) the extent of the poverty in India. Hence, it is called the mass poverty. It is a problem of low national income and its (12) distribution. The slow pace of development (13) the extent of poverty. The mass poverty makes India belong to the category of the (14) countries in the world. In many Asian countries practically about 50 per cent people live below the poverty line. ln India, more than 46.33 per cent people are below the poverty line and the level of the per capita income is very (15). The Planning Commission has defined the poverty line on the basis of nutritional requirement or2,4OO calories per person per day in rural areas and 2,100 calories for the persons in urban areas.
11.   
1) visualize    

2) formulate

3) nullify

4) eradicate    

5) calculate

Ans: (5)
12.
1) unequal    

2) normal

3) absolute

4) proper    

5) usual

Ans: (1)
13.
1) augments    

2) accentuates    

3) gains

4) helps    

5) thwarts

Ans: (1)
14.
1) neediest    

2) poorest

3) best

4) developed    

5) richest

Ans: (2)
15.
1) low    

2) fine

3) negligible

4) high    

5) small

Ans: (1)
Directions (Q.16 - 17): Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning to the word given in bold as used in the passage.
16. Resumed
1) dissolved

2) disorganised

3) discontinued

4) depleted

5) denounced

Ans: (3)
17. Sacrifice
1) assimilate

2) abandon

3) associate

4) absorb

5) acquire

Ans: (5)
Directions-(Q.18 - 20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.
18. After a great deal of effort she finally managed to success in her venture.
(A) managing to succeed

(B) managed to succeed

(C) managing success

(D) manage to success

(E) No correction required

Ans: (B)
19. He is a very lazy person and hate doing any kind of work.
(A) hated doing

(B) hate does

(C) hates do

(D) hates doing

(E) No correction required

Ans: (D)
20. Usha could not thinking of travelling without her car and feared the crowd.
(A) could not think

(B) cannot thinking

(C) cannot think

(D) could not thinks

(E) No correction required

Ans: (A)

Numerical Ability

Directions-(Q.21 - 25) What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions ?
21. 256.33 - 14.32 = ? - 55.44
(A) 189.57    

(B) 168.57

(C) 176.57    

(D) 182.57

(E) None of these

Ans: (E)
22. 8544 - 5757 + 1111 = 1255 + ?
(A) 2463    

(B) 2643

(C) 2453    

(D) 2653

(E) None of these

Ans: (B)
23. 35.62 -12.67 + 15.96 = ? - 43.22                
(A) 85.13    

(B) 82.13

(C) 87.13    

(D) 83.13

(E) None of these    

Ans: (B)
24. 5⁵ x (25)³  625 = (5) ^?
(A) 6    

(B) 9

(C) 8    

(D) 5

(E) None of these

Ans: (E)
25. ? % of 400 - (7)² = 159
(A) 55    

(B) 53

(C) 51    

(D) 52

(E) None of these

Ans: (D)
26. Sumit purchased an item for Rs. 4,000 and sold it at the gain of 35%. From that amount he purchased another item and sold it at the loss of 20%. What is his overall gain/loss ?
(A) Loss of Rs. 340

(B) Gain of Rs. 350

(C) Loss of Rs. 360

(D) Neither gain nor loss

(E) None of these

Ans: (E)
27. Sahil got 45 marks in Hindi, 47 marks in Science, 49 marks in Maths, 45 marks in Social Science and 32 marks in English. The maximum marks of each subject are 50. How much overall percentage of marks did he get ?
(A) 89.5    

(B) 83.2

(C) 88.3    

(D) 87.2

(E) None of these

Ans: (D)
28. The sum of five consecutive odd numbers is equal to 175. What is the sum of the second largest number amongst them and the square of the smallest number amongst them together ?
(A) 989    

(B) 997

(C) 979    

(D) 995

(E) None of these

Ans: (E)
29. Shweta can complete a piece of work in 8 hours and Priyanka can complete the same piece of work in 4 hours. How much time will both of them take together (approximately) to complete the same piece of work ?
(A) 2 hours    

(B) 3 hours

(C) 5 hours    

(D) 8 hours

(E) 4 hours

Ans: (B)

30. What is thirty two per cent of three-eighth of 5000 ?
(A) 606    

(B) 610

(C) 580    

(D) 600

(E) None of these

Ans: (D)

General Awareness (with special reference to banking industry)

31. Which country won its first Fed Cup title in 23 years on 6 November 2011 after securing a 3-2 win over Russia in the final ?
(A) Iran

(B) South Korea

(C) Greece

(D) Czech Republic

Ans: (D)


32. Which Indian city is to host the World Economic Forum's (WEF's) India Economic Summit for the first time in 26 years of the summit's history from 12-14 November 2011 ?
(A) New Delhi

(B) Mumbai

(C) Ahmedabad

(D) Kolkata

Ans: (B)

33. Which of the following companies entered into a partnership with the department of information technology to provide rural population socially oriented investment options ?
(A) UTI Infrastructure Technology

(B) L&T Infrastructure

(C) ICICI Mutual Fund

(D) RIL

Ans: (A)

34. Palestine won the membership of UNESCO( United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation). UNESCO is the ___ UN agency Palestine has joined as a full member.
(A) First

(B) Second

(C) Third

(D) Fourth

Ans: (A)

35. According to a UN study what is India’s rank among a total of 187 countries in terms of Human Development Index ?
(A) 95

(B) 134

(C) 119

(D) 73

Ans: (B)

36. India scientists succeeded in decoding the genome of the arhar dal, which is also known as _____.
(A) Pigeon Pea

(B) Black-eyed Pea

(C) Sweet Pea

(D) Split Pea

Ans:  (A)

37. Name the Indian golfer who became the first Indian golfer to shoot a spectacular round of 12-under 60 on home soil when he took a three-stroke lead on the second day of the Rs. one-crore BILT Open golf championship at the Jaypee Greens golf course on 3 November 2011.
(A) Jyoti Randhawa

(B) Amandeep Johl

(C) Anirban Lahiri

(D) Rahil Gangjee

Ans: (C)

38. According to the data released by the commerce and industry ministry on 31 October 2011, the eight core infrastructure industries growth slowed down to what percentage for September 2011 as against 3.3 per cent in September 2010 ?
(A) 3.1%

(B) 2.3%

(C) 2%

(D) 1.8%

Ans: (B)

39. Union Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 16 October 2011 voiced the Finance Ministry’s decision to to recapitalise which of the following PSU lenders to help it achieve compliance with capital adequacy ratio (CAR) norms ?
(A) State Bank of India

(B) United Bank of India

(C) Punjab National Bank

(D) Bank of Baroda

Ans: (A)

40. Which one of the following launched social security scheme for Gramin Dak Sevaks?
(A) Ministry of Home Affairs

(B) Ministry of Communications and IT

(C) Ministry of Personnel and Grievance

(D) Ministry of Rural Development

Ans: (B)

Computer Knowledge

41. Which of the following commands is given to reboot the computer ?
1) Ctrl + Alt + Del

2) Ctrl + Shift + ?

3) Ctrl + Shift + Del

4) Ctrl +Alt + shift

5) Ctrl + Alt + Tab

Ans: (1)
42. By default, your documents print in _ mode.
1) Landscape   

2) Portrait

3) Page Setup   

4) Print View

5) None of these

Ans: (2)
43. To find and load a file that has been saved _.
1) select the Close command

2) select the New command

3) select the Save command

4) select the Open command

5) None of these

Ans: (4)
44. Which function calculates the largest value in a set of numbers ?
1) Average

2) Count

3) Minimum

4) Maximum

5) None of these

Ans: (4)
45. Which of the following statements is true ?
1) Minicomputer works faster than Microcomputer

2) Microcomputer works faster than Minicomputer

3) Speed of both the computers is the same

4) The speeds of both these computers. cannot be compared with the speed of advanced computer

5) None of these

Ans: (1)
46. In page preview mode-
(A) You can see all pages of your document

(B) You can only see the page you are currently working

(C) You can only see pages that do not contain graphics

(D) You can only see the title page of your document

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)
47. If the file saved earlier is edited, then-
(A) It is essential to save the file again to store the change

(B) The change will automatically be saved in the file

(C) If the length is more than a page, the file will be needed to be saved

(D) The name will be needed to be changed

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)
48. When creating a word-processed document, this step involves the user changing how words on the page appear, both on the screen and in printed form-
(A) Editing text

(B) Inserting tables and indexes

(C) Formatting text

(D) Proofing documents

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)
49. A CPU contains-
(A) a card reader and a printing device

(B) an analytical engine and a control unit

(C) a control unit and an arithmetic logic unit

(D) an arithmetic logic unit and a card reader

(E) None of these

Ans: (C)
50. Aligning of text in column is-
(A) Justified

(B) Right

(C) Centre    

(D) Left

(E) None of these

Ans: (A)

IBPS CWE MODEL QUESTIONS

Reasoning

 1. Each consonant in the word TEMPORAL is changed to the previous letter in the English alphabet and each vowel is changed to the next letter in the English alphabet and then letters so arrived are arranged in alphabetical order, which of the following will be the fourth from the right end ?
(1) F
(2) P
(3) L
(4) K
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(1) 14
(2) 18 
(3) 24
(4) 36
(5) 26
Ans: (4)
Directions (Q. 3 - 6) : Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the the questions given below:
R $ 5 4 I J M @ P 3 © A Q T 2 W 1 % U V 6 B E N 8 * 7 d D
3. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a vowel ?
(1)None 
(2) One 
(3) Two
(4) Three 
(5) Four
Ans: (3)
4. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a letter and not immediately followed by a letter ?
(1) None 
(2) One 
(3) Two
(4) Three 
(5) More than three
Ans: (4)
5. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the nineteenth from the right end ofthe above arrangement ?
(1) T 
(2) W 
(3) N
(4) J 
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
6. If all the numbers from the above arrangement are dropped, which of the following will be the ninth to the right of J ?
(1) 1 
(2) A 
(3) Q
(4) T 
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
Directions (Q.7 - 8): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.
P, Q, R, S, T and V are sitting in a straight line facing North, not necessarily in the same order.
(a) Q sits third to the right of T.
(b) T sits second to the right of P.
(c) V is not an immediate neighbour of T.
(d) R sits second to the left of S.
7. If all the persons are made to sit in alphabetical order from left to right, the positions of how many will remain unchanged as compared to the original seating positions ?
(1) None
(2) One 
(3) Two 
(4) Three
(5) Four
Ans: (3)
8. Which of the following pairs sit at the extreme comers of the line ?
(1) TS 
(2) VS 
(3) RT 
(4) PQ 
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
9. The positions of the first and the sixth letters of the word CARPET are interchanged; similarly, the positions of the second and fifth letters; and the third and fourth letters are interchanged. In the new arrangement thus formed, how many alphabets are there between the letter which is second from the right and the letter which is second from the left end, in the English alphabetical series?
(1) None 
(2) One 
(3) Two 
(4) Three 
(5) More than three
Ans: (4)
10. In a certain language 'row a boat' is coded as '947', 'boat in water' is coded as '415' and 'boat sunk in water' is coded as '1654'. How is 'sunk' coded in the same code language ?
(1) 5
(2) 9
(3) 7
(4) 6
(5) 1
Ans: (4)
11. 'Lyrics' is related to 'Song' in the same way as 'Rhyme' is related to.
(1) Poetry
(2) Episode
(3) Chapter
(4) Story
(5) Passage
Ans: (1)

English Language

Directions-(Q.12 to 13) In each question below, four words printed in bold type are given. These are numbered (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these words printed in bold may either be wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word that is inappropriate or wrongly spelt, if any. The number of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and appropriate in the context of the sentence then mark (E), i.e., 'All Correct' as your answer.
12. My friends thesis was acclaimed
                         (A)            (B)
as a pioneering peice of research
          (C)          (D)
All Correct
     (E)

Ans: (D)
13. Air travel expanded enourmously
                       (A)             (B)
in the Second half of the twentieth century.
                                          (C)        (D)
All correct
   (E)
Ans: (B)
Directions (Q.14 - 17): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words in the passage have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
In July 1920 barely eight months after his arrival in England, Subhash Chandra Bose appeared in the Civil Service Examination and passed it with distinction. But the prospect of being a member of the bureaucracy did not make him happy. He felt that the first step towards equipping oneself for public service was to sacrifice all worldly interest. Much against the wishes ofhis father Subhash resigned from the I.C.S. and returned to India it? July 1920. Here he became Deshbandhu's most promising recruit. When C.R: Das became the chief organiser of the boycott of the visit of Prince of Wales, Subhash was by his side. The hartal in Calcutta. was a spectacular success and both the guru and sishya found themselves in jail. This was Subhash's first incarceration, the first of a total of eleven. Later. when C.R. Das was elected Mayor of Calcutta, Subhash was appointed Chief Executive Officer, While holding this post he was arrested in a case of conspiracy and was lodged without trial in Mandalay jail for two-and-a-half years. After release from jail, he became President of the Bengal Pradesh Congress Committee and once again resumed his political activities.
Subhash became President of the All India Youth Congress, Central Officer Commanding of the Congress Volunteer Corps, and in 1920, was the co-founder, with" Jawaharlal Nehru ofthe Left Wing of the Congress Party. He also became President of the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931. His dynamism was a source of inspiration for the trade unionists in the struggle for their rights as well as for India's freedom. In 1938, he was elected President of the Indian National Congress at the Haripura Session. This was the time when Congress ministries were in office in seven states under the scheme of Provincial Autonomy granted under the Government of India Act of 1935. He emphasised on the revolutionary potential of the Congress ministries in the presidential address. He was re-elected Congress President the following year at Tripuri, defeating the veteran, Dr. Pattabhi Sitaramayya though the latter enjoyed Gandhiji's support.'
14. When Subhash was the Chief Executive Officer
(1) he was arrested in a conspiracy case
(2) the Government oflndia Act of 1935 was passed
(3) he became President of the Bengal Pradesh Congress Committee
(4) The hartal in Calcutta was observed
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
15. Which of the following statements is TRUE in the context of the passage?
(1) The session of the Congress party was held at Calcutta
(2) Subhash liked the idea of working in a bureaucratic set up
(3) Subhash became the President of the All India Trade Union Congress in 1928
(4) In British rule, Congress was allowed to form ministries in States
(5) Subhash was lodged in the Mandalay jail after a proper trial
Ans: (4)
16. Shri c.n. Das (was)
(1) the-co-founder of the Left Wing of the Congress Party
(2) the President of.the All India youth Congress
(3) arrested and lodged in Mandalay jail without trial
(4) organised the boycott of the visit of Price of Wales
(5) elected unopposed as the President of the congress Party
Ans: (4)
17. Why did Subhash feel he should do for preparing himself to undertake public service?
(1) He should decide not to work in a bureaucratic set up
(2) He should feel pulse of the Nation
(3) He should feel renounce all pleasure available in the world
(4) He should dissociate himself from all dogmatic ideas and set notions
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
Directions (Q.18 - 20): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5). (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).
18. The new assignment is (1)/more challenging than (2)/much of the (3)/ earlier assignments (4)/ No error (5)
Ans: (3)
19. We are sure that (1)/ they will definitely help us (2)/ if we approach (3)/ them well in advance (4)/No error (5)
Ans: (2)
20. They now claim that (1)/they would have (2)/ guided us if we (3)/ would have requested them (4)/No errors (5)
Ans: (4)

Numerical Ability

Directions-(Q.21 - 25) What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions?
21. 9418 -? + 1436 + 2156 = 5658
(1) 7523
(2) 7352
(3) 7232
(4) 7325
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
22. 666 + (2-4 x ?) = 185
(1) 1.5
(2) 2.5
(3) 0.5
(4) 5
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
23. [(9)3 x (?)2] + 21 = 1701
(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 11
(4) 4
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
24. 21x14-34/12.4+5.6-15.5=?
(1) 95
(2) 100
(3) 110
(4) 106
(5) None of these
Ans: (5)
25. 11 1/7 + 2 5/8 = ?
 (1) 110 1/7
(2) 13 45/56
(3) 96 3/8
(4) 13 43/56
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
26. The product of two consecutive odd numbers is 19043. Which is the smaller number ?
(1) 137
(2) 131
(3) 133
(4) 129
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
27. Monica, Veronica and Rachael begin to jog around a circular stadium. They complete their revolutions in 42 seconds, 56 seconds and 63 seconds respectively. After how many seconds will they be together at the starting point ?
(1) 336
(2) 252
(3) 504
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
28. A sum of money is to be divided equally amongst P, Q and R in the respective ratio of 5 : 6 : 7 and another sum of money is to be divided between Sand T equally. If S got Rs. 2,100 less than P, how much amount did Q receive ?
(1) Rs. 2,500
(2) Rs. 2,000
(3) Rs. 1,500
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
29. If the value of 21 a + 21 b = 1134, what is the average of a + b ?
(1) 29
(2) 27
(3) 58
(4) 54
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
30. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series ? 82050125? 781.25
(1) 300
(2) 295.5
(3) 315
(4) 312.5
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)

Computer Knowledge

31. How do you prevent emailed word documents from always opening in the Reading Layout ?
(1) From the Tools Menu > Options > General Tab > uncheck the' Allow starting in Reading Layout'
(2) From the View Menu > Reading Layout > General Tab > uncheck the 'Allow starting in Reading Layout'
(3) From the Format Menu > Autoformat > Edit Tab > uncheck the 'Use with emailed attachments'.
(4) All the above
(5) None of these
Ans: (1)
32. To find and load a file that has been saved _.
(1) select the Close command
(2) select the New command
(3) select the Save command
(4) select the Open command
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
33. What displays the content of the active cell ?
(1) Name box
(2) Row Headings
(3) Formulabar
(4) Taskpane
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
34. The Word function that corrects text as you type is referred to as 
(1) Auto Summarize
(2) Auto Insert
(3) Auto Correct
(4) Track Changes
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
35. By default, your documents print in _ mode.
(1) Landscape
(2) Portrait
(3) Page Setup
(4) Print View
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
36. Why are unknown e-mails deleted?
(1) You may be sentenced to jail
(2) That man can identify and harm you
(3) These are dirty manners
(4) The e-mail may consists of virus that may damage your computer
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)
37. Which of the following refers to a small, single-site network ?
(1) LAN
(2) OSL
(3) RAM
(4) USB
(5) CPU
Ans: (1)
38. A word in a web page that, when clicked, opens another document
(1) anchor
(2) URL
(3) hyperlink
(4) reference
(5) None of these
Ans: (3)
39. 'GUI' stands for-
(1) Gnutella Universal Interface
(2) Graphical User Interface
(3) Graphic Uninstall/lnstall
(4) General Utility Interface
(5) None of these
Ans: (2)
40. For doing some specific work, a key is used jointly with which of the following ?
(1) Function
(2) Arrow
(3) Space bar
(4) Control
(5) None of these
Ans: (4)

General Awareness

41. According to global fund-tracking agency EPFR, emerging markets attracted USD 3.5 billion or over 70 per cent of total fresh capital invested in the equity funds across the world during the week ended 2 November 2011. As per capital market regulator SEBI, FIIs made a net investment of  what amount in Indian equities during the week ended 2 November 2011?
(1) USD 680 million
(2) USD 650 million
(3) USD 666 million
(4) USD 715 million
Ans: (1)
42. Indirect tax collections in October 2011 dropped by 2.5 percent to Rs 30,278 crore on account of a slowing economy. Indirect tax comprises which of the following?
(1) corporate, excise and service tax
(2) customs, excise and service tax
(3) service, excise and sales tax
(4) value added tax, sales tax and income tax
Ans: (2)
43. Which of the following rating agencies on 9 November 2011 downgraded the entire Indian banking system's rating outlook from stable to negative indicating a deterioration in asset quality in the months ahead?
(1) Standard & Poor's (S&P)
(2) Fitch Rating
(3) Moody's
(4) A.M. Best
Ans: (3)
44. Which of the following public sector banks in November 2011 froze its lending to the power sector?
(1) State Bank of India
(2) Allahabad Bank
(3) Punjab National Bank
(4) United Bank of India
Ans: (2)
45. Russia and Bangladesh on 2 November 2011 signed a deal to build a nuclear power plant.  Consider the following statements on the nuclear deal.
(i) It would be Bangladesh’s first nuclear plant.
(ii) The nuclear power plant will be set up at Rooppur in Pabna district.
Choose the right option:
(1) Both i and ii are correct.
(2) Only i is correct.
(3) Only ii is correct.
(4) Neither i nor ii is correct.
Ans: (1)
46. Nabum Tuki was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh on 1 November 2011. He is the__ Chief Minister of Arunachal Pradesh?
(1) Seventh
(2) Sixth
(3) Fith
(4) Fourth
Ans: (1)
47. A report recently stated that bluefin tuna was fished illegally during Libya conflict. Consider the following statements:
(i) Bluefin Tuna are dark blue-black on the back, and white on the lower sides and belly.
(ii) The scientific name of bluefin tuna is Thunnus thynnus.
Choose the right option:
(1) Both i and ii are correct.
(2) Neither i nor ii is correct.
(3) Only i is correct.
(4) Only ii is correct.
Ans: (a)
48. Name the top seeded tennis duo who won the Stockholm Open after outplaying Marcelo Melo and Bruno Soares 6-1, 6-4 in the summit clash in October 2011.
(1) Baghdatis of Cyprus and Del Potro of Argentina
(2) Rohan Bopanna of India and Aisam-Ul-Haq Qureshi of Pakistan
(3) Michael Kohlmann and Alexander Wask of Gremany
(3) Gael Monfils of France  and Alexander Wask of Gremany
Ans: (2)

49. Finance Minister Pranab Mukherjee on 31 October 2011 inaugurated a fully secure government e-payment system. Which of the following facts regarding the e-payment system is not true?
(i) e-payment system will enable the Central  government to directly credit dues into the accounts of beneficiaries.
(ii) It has been developed by Comptroller & Auditor general of India.
(iii) It has been designed to serve as middleware between COMPACT (computerised payment and accounts) application at PAOs and the core banking solution (CBS) of the agency banks/Reserve Bank of India, to facilitate paperless transaction.
(iv The e-payment system will save both time and effort in effecting payments and also facilitate the elimination of physical cheques and their manual processing.
(1) 1 & 2
(2) Only 1
(3) Only 2
(4) 1 & 3
Ans: (3)
50. Conference of Parties to the Stockholm Convention in Geneva on 29 April 2011 approved the recommendation for elimination of production and use of which of the following?
(1) Endosulfan
(2) Neonicotinoids
(3) Organophosphates
(4) Metarhizium anisopliae
Ans: (1)