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Thursday, 27 October 2011

Wainganga Krishna Gramin Bank Officers (Scale-I) Exam., 2011


General English 
(Exam Held on 8-5-2011) 


Directions-(Q. 1-10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Right of entry to education, an ample teaching-learning environment, a suitable curriculum and an empowered and all-encompassing faculty are four essential prerequisites of an education system that seeks to enable social transformation. While educational reform since the 1980s was strongly focused on the first two elements, the late 1990s brought the role of the curriculum into national focus. The critical link that binds these four critical elements together the activity of the faculty continues to be cast aside, by political ideologies of most hues, contemporary curriculum reform efforts and the professional practices of the faculty.

Far-reaching educational initiatives of both the Left and the Right have recognized the potential power of the .faculty. In multiple experiments, they have used this dormant force to build committed institutions and cadres of faculties dedicated to their particular causes. In many instances this has led to extreme politicization of the college faculty. In others it has led to the education of a generation of students in half –truths underpinned by the personal beliefs, sectarian concerns and folk pedagogy of faculties who have had little access themselves to education and training in related areas.

Over the last decade or so, educational reform has included, apart from access, a focus on developing alternative text materials and the training of faculty to handle these materials, without directly engaging with the issue of curriculum revamp. At the turn of the 20th century, a major national curriculum redesign was initiated following the change of political regime at the centre. The subsequent development of college programme came under wide public scrutiny and debate. Issues of equity, inclusion and exclusion, learner medley religious identity and communalism gained considerable importance in the curriculum debates that followed. For instance scholars argued that, "...the curriculum, while loud on rhetoric, fails to address the quality of education that students of under-privileged and marginalized group's experience". Several other critics described the revised curriculum as a retrogressive step in education that sought to impose the religious agenda in the garb of a national identity.

The subsequent change of national government in 2004, led to the curriculum review in 2005 underlining a new political interest in the role of education in national development, its role in social mobilization and transformation directed specifically at questions of caste and gender asymmetry and minority empowerment. Deeper than these politically driven initiatives, however, the professional need for curriculum review emerges from the long ossification of a national education system that continues to view faculty as "dispensers of information" and students as "passive recipients" of an "education", sought1obe "delivered" in four-walled classrooms with little scope to develop critical thinking and understanding.

1. Prior to 1990 what was NOT the agenda of the educational reforms?
(1) An appropriate curriculum
(2) Well managed admission process
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Both (1) and (2)
(D) Either (1) or (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. Which of the following best describes the phrase "passive recipients" as used in the passage ?
(A) The users of the educational system
(B) The political ideology of right and left parties
(C) Well framed curriculum guiding the teaching/learning process
(D) Free access to education system
(E) The faculty
Ans : (A)

3. To facilitate social transformation, which of the following has been identified by the author as one of the factors ?
(A) A committed political ideology'
(B) Support of the well framed curriculum
(C) A strong administration system
(D) Carefully planned education delivery
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)


4. What hampers the critical thinking ability of college going students?
(A) The emphasis on rote memorization and recalling the facts of education based on real experience
(B) Lack of political will to develop these abilities
(C) Absence of focus while designing curriculum framework
(D) Ignoring the active role of faculty and the student
(E) Lack of proper tests of critical thinking ability
Ans : (C)

5. Which of the following best describes the meaning of the word underpinned as used in the passsage ?
(A) advocated
(B) supported
(C) prepared
(D) bolstered
(E) boosted
Ans : (D)

6. Which of the following best describes the word ossification as used in the passage?
(A) hardening
(B) plasticity
(C) imbibition
(D) incorporation
(E) coalescing
Ans : (A)

7. Development of text books generated public debate on many issues except
(1) making the curriculum students centered.
(2) using teaching community as an agency to bring change.
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Both (1) and (2)
(D) Either (1) or (2)
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

8. How did personal beliefs and folk pedagogy enter into educational system ?
(A) The college acted as an agent of local communities
(B) The faculties were not properly trained
(C) College faculties started acting as passive listeners
(D) The loopholes in the educational system allowed it to happen
(E) It was by design
Ans : (B)

9. Which of the following is the most opposite in meaning to the word medley as used in the passage ?
(A) amalgamate
(B) united
(C) unity
(D) diffuse
(E) focusing
Ans : (D)

10. Revamping of the text material was the main focus in–
(A) early eighties
(B) late nineties
(C) 21st century
(D) evolving curriculum framework
(E) training faculty
Ans : (C)

Directions-(Q. 11-15) In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words denoted by letters (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair of words can be filled up in the blanks in the sentence in the same sequence to make the sentence grammatically correct and meaningfully complete.

11. …………….to the popular belief that every astrologer nurtures blind faith in fate, our astrologer believes in………..
(A) Contrary , action
(B) According, thoughts
(C) Bowing, present
(D) Proving, forecasting
(E) Pointing, devotion
Ans : (A)

12. His………….has yielded him the…………….fruit.
(A) fate, undesirable
(B) efforts, unwanted
(C) action, viable
(D) perseverance, desired
(E) emphasis, expected
Ans : (D)

13. Liberalization has removed all the legal………….... and…………....flood-gates to multinational companies.
(A) hurdles, awarded
(B) barriers, opened
(C) obstacles, guarded
(D) manipulation, closed
(E) battles, threw
Ans : (B)

14. His …………....contribution to the Tsunami relief fund was …………....by his staff members.
(A) meagre, admired
(B) spontaneous, nullified
(C) negligible, sanctioned
(D) noteworthy, improved
(E) generous, appreciated
Ans : (E)

15. The …………....on some of the towns has created …………....among the residents of the other part of the country.
(A) attack, ambition
(B) raid, awareness
(C) bombardment, panic
(D) spell, satisfaction
(E) shower, dampness
Ans : (C)

Directions-(Q. 16-20) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ' All correct' as your answer .

16; The file contents (A) a revised (B) estimate (C) of the banking industry's manpower requirements (D) for the next year. All correct (E)
Ans : (E)

17. Your marketing strategy (A) should be devised (B) dependent (C) on the kind of business you own. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

18. Since our financial resources (A) are limitless (B) we cannot afford (C) this alternative. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (B)

19. His main reasoning (A) for applying (B) for this promotion is the possibility (C) of an overseas posting. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (A)

20. To better understand the challenges (A) of starting anew venture (B) he read (C) up extensively. (D) All correct (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions-(Q. 21-30) Which of the phrases (A).. (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold type to make the sentence grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (E) i.e., 'No correction required' as the answer .

21. His behavior with all his employees is so pleasing that everyone come forward for helping him.(A) came towards him for help
(B) comes towards him for help
(C) comes forward to help him
(D) comes forward for help him
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

22. The police commissioner burst into rage and ordered immediately suspension of the inspector who had arrested the innocent boy.
(A) order immediately
(B) order immediate
(C) ordered immediate
(D) ordering immediate
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

23. She will not attend the meeting until she is asked to.
(A) except
(B) even with
(C) even except
(D) unless
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

24. He would be like to have some ice-cream.
(A) would like to
(B) would be liked to
(C) was to be liking to
(D) would being liked to
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

25. A master should never impose his servants too much work.(A) his servants with too much work
(B) too much work with his servants
(C) too much work on his -servants
(D) too much work for his servants
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

26. Good life, according to many people, is to making more and more money.
(A) is making
(B) is made
(C) are made
(D) are making
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

27. Lift the handset only after paid a one rupee coin.
(A) paying a one rupee coin
(B) you pay one rupee coin
(C) pay one rupee-coin
(D) you paid one rupee coin
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

28. What matter does most is the quality and not the quantity.
(A) What does matter
(B) What does it matter
(C) That matters
(D) What matters
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

29. Not knowing the language and had no friends in the country, he found it impossible to get a job.
(A) has no
(B) with having
(C) with having not
(D) having no
(E) No correction required
Ans : (D)

30. With the introduction of new system, the number of candidates who resort to unfair means is decreasing year after year.
(A) resorting to
(B) to resort to
(C) resorted to
(D) to resorting
(E) No correction required
Ans : (E)

Directions-(Q. 31-40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

31. Our country can contribute (A) / to the mitigation of global warming (B) / by protecting forests (C) / and starting at afforestation programme. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

32. The task for ensuring employment (A) / for the labour force has been (B) / a persistent concern throughout (C) / India's post independence development. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

33. Psychologists have been documenting (A) / the emotional and physical (B) / effect of (C) / negative political advertisements. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

34. India's efforts that are (A) / aimed at controlling (B) / infectious diseases is likely (C) / to show only partial success. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

35. The magazine industry (A) / in India (B) / has been going from (C) / confusing times. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

36. The fast pace of progress on (A) / basic education and literacy (B) / is consistent with an increase (C) / in demand for education. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

37. Technology is (A) / transforming the way (B) / films are screen (C) / in the theatres. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

38. One needs to set goals (A) / at differing stages (B) / of one's career and (C) / monitor achievements and accomplishments. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

39. Non-communicable diseases (A) / often require (B) / long term and expensive interventions which (C) / poor people cannot afford. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

40. A leader is a group member which (A) / exerts profound influence (B) / on the behaviour and attitudes (C) / of other members of the group. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

Directions-(Q. 41-50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

The growth story in any developing country cannot be ...(41)... without ...(42)... its impact on the poverty and employment situation. The Planning Commission has ...(43)... that India should strive for 'more inclusive growth' .The number of people living below the poverty line has ...(44)... from 36 per cent in 1993-94 to 22.0 per cent in 2004-05. Again, the issue is to bring more and more people out of poverty by ...(45)... them the productive employment opportunities. The Approach Paper to 11th Five Year Plan suggests that doubling the growth of agricultural GDP to 4 per cent per annum will ...(46)... rural employment conditions, by raising real wages and reducing under employment. However, even if this is attained, an overall growth of 9 per cent will further increase income ...(47)... between agricultural and non-agricultural households, ...(48)... around 10 million workers currently in agriculture find remunerative non-agricultural employment.. This ...(49)... a major challenge not only in terms of generating non-agricultural employment but also in ...(50)... its required location and type.

41. (A) complete
(B) retold
(C) achieved
(D) constructed
(E) narrated
Ans : (A)

42. (A) generating
(B) assessing
(C) realizing
(D) counting
(E) finding
Ans : (B)

43. (A) desired
(B) estimated
(C) focused
(D) verified
(E) stressed
Ans : (C)

44. (A) uplifted
(B) degraded
(C) vanished
(D) decreased
(E) enhanced
Ans : (D)

45. (A) absolving
(B) providing
(C) nurturing
(D) ignoring
(E) refusing
Ans : (B)

46. (A) impact
(B) diversify
(C) lay
(D) aggravate
(E) improve
Ans : (E)

47. (A) opportunity
(B) assessment
(C) disparity
(D) parity
(E) tax
Ans : (C)

48. (A) unless
(B) for
(C) in spite of
(D) despite
(E) by
Ans : (A)

49. (A) addresses
(B) meets
(C) poses
(D) recognizes
(E) solves
Ans : (C)

50. (A) exploring
(B) acquiting
(C) reciprocating
(D) matching
(E) solving
Ans : (D)

AGRICULTURE PRACTICE QUESTIONS

1. Jalpriya is a variety of-
(A) Maize
(B) Jowar
(C) Paddy
(D) Barley
Answer.C

2. Sugarcane + Potato is an inter-cropping system of-
(A) Autumn season
(B) Zaid season
(C) Spring season
(D) Rainy season
Answer.A

3. Seed—rate of potato per hectare is
(A) 25 quintal / hectare
(B) 10 quintal/hectare
(C) 15 quintal/ hectare
(D) 40 quintal/ hectare
Answer.D

4. Deficiency symptoms of calcium on plants first appear at-
(A) Lower leaves
(B) Middle leaves
(C) Terminal leaves
(D) All leaves
Answer.C

5. Which weedicide is used to kill broad leaf weeds in wheat ?
(A) 2, 4 — D.S,S. (WPSS)
(B) 2, 4, 5 ~ T
(C) 2, 4 – DB
(D) None of these
Answer.A
 
6. Maya is the variety of-
(A) Potato
(B) Gram
(C) Pea
(D) Mustard
Answer.D

7. The weed that causes Asthma is
(A) Hirankhuri
(B) Bathua
(C) Parthenium
(D) Krishna Neel
Answer.C

8. Which crop requires maximum amount of nitrogen ?
(A) Potato
(B) Wheat
(C) Barley
(D) Sugarcane
Answer.D

9. First dwarf variety of paddy developed in India is-
(A) Jaya
(B) Saket-4
(C) Govind
(D) Narendra-97
Answer.C

10, Sprinkler irrigation is suitable,where the soil has-
(A) Clayey texture
(B) Loamy texture
(C) Undulating topography
(D) All of these
Answer.D

11. Endosulphan is also known as—
(A) Lindane
(B) Thiodan
(C) Aldrin
(D) B.H.C.
Answer.B

12. Which of the following is systemic poison
(A) Metasystox
(B) Phosphomidan
(C) Phorate
(D) All of these
Answer.C

13. DDVP is known as —
(A) Nuvan
(B) Malathion
(C) Thiodan
(D) Sulfex
Answer.A

14 Seed treatment with Vitavex is the main controlling method of-
(A) Loose smut
(B) Rust
(C) Downy mildew
(D) All of these
Answer.D

15. Covered smut of barley is a disease of-
(A) Externally seed-borne
(B) Internally seed-borne
(C) Air-borne
(D) None of these
Answer.B

16, Which of the following cakes is not edible?
(A) Castor cake
(B) Mustard cake
(C) Sesame cake
(D) Groundnut cake
Answer.A

17. In India, about 142 million hectare land is under
(A) Cultivation
(B) Waste land
(C) Forest
(D) Eroded land
Answer.A

18. The headquarters of Indian Meteorological Department was established in 1875 at-
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Pune
(D) Calcutta
Answer.D

19, Moisture condensed in small drops upon cool surface is called-
(A) Hail
(B) Dew
(C) Snow
(D) Fog
Answer.B

20. How many agro-climatic zones (ACZ) are found in India ?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 15
(D) 20
Answer.C

21. Tilt angle of a disc plough is generally-
(A) 10°
(B) 15″
(C) 20°
(D) 45°
Answer.D

22. Pudding is done to-
(A) Reduce percolation of water
(B) Pulverise and leveling soil
(C) Kill weeds
(D) All of the above
Answer.D
23. The Community Development Programme (CDP) was started in India on-
(A) 2nd October, 1950
(B) 2nd October, 1952
(C) 2nd October, 1951
(D) None of these
Answer.B

24 The main unit of Integrated Rural Development Programme is-
(A) Family
(B) Village
(C) Block
(D) District
Answer.B

25. Element of Communication is-
(A) Message
(B) Feedback
(C) Channel
(D) All of these
Answer.D

26. The first Kshetriya Gramin Bank; (KGB) was opened in India is-
(A) 1972
(B) 1980
(C) 1975
(D) 1969
Answer.C

27. The main function of NABARD is
(A) Farmer loaning
(B) Agricultural research
(C) Refinancing to agricultural
financing institutions
(D) Development of agriculture
Answer.C

28. Rent theory of profit was given by—
(A) Hawley
(B) C.P.Blacker
(C) Tanssig
(D) F.A. Walker
Answer.D

29. ln L.D.R., the profit will be maxirnum when-
(A) MC = MP
(B) MC is greater than MP
(C) MP=TP
(D) MP is greater than TP
Answer.D

30. The period of 11th Five Year Plan is
(A) 2000-2005
(B) 2002-2007
(C) 2007-2012
(D) 2008-2012
Answer.C

31. Acid rain contains mainly-
(A) PO4
(B) NO2
(C) NO3
(D) CH4
Answer.B

32. Cell Organelle found only in plants are-—
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Golgi complex
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Plastids
Answer.D

33. Proteins are synthesized in-
(A) Centrosomes
(B) Ribosomes
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Golgibodies
Answer.B

34. Milk fever is caused due to the deficiency of-
(A) P
(B) Ca
(C) Mg
(D) K
Answer.B

35. Milk sugar is a type of-
(A) Glucose
(B) Sucrose
(C) Lactose
(D) Fructose
Answer.C

36. Muriate of Potash is-
(A) K2SO4
(B) KC1
(C) K2HPO4
(D) KNO3
Answer.B

37. Azotobacter fixes atmospheric nitrogen in the soil by-
(A) Symbiotically
(B) Non-symbiotically
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Answer.A

38. The chemical formula of iron pyrites is–
(A) FeSO4
(B) FeS
(C) FeS2
(D) Fe2(SO4)3
Answer.C

39. Rock phosphates are used in-
(A) Saline soil
(B) Sodic soil
(C) Acidic soil
(D) Neutral soil
Answer.C

40. lntervenous chlorosis is caused due to the deficiency of-
(A) N
(B) Mg
(C) S
(D) Fe
Answer.D

41. Kinnow is the hybrid variety of—
(A) Citrus
(B) Orange
(C) Mandarin
(D) Lemon
Answer.C

42. The permanent preservative,which is used for preservation of  fruit and vegetables, is-
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Potassium metabisulphate
(C) Potassium sulphate
(D) Sugar
Answer.B

43. Whip tail disease of cauliflower is caused by deficiency of-
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Boron
(C) Molybdenum
(D) Zinc
Answer.C

44. The word ’Agriculture’ is derived from—
(A) Greek
(B) Latin
(C) Arabic
(D) French
Answer.B

45. Motha (Grass nut) belongs to the family of-
(A) Cruciferae
(B) Tiliaceae
(C) Cyperaceae
(D) Grarninaceae
Answer.C

46. Which of the followings are short day crops
(A) Maize, Lobia, Bajra
(B) Wheat, Mustard, Gram
(C) Moong, Soybean, Bajra
(D) Wheat, Soybean, Bajra
Answer.B

47. What is the sequence of C4 plants ?
(A) Sudangrass — Sugarcane -Paddy — Bajra
(B) Sugarcane — Maize — Sudan gIdSS – Bajra
(C) Sugarcane – Cotton — Paddy — Maize
(D) Cotton — Maize – Bajrae Sugarcane
Answer.B

48. Match List-l (crops) with List-Il
(water requirement) and select
your answer from the code given
below-
List—I
(a) Iowar
(b) Soybean
(c) Cotton
(d) Groundnut
List-II
1. 140 mm – 300 mm
2. 350 mm — 450 mm
3. 200 mm — 300 mm
4. 300 mm — 350 mm
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 1 4 2
Answer.C

49. In which state, are there biggest area, highest production and number of Sugar Mills in relation to Sugarcame ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Answer.A

50. Which is not prepared by potato
(A) AceticAcid
(B) Paper
(C) Wine
(D) Fanina
Answer.B

AGRICULTURE MCQs

1. How many factors are identified for influencing plant growth till now ?
(A) 55
(B) 60
(C) 52
(D) 50
Answer:C

2. How does the moisture stress affect the cell
(A) Affect cell division
(B) Affect cell expansion
(C) Cell mortality rate is affected
(D) No effect on cell
Answer:A
3. At the vegetative growth stage, flowering is stopped in food grain crops, known as-
(A) sigmoid growth curve
(B) determinate growth
(C) indeterminate growth
(D) grand growth period
Answer:B

4. Which one of the following can be assessed by using the following equation ?
A= Economic Production / Biomass Production
(A) Panicle emergence rate
(B) Rate of flowering
(C) Harvest Index
(D) Leaf production rate
Answer:C

5. How much radiation energy percentage radiating on plant is used in photosynthesis ?
(A) 0-50%-210%
(B) 0-42%-1.66%
(C) 0-25%-0-30%
(D) 0-16%-0-24%
Answer:B

6. The crop with yarns of sunnhemp is prepared in-
(A) 12-15 weeks
(B) 15-17 weeks
(C) 10-12 weeks
(D) 8-10 weeks
Answer:A

7. Which is not an inorganic matter in the following ?
(A) Magnesium
(B) Iron
(C) Fat
(D) Iodine
Answer:C

8. Which is the highest digestible protein non-leguminous crop among the following
(A) Napier
(B) Maize silage
(C) Maize
(D) Iowar
Answer:D

9. Which disease occurs, when more sorghum is consumed ?
(A) Rickets
(B) Scurvy
(C) Nightblindness
(D) Pellagra
Answer:D

10. Which Sorghum variety is not multicut ?
(A) Pusa Chari-2
(B) M.P. Chari-2
(C) M.P. Chari
(D) U.P. Chari-1
Answer:D

11. Which is not true in relation to Bajra ? ‘
(A) Penniseturn typhoides
(B) Graminae family
(C) Chromosome No. – 20
(D) OriginAfrica
Answer:D

12. Which variety of Barley is husk less
(A) Pragati (K 508)
(B) Ritambhara (K 551)
(C) Geetamjali (K 1149)
(D) Karan-3
Answer:D

13. Which is not true in relation to Gram ?
(A) Subfamily——Papilionaceae
(B) Chromosome No.—22
(C) Acid——Ma.lic and Oxalic
(D) Origin—North America
Answer:D

14. Which does not match in relation to Cotton ?
(A) C-520 —— Diploid
(B) G-27 — Diploid
(C) Vikas — American
(D) Ranivan — American
Answer:D

15. Which is not matched in relation to sugarcane ?
(A) Seed treatment—-Aglol 3%
(B) For seed—6-7 month old crop
(C) Sowing—Upper portion is more used
(D) After flowering—Used for sowing
Answer:D

16. Which is not basic principle of Agronomy ?
(A) To select appropriate materials for seed & sowing
(B) Management of soil and climate
(C) Appropriate intercropping activities management for crop
(D) Livestock management for Agriculture
Answer:D

17. Where and when was World Meteorological Organization established ?
(A) New York – 1980
(B) Washington-1978
(C) Geneva—1978
(D) Rome- 1976
Answer:C

18. Effective cause of atmospheric pressure is not-
(A) temperature
(B) altitude from the sea level
(C) rotation of earth
(D) soil erosion
Answer:D

19. Which is not correct in the following ?
(A) X-rays and Gamma rays — 9% of energy
(B) Visible lighting rays -41% of energy
(C) Infrared rays -50% of Y energy
(D) Ultraviolet rays- 10% of energy
Answer:A

20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below-
List-I
(a) Paddy
(b) Wheat
(c) Maize
(d) Groundnut
List-II
1. 20°C
2. 22°C
3. 25°C
4. 26°C
Codes
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
Answer:B

21. Which states are the highest  & lowest producers of Potato crop ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh and Jharkhand
(B) Gujarat and Assam
(C) Uttar Pradesh & Himachalpradesh
(D) Bihar & Kashmir
Answer:A

22. Which elements are useful in energy storage, transfer and bonding ?
(A) N P K
(B) N S P
(C) N K S
(D) None of these
Answer:C

23. Which of the following elements play an important role in nitrogen metabolism ?
(A) Magnesium
(B) Manganese
(C) Molybdenum
(D) Iron
Answer:C

24. How much Brinjal seed may be obtained from one hectare area 7
(A) 150-200 kg
(B) 100-150 kg
(C) 200-300 kg
(D) 75-125 kg
Answer:D

25. Which species of honeybee is not Indian ?
(A) Apis florea
(B) Apis dorsata
(C) Apis cerana
(D) Apis mellifera
Answer:D

26. Which of the following is the cross of Karan Swiss ?
(A) Sahiwal x Brown Swiss
(B) Sahiwal x Holstein
(C) Hariyana x Brovsm Swiss
(D) Hariyana >< ]ersey
Answer:A

27. For how many years is Sheep able to breed ?
(A) 10 years
(B) 7years
(C) 5 years
(D) 12 years
Answer:A

28. l-low much area mz is required for a Goat ?
(A) 0-9 ~ 1•O m2
(B) 1-1-5 m2
(C) 0-75 — 090 mz
(D) 1-5 – 1-75 mz
Answer:C

29. Goal of extension education is-
(A) To promote income of the farmers
(B) To promote production of the crops
(C) To promote new crops
(D) To promote scientific out- look
Answer:D

30. The major fungi that effect food-grains in storage are-—
(A) Mucor
(B) Rhizopus
(C) Candida
(D) Aspergillus
Answer:A

31. The leaching loss of Nitrogen (N) is more in the form of–
(A) Ammonia
(B) Nitrate
(C) Nitrogen
(D) Water solution
Answer:B

32. Which is not a natural factor affecting soil fertility ?
(A) Topography
(B) Soil age
(C) Air
(D) Parent material
Answer:C

33. Approximately how much area in lakh hectares of saline and alkali soils are there in Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) 15-00 lakh hectares
(B) 12-4 lakhhectares
(C) 10-4 lakh hectares
(D) 14-4 lakh hectares
Answer:B

34. How much percentage of soluble salts are present in Alkali soils ?
(A) 1% . 2%
(B) 0-1% — 0-2%
(C) 1-5% — 2-5%
(D) 2% ~ 3%
Answer:B

35. How much is the cropped area in Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) 9%
(B) 11%
(C) 12%
(D) 8%
Answer:C

36. The monsoon airs in the country reaches at which bank first of all ?
(A) Coastal region of Orissa
(B) Bay of Bengal region
(C) Coastal region of Kerala of
South Indian region
(D) Kachchh region of Gujarat
Answer:C

37. A.D.P. to A.T.P. change is called
(A) Photosymthesis
(B) Phosphorylation
(C) Transpiration
(D) Oxidation
Answer:B

38. What is the order of C 4 plants
(A) Sugarcane — Maize — Sudan grass — Bajra
(B) Sugarcane — Cotton – Paddy- Maize
(C) Sudan grass – Sugarcane -Paddy - Bajra
(D) Cotton — Maize ~ Bajra —Sugarcane
Answer:A
39. At what stage are more nutrients essentially required in cereal crops ?
(A) Growth stage of plants
(B)` Formation of leaves
(C) Particle initiation
(D) Maturity of crops
Answer:A

40. At which stage of crop, there is no compehtion for light, moisture and nutrients
(A) Node formation stage
(B) Seedling stage
(C) Grain formation stage
(D) Before maturity stage
Answer:D

41. Approximately how much HCN dose is harmful for animal feeding
(A) 0-25 gm
(B) 050 gm
(C) 2.50 gm
(D) 3-50 gm
Answer:B

42. Due to which reason is the Napier Grass mixed with Cluster bean or Cowpea for feeding ?
(A) Due to high crude fibre
(B) Due to oxalic acid
(C) Due to more carbohydrates
(D) Due to more HCN content
Answer:A

43. Which is the perennial variety of Elephant Grass (Napier Grass) ?
(A) Pusa Giant
(B) NB-21 `
(C) Pusa Giant Napier
(D) Napier-1
Answer:C

44. More than how much percentage of loss of urea should not be during silage fermentation ?
(A) 20% — 22%
(B) 15% — 18%
(C) 10% — 12%
(D) 8% — 10%
Answer:D

45. From where is Krishak Bharati magazine published ?
(A) G. B. Pant University of Agriculture & Technology, Pant Nagar
(B) C. S. A, University of Agriculture & Technology, Kanpur
(C) Narendra Dev University of Agriculture and Technology, Fajzabad
(D) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel University of Agriculture and Technology, Meerut
Answer:B

46. How much minimum temperature is essential for wheat germination and optimum temperature for crop growth in degree Celsius ?
(A) 3.5°C-5.5°C and 20°C—22°C
(B) 5.6°C—7.5°C and 16°C—18°C
(C) 8°C—10°C and 30°C—35°C
(D) 10°C—12″C and 25°C—30°C
Answer:D

47. In case of availability of two irrigations for wheat, at which critical stage crop should be irrigated ?
(A) Tillering and Flowering
(B) Crown Root Initiation and Milking stage p
(C) Crown Root Initiation and Flowering
(D) Late joint and Dough stage
Answer:C

48. Which is not the symptom of Khuim disease
(A) Dark grey colour spots on leaves
(B) Adverse effect on root growth
(C) More diseases stop the crop growth
(D) Stem of plants tum and fall down
Answer:A

49. What is the suitable Rabi maize variety ?
(A) Sharadmani
(B) Azad Uttam
(C) Naveen
(D) Ganga — 5
Answer:A

50. Which disease is not related to Bajra ?
(A) Green Ear
(B) Ergot
(C) Wilt
(D) Rust
Answer:C

Wednesday, 26 October 2011

PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION MCQs

1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as "the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends" ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)

2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)

3. 'Good Governance' and 'Participating Civil Society for Development' were stressed in World Bank Report of—
(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)

4. If the administrative authority within a department is vested in a single individual, then that system is known as—
(A) Board
(B) Bureau
(C) Commission
(D) Council
Ans : (B)

5. Globalisation means—
(A) Financial market system is centered in a single state
(B) The growth of a single unified world market
(C) Geographical location of a firm is of utmost importance
(D) Foreign capitalist transactions
Ans : (B)

6. By whom was the 'Managerial Grid' developed ?
(A) Blake and White
(B) Blake and Schmidt
(C) Blake and Mouton
(D) Mouton and Shophan
Ans : (C)

7. Who among the following says that public administration includes the operations of only the executive branch of government ?
(A) L. D. White and Luther Gulick
(B) L. D. White
(C) Luther Gulick
(D) W. F. Willoughby
Ans : (C)

8. The concept of the 'zone of indifference' is associated with—
(A) Decision-Making
(B) Leadership
(C) Authority
(D) Motivation
Ans : (C)

9. Who has analysed the leadership in terms of 'circular response' ?
(A) C. I. Barnard
(B) M. P. Follett
(C) Millet
(D) Taylor
Ans : (B)

10. Simon proposed a new concept of administration based on the methodology of—
(A) Decision-making
(B) Bounded rationality
(C) Logical positivism
(D) Satisfying
Ans : (C)

11. Who wrote the book 'Towards A New Public Administration : The Minnowbrook Perspective' ?
(A) Frank Marini
(B) Dwight Waldo
(C) C. J. Charlesworth
(D) J. M. Pfiffner
Ans : (A)

12. Who rejected the principles of administration as 'myths' and 'proverbs' ?
(A) W. F. Willoughby
(B) Herbert Simon
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) L. D. White
Ans : (B)

13. The classical theory of administration is also known as the—
(A) Historical theory
(B) Mechanistic theory
(C) Locational theory
(D) Human Relations theory
Ans : (B)

14. How many principles of organization were propounded by Henry Fayol ?
(A) 10
(B) 14
(C) 5
(D) 9
Ans : (B)

15. Simon was positively influenced by ideas of—
(A) Terry
(B) Barnard
(C) L. D. White
(D) Henry Fayol
Ans : (B)

16. Negative motivation is based on—
(A) Fear
(B) Reward
(C) Money
(D) Status
Ans : (A)

17. 'Job loading' means—
(A) Shifting of an employee from one job to another
(B) Deliberate upgrading of responsibility, scope and challenge
(C) Making the job more interesting
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

18. The theory of 'Prismatic Society' in Public Administration is based on—
(A) Study of public services in developed and developing countries
(B) Institutional comparision of public administration in developed countries
(C) Structural-functional analysis of public administration in developing countries
(D) Historical studies of public administration in different societies
Ans : (C)

19. Who among the following is an odd thinker ?
(A) Taylor
(B) Maslow
(C) Herzberg
(D) Likert
Ans : (A)

20. Which of the following is not included in 'hygiene' factors in the Herzberg's two-factor theory of motivation ?
(A) Salary
(B) Working conditions
(C) Company's policy
(D) Responsibility
Ans : (D)

21. The 'Gang-Plank' refers to—
(A) Discipline
(B) Initiative
(C) Equity
(D) Level jumping
Ans : (D)

22. The history of evolution of the Public Administration is generally divided into—
(A) Three phases
(B) Four phases
(C) Five phases
(D) Six phases
Ans : (C)

23. Henry Fayol's General theory of Administration is applicable at—
(A) Policy management level
(B) Top management level
(C) Middle management level
(D) Workshop management level
Ans : (B)

24. F. W. Taylor, the founding father of Scientific Management movement propounded the theory which was conceived to be a scientific methodology of—
(A) Careful observation
(B) Measurement
(C) Generalisation
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

25. In which of the following are public and private administrations not common ?
(A) Filing
(B) Managerial techniques
(C) Scope and complexity
(D) Accounting
Ans : (C)

  26. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—
(A) Depoliticised bureaucracy
(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy
(C) Committed bureaucracy
(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy
Ans : (C)

27. The principle of 'span of control' means—
(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direct
(C) The control or supervision of the superior over the subordinate
(D) The number of people being controlled
Ans : (B)

28. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?
(A) Planning
(B) Advising
(C) Consultation
(D) Achieving goals
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India ?
(A) Cabinet Secretariat
(B) Cabinet Committees
(C) Planning Commission
(D) Economic Affairs Department
Ans : (D)

30. In hierarchy, the term 'scalar' means—
(A) Step
(B) Ladder
(C) Position
(D) Process
Ans : (B)

31. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—
(A) Purpose, process, plan, place
(B) Place, person, programme, process
(C) Purpose, process, place, programme
(D) Purpose, process, person, place
Ans : (D)

32. One who tells one's supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—
(A) A squealer
(B) A rate buster
(C) A chiseller
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

33. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—
(A) 9 to 12
(B) 8 to 12
(C) 7 to 9
(D) 10 to 12
Ans : (B)

34. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his saleman is an example of—
(A) Upward delegation
(B) Sideward delegation
(C) Downward delegation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

35. A virtual organisation is—
(A) One which has profit as the major goal
(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates
(C) A small, core organization that outsources major busi-ness functions
(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)

36. The most effective means of citizen's control over administration is—
(A) Election
(B) Pressure Groups
(C) Advisory Committees
(D) Public Opinion
Ans : (A)

37. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—
(A) 1961
(B) 1964
(C) 1963
(D) 1962
Ans : (D)

38. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—
(A) Norway
(B) USA
(C) Sweden
(D) Finland
Ans : (C)

39. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity ?
(A) The State is immune to being sued
(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts
(C) The State cannot be sued in its own court without its consent
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

40. 'Habeas Corpus' literally means—
(A) To have the body of
(B) To command
(C) To prohibit
(D) None of the above
Ans : (A)

41. The system of 'Rule of Law' was propounded by—
(A) A. V. Dicey
(B) Lowell
(C) W. F. Willoughby
(D) H. Finer
Ans : (A)

42. Who says that "Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely" ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) Lord Beveridge
(C) Lord Acton
(D) Josiah Stamp
Ans : (C)

43. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—
(A) 15 members
(B) 22 members
(C) 25 members
(D) 30 members
Ans : (B)

44. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—
(A) Error of law
(B) Abuse of power
(C) Error of authority
(D) Error of fact finding
Ans : (B)

45. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?
1. USA
2. UK
3. France
4. India
(A) 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 1 and 3
(D) 2
Ans : (B)

46. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—
(A) 1786
(B) 1778
(C) 1787
(D) 1789
Ans : (C)

47. 'Grand Corps' in French Civil Service stands for—
(A) Senior level of specialist administrators
(B) Senior level of generalist administrators
(C) Senior level of generalistcum-specialist administra-tors
(D) Senior level of defence administrators
Ans : (C)

48. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years
(B) Five years
(C) Six years
(D) Seven years
Ans : (D)

49. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—
(A) The King or the Queen
(B) The House of Commons
(C) The House of Lords
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)

50. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—
(A) Are required to be neutral in politics
(B) Can be partisan
(C) Can be partly neutral and partly partian
(D) Can pursue active party politics
Ans : (A)

51. The term 'Performance Budget' was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)

52. During passing of budget in the Parliament 'Guilotine' is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)

53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)

55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)

56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)

57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)

58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)

59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)

60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)

61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)

62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)

63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)

64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)

65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)

66. 'Position classification' is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)

67. The civil service was defined as "professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled" by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)

68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)

69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)

70. The 'spoils system' in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)

71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)

72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)

73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)

74. Which of the following reports deals with the relations between the specialists and generalists ?
(A) Haldane Committee Report
(B) Sarkaria Commission Report
(C) Fulton Committee Report
(D) Kothari Committee Report
Ans : (C)

75. Reservation for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the services has been provided in the
Indian Constitution under—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 375
Ans : (B)

CLAT Legal GK and Constitution Questions

1. Since the commencement of the Indian Constitution on 26 January, 1950, how many persons have occupied the august office of the President of India?
1. 9
2. 10
3. 11
4. 12
2. Which of the following articles empowers the High Court to issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
1. Article 225
2. Article 226
3. Article 227
4. Article 228
3. The Government of India Act, 1935, envisaged the introduction of
1. dyarchical form of government
2. federal form of government
3. republican form of government
4. unitary form of government
4. Which of the following are Financial Committees of Parliament in India?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
1. 1 and 3
2. 1 and 2
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 2 and 3
5. Which of the following are the circumstances under which an elected member of Parliament may be disqualified on the ground of defection?
1. If he voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party
2. If he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party without prior permission of the political party
3. If he speaks against the political party
4. If he joins a political party other than the party on whose ticket he contested and got elected.
6. The Union Territory of Mizoram was formed out of the north-eastern territories of Assam in 1962. Full status of `State’ was conferred upon it in
1. 1980
2. 1982
3. 1985
4. 1987
7. The name of the laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands was changed to Lakshadweep by an Act of Parliament in
1. 1970
2. 1971
3. 1972
4. 1973
8. The full status of `State’ was conferred upon the Union Territories of Manipur and Tripura in
1. 1970
2. 1971
3. 1972
4. 1973
9. At the end of 1995, the Union of India composed of
1. 25 States and 8 Union Territories
2. 25 States and 7 Union Territories
3. 26 States and 7 Union Territories
4. 26 States and 8 Union Territories
10. Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing the President of India?
1. Elected members of the Legislative Council
2. Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each state
3. Elected members of the Lok Sabha
4. Elected members of the Rajya Sabha

CLAT General Knowledge Questions Sep 2011

1. Which of the following statements about the Union government’s stand on the use of pesticide Endosulphan is/are correct?
I. The pesticide is hazardous to human health and the ban on its use should continue
II. The pesticide is hazardous to human health only when it is sprayed aerially
III. The government has asked the Supreme Court to lift the ban on use of Endosulphan
a)    I only
b)    I and II only
c)     II only
d)    II and III only
e)     I, II and III
Answer 1:
Maintaining that Endosulfan is unlikely to cause any public health concern or hazard, the Centre on August 2, 2011 urged the Supreme Court to lift the ban imposed on its production and sale in May this year. In its response to a petition filed by the Democratic Youth Federation of India, the Centre said that long-term use of the pesticide was unlikely to present public health concern. The Centre made it clear that Endosulfan was not the reason behind health problems in Kasaragod in Kerala. The tragedy in Kasaragod was due to aerial spraying of Endosulfan. The Centre said: “Studies by the World Health Organisation in 2006 had given a clean chit to the pesticide.”

2. Which of the following will no longer be considered for Padma Awards according to decision announced by the government in August 2011?
a)    Foreigners
b)    Bureaucrats
c)     Sportspersons
d)    Businessmen
e)     All the above
Answer 2:
The government has decided not to confer Padma Awards on serving bureaucrats, Minister of State for Home Mullappally Ramachandran informed the Lok Sabha on August 2, 2011.

3. A government committee set up to review the functioning of the Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) submitted its report in August 2011. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. ICSSR is fully funded by the Union HRD Ministry
II. Sukhadeo Thorat is the Chairperson of ICSSR
III. The committee has called for increasing the allocation of funds for ICSSR
a)    I only
b)    I and II only
c)     II only
d)    II and III only
e)     I, II and III
Answer 3:
A government committee set up to review the functioning of the Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) has recommended some measure of financial autonomy and major changes in the governance pattern. The report says that social science research remains extremely under-funded in India, compared to research in science and technology. The committee was constituted by the Government in September 2010 to review the functioning of the Council (in the last five years) as well as the research institutes funded by ICSSR for promoting social science research. Funding for ICSSR is quite meagre when compared to funding received by the Council for Scientific and Industrial Research and Indian Council of Medical Research. “This clearly shows that compared to the natural and medical sciences, the research support to social sciences is extremely low” says the report unveiled on August 4, 2011.  The committee comprised Deepak Nayyar, Bakul Dholakia, and Kirit S. Parikh – all academics – with Krishnendu Ghosh Dastidar as member-secretary. The ICSSR was set up in 1969 as the apex body for social science research. It was envisaged to be a premier body for promoting social science research, funded by the Government, with the research agenda decided primarily by social scientists themselves. Sukhadeo Thorat was appointed ICSSR Chairperson for three years from April 1, 2011. The ICSSR is fully funded by the Human Resource Development Ministry.

4. Shahara Khatoon is Bangladesh counterpart of which Indian Minister?
a)    A. K. Antony
b)    Pranab Mukherjee
c)     P. Chidambaram
d)    S. M. Krishna
e)     Anand Sharma
Answer 4:
Bangladesh and India have signed an important border management agreement to reduce incidents of killings and crime along the common frontier. The border guards of the two countries would exchange information on vulnerable areas to ensure joint patrolling in a coordinated manner. The Coordinated Border Management Plan (CBMP) was signed in the presence of Home Minister P. Chidambaram and his Bangladesh counterpart Shahara Khatoon in Dhaka on July 30, 2011. The objective is to further enhance the quality of border management. The deal was signed by Maj. Gen. Anwar Hussain, Director General of Border Guard Bangladesh (BGB) and Raman Srivastava, Director General of the Border Security Force (BSF).

5. Chamal Rajapaksa came on an official visit to India in August 2011. He is the _______ of Sri Lanka.
a)    Defence Minister
b)    Trade & Commerce Minister
c)     Chief Justice of Supreme Court
d)    Foreign Minister
e)     Speaker of Parliament
Answer 5:
Lok Sabha Speaker Meira Kumar on August 1, 2011 expressed the hope that there would be comprehensive engagement between India and Sri Lanka to find an honourable solution to the problems of the Tamils in Sri Lanka. Interacting with a 10-member parliamentary delegation from Sri Lanka led by its Speaker Chamal Rajapaksa, Kumar referred to the expanding relationship between the two countries in various spheres, including in resettlement of internally displaced persons and urged for more people-to-people contact.

6. M. V. Rak Carrier, a cargo ship that sank off the Mumbai coast on August 4, 2011, was registered in which country?
a)    Panama
b)    Colombia
c)     Chile
d)    Suriname
e)     Venezuela
Answer 6:
A Panama-flagged cargo ship named M. V. Rak Carrier sank nearly 20 nautical miles off the Mumbai coast on August 4, 2011. All the 30 crew members were rescued by the Navy and the Coast Guard in a joint operation. The bulk carrier ship was on its way from Lubuk Tutung in Indonesia to Dahej in Gujarat to deliver more than 60,000 tonnes of coal.

7. Which of the following pairs of recent books on terrorism and their authors is/are correctly matched?
I. Deadly Embrace: Pakistan, America and the Future of Global Jihad – Bruce Riedel
II. Radical, Religious, and Violent: The New Economics of Terrorism – Eli Berman
III. The Convert: A Tale of Exile and Extremism – Deborah Baker
a)    I only
b)    I and II only
c)     II only
d)    II and III only
e)     I, II and III

8. Which of the following statements about land owned by the Defence Ministry is/are correct?
I. Defence forces own more than 27 lakh acres of land
II. Approx. 12,300 acres of defence land is under encroachment across the country
III. Among states, Uttar Pradesh has the largest acreage of defence land under encroachment
a)    I only
b)    I and II only
c)     II only
d)    II and III only
e)     I, II and III
Answer 8:
“A total of 12,326 acres of defence land is under encroachment...862 cases pertaining to encroachment are pending in different courts,” Defence Minister AK Antony said on August 1, 2011 in reply to a Lok Sabha query. With more than 17 lakh acres land under them, the defence forces are one of the largest owners of land in the country. As per the state-wise data, 3,080 acres land is under encroachment in Uttar Pradesh followed by 1,491 acres in Madhya Pradesh. The Defence Minister said the Directorate General of Defence Estates (DGDE) has initiated a programme for computerisation of defence land registration.

9. Which of the following statements about steps being taken by the Army to meet shortage of officers is/are correct?
I. Re-employment of retired officers
II. Higher tenure for Short Service Commission (SSC) officers
III. Faster promotions for SSC officers
a)    I only
b)    I and II only
c)     II only
d)    II and III only
e)     I, II and III
Answer 9:
The government has allowed a limited re-employment of retired Brigadiers has been allowed in staff and other positions to meet shortage of officers in the armed forces. “The government has allowed re-employment of retired Brigadiers against some staff, instructional and other positions. The number of re-employed retired Brigadiers is limited to a maximum 10 per cent of the authorised strength of re-employed officers,” Defence Minister A. K. Antony informed Rajya Sabha on August 3, 2011 in reply to a question on shortage of officers in armed forces. The minister said the government is taking steps to meet the shortage of 11,137 officers in the Army. All officers including those in Short Service Commission (SSC) are now eligible to hold substantive rank of Captain, Major and Lieutenant Colonel after two, six and 13 years of reckonable service respectively. The tenure of SSC officers has been increased from 10 to 14 years and a total number of 750 posts of Lt Colonel have been upgraded to Colonel-level.

10. August 1, 2011 marked the 150th anniversary of the launch of the first train service of _________.
a)    Southern Railway
b)    Central Railway
c)     Eastern Railway
d)    Western Railway
e)     Northern Railway
Answer 10:
The romance of the rail journey has been brought out in a compendium launched to mark the sesquicentenary of Southern Railway. The compendium, unveiled on August 1, 2011, marks the 150th anniversary of the maiden run of Southern Railway’s first train service from “Negapatam’ (Nagapattinam) to Tanjore. Published by the Railway Heritage Centre in Tiruchi, the “Marvels of The South Indian Railway” was conceptualised by S. Subramhanyan, DRM, Tiruchi Division, Southern Railway.

Tuesday, 25 October 2011

L.I.C. Apprentice Development Officers Recruitment Exam., 2010



  General Knowledge & Current Affairs

                             (Held on 13-6-2010)

1. Which of the following types of companies / organizations issue ‘ULIP’?
(A) Insurance companies
(B) Banks
(C) NABARD
(D) RBI
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

2. Insurance business in India is regulated by which of the following authorities ?
(A) NFCG
(B) IRDA
(C) CII
(D) FICCI
(E) All of these
Ans : (B)

3. Which amongst the following is NOT an insurance company functioning in India ?
(A) ICICI Prudential
(B) ING Vysya
(C) ICICI Lombard
(D) New India Assurance Company
(E) National Securities Depository Ltd.
Ans : (E)

4. Which of the following is the only Public Sector Company in the field of life insurance?
(A) General Insurance Company
(B) New India Assurance Company
(C) Oriental Insurance Company
(D) Sahara Life Insurance
(E) Life Insurance Corporation of India
Ans : (E)


5. As per the news in various financial newspapers, Larson & Toubro (L & T) is planning to enter the insurance business in India. Otherwise, what is the major business of L & T, which it is known for ?
(A) Newspaper Publications
(B) Media Entertainment
(C) Car & Automobile Production
(D) Textiles
(E) Heavy Engineering & Construction
Ans : (E)

6. “A contract that pledges payment on an agreed upon amount to the person (or his/her nominee) on the happening of an event covered against” is technically known as—
(A) Death coverage
(B) Life Insurance
(C) Savings for future
(D) Provident Fund
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. As per the news published in various news papers, Life Insurance policies may become paperless in the near future. This means—
(A) LIC will not insure any person hereafter as it has already reached its peak
(B) LIC will not ask for any documents from a person who wishes to purchase an insurance policy
(C) All policy related documents and policy certificates will henceforth be available in electronic form and not in their present physical form
(D) LIC henceforth will not entertain any claim or complaint in written form or on paper. Things should be in electronic mode only
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. In Insurance policies, we always find a date which is “Date of Maturity”. What does it mean ?
(A) This is the date on which the policy was sold to the customer/person insured
(B) This is the date on which the policy holder will have to submit his/her claim seeking the amount of the policy. Otherwise the company will not make any payment to him/her
(C) This is the date on which the contract between the person and insurance company will come to an end
(D) The date on which the insurance company makes the final payment to the insured person which is normally fifteen days after the “Payment due date”
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

9. As we know, the Govt. is paying much attention to “Micro Finance” these days. Which of the following is one of the examples of Micro Finance ?
(A) Insurance for life
(B) Investment in Mutual Funds
(C) Self Help Groups
(D) Letter of Credit
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)

10. Which of the following insurance plans is NOT launched by the LIC ?
(A) Jeevan Chhaya
(B) Life Mahalife Gold Plan
(C) Child Career Plan
(D) Child Future Plan
(E) Jeevan Saral
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following is/are the highlights of the Union Budget for 2010-11 ?
1. Rs. 3000 crores allotted for agriculture sector.
2. Fertilizer Subsidy to be reduced.
3. Hope to implement Direct Tax code from April 2011.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

12. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “The White Tiger” ?
(A) Arundhati Roy
(B) V.S. Naipaul
(C) Kiran Desai
(D) Vikram Seth
(E) Aravind Adiga
Ans : (E)

13. Who amongst the following is the Man Booker Prize winner of 2009 for his/her life-time achievement ?
(A) Alice Munro
(B) Chetan Bhagat
(C) Shobha De
(D) Graham Swift
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

14. Which of the following is the best description of what insurance is ?
(Many times companies also communicate the same to the person interested in getting an
insurance policy)—
(A) Insurance = Collective bearing of risk
(B) Insurance = Paying for other’s mistake
(C) Insurance = Taking from ‘A’ to pay ‘B’
(D) Insurance = Paying for something which will never happen
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)

15. Who amongst the following won OSCAR Award for his/her contribution in a film in 2009 and also two Grammy Awards in 2010—
for his/her achievements in the field ?
(A) Aamir Khan
(B) Rituparno Ghosh
(C) Deepa Mehta
(D) Mani Ratnam
(E) A. R. Rahman
Ans : (E)

16. As per the announcements made in the Union Budget for 2010-11,
public sector banks will get around Rs. 16,500 crores from the Govt. of India. For what purpose are banks getting this amount ?
(A) To strengthen their capital base
(B) To provide retirement benefits to their employees
(C) To give the public sector banks an image make over
(D) All A, B & C given above
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

17. Who amongst the following Indian Players was one of the members of the team which won the Australian Open Lawn Tennis Tournament -2010 ?
(A) Leander Paes
(B) Mahesh Bhupati
(C) Sania Mirza
(D) Sunitha Rao
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

18. Which of the following organizations/agencies frame the Monetary and Credit Policy which is followed by all banks in India?
(A) Indian Bank’s Association
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) Securities & Exchange Board of India
(D) Govt. of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

19. Which of the following terms is used in the game of Cricket ?
(A) Penalty Stroke
(B) Knock out
(C) Bully
(D) Checkmate
(E) Silly point
Ans : (E)

20. Which of the following countries was the host of the SAARC Summit 2010 ?
(A) Bangladesh
(B) Nepal
(C) India
(D) Bhutan
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

21. Who amongst the following is not a winner of the “Padmashri Award” given away in 2010 ?
(A) Ulhas Kashalkar
(B) Saif Ali Khan
(C) Rekha
(D) Lalit Modi
(E) Raghunath Panigrahi
Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following terms is NOT used in the world of finance, banking and insurance ?
(A) Devaluation
(B) Amnesty
(C) Hard Currency
(D) Preference share
(E) Sinking fund
Ans : (B)

23. Who amongst the following is NOT amongst the winners of the 56th National Film Awards?
(A) Shreya Ghosal
(B) Priyanka Chopra
(C) Hariharan
(D) Shilpa Shetty
(E) Arjun Rampal
Ans : (D)

24. The Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for 2009 was given to the—
(A) President of Nepal
(B) Prime Minister of Nepal
(C) President of Afghanistan
(D) Prime Minister of Bangladesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

25. Which of the following awards is given for excellence in the field of Sports ?
(A) Gnanpith Award
(B) Bharat Ratna
(C) Arjuna Award
(D) Kalidas Samman
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

L.I.C. Apprentice Development Officers Recruitment Exam., 2010


English Language 
(Held on 13-6-2010) 


Directions—(Q. 1 to 5) In each of the following sentences four words or phrases have been Bold printed. One bold printed part in each sentence is not acceptable in standard English. Pick up that part and mark its letter.

1. Being that (A) my car is getting its (B) annual check up. I will not (C) be able to pick you (D) up tomorrow morning.
Ans : (A)

2. We can’t hardly (A) believe that the situation is so serious as to (B) justify (C) such precautions as you have taken. (D)
Ans : (A)

3. No one except (A) he (B) knew which (C) questions were going (D) to be asked in this test.
Ans : (B)

4. Despite of (A) the pills which (B) are available, many people still (C) have trouble sleeping. (D)
Ans : (A)

5. He is not the kind of (A) a person (B) who takes (C) such a treatment (D) lying down.
Ans : (C)


Directions—(Q. 6 to 8) Fill in the blanks with appropriate words—

6. There is no culture in the world ………… absolutely pure.
(A) that which is
(B) that which
(C) that is
(D) that what is
Ans : (C)

7. He took up the letter from the table and ………… it to his friend.
(A) was reading
(B) has been reading
(C) had read
(D) read
Ans : (D)

8. He led me ………… the green laws to the palatial building.
(A) upon
(B) across
(C) along
(D) about
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 9 to 11) In the following questions choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the given word—

9. MOTIVE
(A) Sorrow
(B) Design
(C) Desire
(D) Hunger
Ans : (B)

10. DILEMMA
(A) Fear
(B) Price
(C) Condition
(D) Fix
Ans : (D)

11. COARSE
(A) Dull
(B) Broad
(C) Rough
(D) Modest
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 12 to 14) In the following questions, fill in the blanks with the appropriate phrase—

12. His boss………… an explanation of his conduct with his colleagues.
(A) called up
(B) called upon
(C) called for
(D) called off
Ans : (C)

13. He ………… his departure for a week as his mother was not well.
(A) put off
(B) put up
(C) put out
(D) put aside
Ans : (A)

14. His friends ………… to him for guidance in financial matters.
(A) look on
(B) look up
(C) look at
(D) look down
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 15 to 17) In the following questions choose the alternative which is opposite in meaning to the given word—

15. MENIAL(A) Feminine
(B) Physical
(C) Dignified
(D) Artificial
Ans : (C)

16. PARDON
(A) Separate
(B) Blame
(C) Pursue
(D) Commit
Ans : (B)

17. HESITATE
(A) Dishearten
(B) Reprove
(C) Decide
(D) Stumble
Ans : (C)

18. Which of the following makes the correct use of verb ?
(A) It is who have done it
(B) It is they who is coming tomorrow
(C) He and I am leaving for Calcutta
(D) If he would have come, I would have helped him
Ans : (A)

19. Which of the following makes the correct use of article ?
(A) I have studied at an University
(B) Kalidas is the Shakespeare of India
(C) I have bought a Umbrella
(D) This is best which I have seen
Ans : (B)

20. Which of the following makes the correct use of article ?
(A) A little water in the glass has been drink by the child
(B) A book which was on the table has been stolen
(C) The little knowledge is the dangerous thing
(D) An apple a day keeps the doctor away
Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following makes the correct use of Preposition ?
(A) This is in conformity with the rules laid down by the Corporation
(B) The book is at the table
(C) The train is arriving on the platform
(D) Don’t look down at me
Ans : (A)

22. He said to me. “Please give me the book.” Which of the following is the correct indirect narration of the sentence ?
(A) He said to me to kindly give him the book
(B) He asked me to please give him the book
(C) He requested me to give the book
(D) He requested me to please give him the book
Ans : (C)

23. No country is the world is as rich as America. Which of the following is the correct superlative form of this sentence ?
(A) America is richer than the richest country in the world
(B) America is richer than other countries in the world
(C) No country in the world is richer than America
(D) America is the richest country in the world
Ans : (D)

24. ‘Every cloud has a silver lining’ means—
(A) there is a good side to every difficult situation
(B) there is no hope in a difficult situation
(C) clouds and lightning’s are seen together in the sky
(D) adversity is better than prosperity
Ans : (A)

25. ‘As you sow, so shall you reap’ means—
(A) Reaping is better than sowing
(B) You get the bad result of your bad deed
(C) You get the good result of your good deed
(D) You got the result, good or bad, depending on the nature of your deed
Ans : (D)

Punjab and Sind Bank Clerk Exam., 2011


Computer Knowledge

(Held on 30-1-2011)

1. The software tools that enable a user to interact with a computer for specific purposes are known as—
(A) Hardware
(B) Networked Software
(C) Shareware
(D) Applications
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

2. A………shares hardware, software, and data among authorized users.
(A) network
(B) protocol
(C) hyperlink
(D) transmitter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

3. Computer programs are written in a high-level programming language; however, the humanreadable version of a program is called—
(A) cache
(B) instruction set
(C) source code
(D) word size
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


4. In word processing, an efficient way to move the 3rd paragraph to place it after the 5th paragraph is—
(A) copy and paste
(B) copy, cut and paste
(C) cut, copy and paste
(D) cut and paste
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

5. Which of the following is not a function of the control unit ?
(A) Read instructions
(B) Execute instructions
(C) Interpret instructions
(D) Direct operations
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. Software for organizing storage and retrieval of information is a(n)—
(A) operating system
(B) database
(C) database program
(D) data warehouse
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

7. A set of step-by-step procedures for accomplishing a task is known as a(n)—
(A) algorithm
(B) hardware program
(C) software bug
(D) firmware program
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. Which of the following is not true about RAM ?
(A) RAM is a temporary storage area
(B) RAM is the same as hard disk storage
(C) RAM is volatile
(D) Information stored in RAM is gone when you turn the computer off
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

9. The main directory of a disk is called the………directory.
(A) root
(B) sub
(C) folder
(D) network
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

10. The physical arrangement of elements on a page is referred to as a document’s……
(A) features
(B) format
(C) pagination
(D) grid
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

11. =SUM (B1 : B8) is an example of a—
(A) function
(B) formula
(C) cell address
(D) value
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

12. Which of the following storage media provides sequential access only ?
(A) Floppy disk
(B) Magnetic disk
(C) Magnetic tape
(D) Optical disk
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

13. Compilers and translators are one form of—
(A) ROM
(B) RAM
(C) Hard disk
(D) Software
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

14. Data representation is based on the………number system, which uses two numbers to represent all data.
(A) binary
(B) biometric
(C) bicentennial
(D) byte
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

15. The most common input devices include—
(A) Monitor and keyboard
(B) Monitor and mouse
(C) Mouse and keyboard
(D) Printer and mouse
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

16. www means—
(A) world wide wonder
(B) world wide wizard
(C) world wide web
(D) wide world web
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

17. ………processing is used when a large mail-order company accumulates orders and processes them together in one large set.
(A) Batch
(B) Online
(C) Real-time
(D) Group
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

18. What is the difference between a CD-ROM and a CD-RW ?
(A) They are the same—just two different terms used by different manufacturers
(B) A CD-ROM can be written to and a CD-RW cannot
(C) A CD-RW can be written to, but a CD-ROM can only be read from
(D) A CD-ROM holds more information than a CD-RW
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. Holding the mouse button down while moving an object or text is known as—
(A) Moving
(B) Dragging
(C) Dropping
(D) Highlighting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

20. A………is a collection of data that is stored electronically as a series of records in a table.
(A) spreadsheet
(B) presentation
(C) database
(D) web page
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

21. The………primarily take(s) care of the behind-the-scenes details and manage(s) the hardware.
(A) operating system
(B) application software
(C) peripheral devices
(D) hard disk
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

22. A……is a professionally designed ‘empty’ document that can be adapted to the user’s needs.
(A) file
(B) guide
(C) template
(D) user guide file
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

23. A group of 8 bits is known as a—
(A) Byte
(B) Kilobyte
(C) Binary digit
(D) Megabit
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

24. The hardware device commonly referred to as the ‘brain’ of the computer is the—
(A) RAM chip
(B) Data input
(C) CPU
(D) Secondary storage
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

25. What is the intersection of a column and a row on a worksheet called ?
(A) Column
(B) Value
(C) Address
(D) Cell
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

26. ………are often delivered to a PC through an e-mail attachment and are often designed to do harm.
(A) Viruses
(B) Spam
(C) Portals
(D) Email messages
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

27. What is the storage area for e-mail messages called ?
(A) A folder
(B) A directory
(C) A mailbox
(D) The hard disk
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

28. A desktop computer is also known as a—
(A) Palm Pilot
(B) PC
(C) Laptop
(D) Mainframe
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

29. When a file contains instructions that can be carried out by the computer, it is often called a(n) ……file.
(A) data
(B) information
(C) executable
(D) application
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

30. Documents converted to……can be published to the Web.
(A) a.doc file
(B) http
(C) machine language
(D) HTML
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

31. If a user needs information instantly available to the CPU, it should be stored—
(A) on a CD
(B) in secondary storage
(C) in the CPU
(D) in RAM
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

32. To what temporary area can you store text and other data, and later paste them to another location ?
(A) The clipboard
(B) ROM
(C) CD-ROM
(D) The hard disk
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

33. In a spreadsheet, a………is a number you will use in a calculation.
(A) label
(B) cell
(C) field
(D) value
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

34. After slide-directed time, if you want to move ahead automatically, click in……check box in transition of this slide group in tab of animations—
(A) Transition timer
(B) Automatically opter
(C) Transition opter
(D) Automatic timer
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

35. All are included in removable media except the following—
(A) CD-ROMs
(B) Diskette
(C) DVDs
(D) High disk drive
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

36. If you open some menu and then decide that you do not want to select some option, then click the menu title again or press the…… key to layout the menu.
(A) shift
(B) tab
(C) escape
(D) F1
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

37. Using the……process, it is easy to change the name of the file.
(A) transforming
(B) crash
(C) renaming
(D) retagging
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

38. ………view shows that how will content on printed page, alongwith footer and margin header, appear.
(A) Draft
(B) Full screen reading
(C) Outline
(D) Page layout
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

39. Using………, the text can be entered and edited very efficiently.
(A) spreadsheet
(B) typewriter
(C) word processing programme
(D) desktop publishing programme
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

40. Other folders, named subfolders, can remain in the folders while creating hierarchical structure—
(A) Mini folder
(B) Teard folder
(C) Subfolders
(D) Object
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

41. By using slide………, the characteristics of the fonts of all the slides in presentation, can be changed.
(A) theme
(B) icon
(C) master
(D) style
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

42. Though several programmers can be opened simultaneously yet only…………programmed can be active.
(A) four
(B) three
(C) two
(D) one
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

43. Straight and Uniform margins on both the sides indicate that there is …………in the document.
(A) full justification
(B) full alignment
(C) left justification
(D) right justification
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

44. Among the typical computer programming languages used today, the following is not included in—
(A) C++
(B) JAVA
(C)Visual Basic.NET
(D) Machine language
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

45. In table in excel, there are typical labels alongwith……
(A) Letters
(B) Numbers
(C) Names
(D) Formulae
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

46. ………….makes available the commands to righten the software. Instructions are translated step-by-step and executed by the processor so that some objective can be achieved or some problem can be solved.
(A) Software patch
(B) Al language
(C) Presentation language
(D) Programming language
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

47. As you create documents, graphs and pictures your computer holds the data in—
(A) Restore file
(B) Backup drive
(C) Clip board
(D) Memory
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

48. Which of the following terms is used for the form in which the word will appear on the page ?
(A) Text formatting
(B) Character formatting
(C) Point size
(D) Type face
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

49. ……….helps to capture the raw data and enter into the computer system.
(A) CPU
(B) Integrated circuit
(C) Input device
(D) Motherboard
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

50. The following are included in the world programme ………….Title Bar, Ribbon, Status Bar, Views, Document workspace.
(A) Window
(B) Browser
(C) Explorer
(D) Website
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

Bobby Jindal Re-elected as the Governor of Louisiana

Louisiana governor Bobby Jindal, won re-election on 22 October 2011.  He is a member of the Republican Party. Jindal won 66% of the vote with his nearest challenger, Tara Hollis of the Democratic party, got 18%. On 20 October, 2007, Jindal was elected governor of Louisiana for the first time.

Bobby Jindal is the first Indian-American to occupy the post of a governor.  His real name was Piyush Jindal. He started calling himself Bobby from an early age and converted from Hinduism to Catholicism as a teenager. He was born in Baton Rouge, the capital of the southern state of Louisiana, to Indian parents who had immigrated from the Punjab.  He is 37 years old.
Louisiana is a state located in the southern region of the United States of America. Its capital is Baton Rouge.

Earthquake Measuring 7.2 on the Richter Scale hit Turkey

An earthquake measuring 7.2 on the Richter scale killed many people in eastern Turkey on 23 October 2011. Approximately, 93 people died in Van province alone and 45 in the Ercis district.  The death toll is likely to increase. Serious damage and casualties were also reported in the district of Celebibag, near Ercis. The US Geological Survey initially measured the quake at 7.3 magnitude but later downgraded it to 7.2.

The earthquake struck at at a depth of 20 kilometres with its epicentre 16 kilometres north-east of Van in eastern Turkey. It was followed by a series of powerful aftershocks, also centred north of Van, including two of magnitude 5.6 soon after the quake and one of 6.0. Turkey is particularly vulnerable to earthquakes because it sits on major geological fault lines.

Friday, 21 October 2011

UPSC 2008 Civils Prelims Economics

1.

The shift in the SS curve to S’S’ is due to an imposition of a tax.
Which of the following areas in the diagram shows excess burden of the tax?
(a) ODIY
(b) SDA
(c) FGA
(d) CAD
Ans. (c)
2. Consider the following statements:
A. The number of firms is large both under perfect competition and monopolistic competition.
B. There is freedom of entry and exit in both perfect competition and monopolistic competition.
C. In both perfect competition and monopolistic competition, every firm is a price taker and quantity adjuster.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) A, B and C
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A and B
Ans. (d)
3. Match List I (Market Type) with List-II (Implication) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I                                                                     List-II
(Market Type)                                                        (Implication)
A. Perfect competition                                        1. Collusion of firms
B. Monopoly                                                       2. Excess capacity
C. Monopolistic competition                              3. Uniform price
D. Oligopoly                                                       4. Blocked entry
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans. (d)
4. In the Kinked Demand Curve Model, suppose MC curve shifts upward in the discontinuous range of MR curve.
Which one of the following is correct? At equilibrium,
(a) price rises but quantity remains the same
(b) price and quantity both remain the same
(c) quantify rises but price remains the same
(d) price and quantity both rise
Ans. (b)
5. Consider the following statements:
Short run profit is maximum under perfect competition when
A. second order condition is satisfied.
B. MC curve cuts MR curve from below.
C. MC curve cuts MR curve from above.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A and C
(b) A and B
(c) A only
(d) B only
Ans. (b)
6. Which of the following is not a necessary condition of perfect competition?
(a) Large number of firms in the industry producing homogeneous products
(b) Free entry and free exit of firms
(c) Need for incurring selling costs to attract consumers
(d) Absence of artificial restrictions by the government
Ans. (c)
7. Consider the following statements:
A. The shape of a unitary elastic demand curve is a rectangular hyperbola.
B. The shape of a perfectly elastic demand curve is a rectangular hyperbola.
C. Perfectly inelastic demand curve is parallel to the price axis.
D. Perfectly elastic demand curve is parallel to the quantity axis.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) A and B
(b) A, C and D
(c) B and C
(d) B and D
Ans (b)
8. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A straight line demand curve (cutting both the axis) is elastic
(a) throughout the length of the demand curve
(b) at the mid-point
(c) below the mid-point towards the demand axis
(d) above the mid-point towards the price axis
Ans. (d)
9. Under perfect competition, supply curve is identified as which one of the following?
(a) Rising portion of marginal cost curve
(b) Rising portion of average total cost curve
(c) Rising portion of average variable cost curve
(d) Portion of marginal cost above the average variable cost curve
Ans. (d)
10. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of magnitude of minima in ascending order in marginal cost (MC) curve, average cost (AC) curve and average variable cost (AVC) curve?
(a) MC, AVC, AC
(b) AVC, AC, MC
(c) MC, AC. AVC
(d) AC, MC, AVC
Ans. (a)
11. Consider the following statements:
A. The vertical distance from average cost (AC) curve to average variable cost (%&VC) curve is average fixed cost (AEC).
B. AVC curve, AC curve and marginal cost (MC) curve are ‘U shaped.
C. AFC curve is horizontal to ‘X’ axis.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
12. Short-run marginal cost of a firm does not contain any element of which of the following?
(a) Costs of raw materials
(b) Salaries of the managerial staff
(c) Wages of labour engaged on daily basis
(d) Cost of fuel for operating machines engaged in production.
Ans. (c)
13. Suppose a fisherman has a fishing net and a boat. He alone hunts fish in sea for which he has to pay no license fee etc. Fish, caught by him, will have which one of the following?
(a) Zero economic cost of production as he makes no out-of-pocket payment to anybody and is working of his own
(b) Negative economic cost of production because he enjoys fishing and has to make no payment
(c) Positive cost of production due to his sacrificing the opportunity of working elsewhere and renting out fishing net and boat etc
(d) Infinite cost of production
Ans. (a)
14. Income consumption line of the ‘Consumer Theory’ is analogous in ‘Production Theory’ to which one of the following?
(a) Expansion path
(b) Isoquant line
(c) Ridge line
(d) Isocost line
Ans. (a)
15. Which of the following is not correct in respect of Cobb-Douglas production function?
(a) It was originally based on the empirical study of US manufacturing industry.
(b) It is a linearly homogeneous production function, taking into account two factors, labour and capital, for the entire output of the manufacturing industry.
(c) It tells us that output depends upon labour and capital, and that part of output which cannot be explained by labour and capital, is attributed to the residual.
(d) It is based on the assumption of operation of law of diminishing returns.
Ans. (d)
16. Which one of the following statements is correct? If the elasticity of substitution between two factors X and Y be zero, then it implies that for a given change in outputs,
(a) X and Y will always change by the same proportion
(b)Y changes but X remains the same
(c) X changes but Y remains the same
(d) X and Y both change necessarily by different proportion
Ans. (a)
17. Consider the following statements:
According to the law of variable proportions; total product is maximum when
A. marginal product becomes zero.
B. marginal product curve cuts average product curve from above.
C. slope of marginal product curve is zero.
D. tangent of the total product curve is parallel to the horizontal axis.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) A and D
(b) C and D
(c) A and C
(d) B and C
Ans. (c)
18. Assertion (A): The monopolist never operates on the portion of the demand curve which is inelastic. Reason (R) When elasticity of demand is less than unity MR is negative.
Ans (a)
19. Assertion (A): The Revealed Preference Hypothesis excludes the study of Giffin Paradox
Reason (R) Revealed Preference Hypothesis considers only negative income elasticity of demand whereas Giffin Paradox  relates to positive elasticity of demand.
Ans. (c)
20. Assertion (A): Indifference curve for perfect substitute goods is a downward sloping straight line. Reason (R): For perfect substitute goods, MRS is falling.
Ans. (a)
21. Assertion (A): There is no excess capacity under monopolistic competition in the long run. Reason (R): The demand curve under monopolistic competition is downward sloping.
Ans. (d)
22. Assertion (A): M curve lies below the VMP curve under imperfect competition.
Reason (R): Under imperfect competition MR < P.
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following statements about Pareto Optimum are correct?
A. It changes with changes in the distribution of income.
B. At the Pareto Optimum, MRS in consumption = MRT in production.
C. It is not unique.
D. It is obtained under imperfect competition.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A and B
(b) A, B and C
(c) A, C and D
(d) B and C
Ans. (b)
24. Match List- I (Economist) with List -II (Concept) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List- I                                          List -II
(Economist)                                   (Concept)
A. Pareto                                 1. Compensation Principle
B. Hicks-Kaldor                      2. Social Welfare Function
C. Bergson                              3. Social Optimum
D. Scitovsky                           4. Double Criterion Compensation
Code:
A  B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (a)
25. Which one of the following statements is correct?
In a production process with two factors, land and labour, if the marginal productivity of land is negative, then it is in
(a) the stage I for land and stage II for labour
(b) the stage II for land and labour
(c) the stage I for land and stage III for labour
(d) the stage I for labour and stage III for land
Ans. (b)
26. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The Engel Curve for Giffen goods is
(a) positively sloped
(b) negatively sloped
(c) vertical
(d) horizontal
Ans. (b)
27. Which one of the following statements is correct? According to the classical economists, the existence of unemployment at any time is only of temporary nature and can be considered as
(a) structural unemployment
(b) cyclical unemployment
(c) frictional unemployment
(d) disguised unemployment
Ans. (c)
28. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Creeping inflation is a situation in which the rate at
which price level rises is:
(a) very high
(b) high
(c) moderately high
(d) slow
Ans. (d)
29. Which of the following groups are adversely affected by inflation?
A. Wage earners in the informal sector.
B. Profit earners.
C. Salary earners with salaries indexed to inflation
D. Pensioners with fixed pensions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A and B
(b) C and D
(c) A and D
(d) B and C
Ans. (a)
30. Which one of the following is a qualitative credit control method?
(a) Open market operations
(b) Bank-rate
(c) Variable cash reserve ratio
(d) Moral suasion
Ans. (d)
31. What kind of change is to be made in (i) Cash reserve ratio, and (ii) Bank rate, to control inflation?
(a) (i) should increase but (ii) should decrease
(b) (ii) should increase but (ii) should decrease
(c) Both should increase
(d) Both should decrease
Ans. (c)
32. Which one of the following pairs is called an open market operation?
(a) Selling and buying of securities or bills by the central bank
(b) Selling and buying of foreign exchange
(c) Selling and buying of shares by the foreign institutional investors
(d) Selling and buying of gold in the open market by commercial banks
Ans. (a)
33. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?
(a) Increase in the cash reserve ratio
(b) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
(c) Increase in the banking habit of the population
(d) Increase in the population of the country
Ans. (c)
34.

In the context of the figure above which of the following statements is/are correct?
A. Investment is autonomous.
B. Saving is autonomous.
C. Investment is dependent on income.
D Saving is dependent on income.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) B and C
(b) A and D
(c) B only
(d) A only
Ans. (b)
35. consider the following consumption saving functions:
A. C = 200+0.8Y
B. S = 200+0.2Y
C. C = 150+0.8Y
D. S = -150+0.2Y
Which of the above are consistent pairs of functions?
(a) A and B
(b) A and D
(c) B and C
(d) C and D
Ans. (d)
36. There are 2 assets A and B in which one can invest his savings of Rs. 1,000/. Assume that there is no risk and interest rate is 10%.
Asset A gives a return of Rs. 100/- in perpetuity
Asset B gives Rs. 200/. at the end of year 1 and Rs. 900/- at-the end of the year 2.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Present value of A and B are the same.
(b) Present value of B is higher than that of A.
(c) Present value of A is higher than that of B.
(d) Information is inadequate to determine the present value of A and B
Ans. (c)
37. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Value of output and value-added can be distinguished if we know
(a) the value of intermediate inputs
(b) the value of net indirect taxes
(c) the value of imports
(d) the value of consumption of fixed capital
Ans. (a)
38. Given:
% Change in nominal GNP = 1.8
% change in population = 0.5
% change in price level = 1.3
What is the approximate percentage change in real per -capita GNP?
(a) Zero
(b) 0.5
(c) 1.0
(d) 1.3
Ans. (a)
39. Match List- I (Concept) with List -II (Economist) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I                                                          List II
(Concept)                                                 (Economist)
A. Liquidity trap                                      1. M. Friedman
B. Demonstration effect                           2. A.C. Pigou
C. Permanent income hypothesis             3. J. Duesenberry
D. Wealth effect                                       4. J.M. Keynes
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (a)
40. Which one of the following statements is correct?
To derive disposable income from national income, one has to
(a) deduct income taxes and add transfer payments.
(b) deduct income taxes and deduct transfer payments
(c) add income taxes and add transfer payments
(d) add income taxes and deduct transfer payments
Ans. (a)
41. Approach paper to 11th five plan, issued by the Planning Commission refers to the merger of which one of the following pairs of government programmes?
(a) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan with Mid-day Meal Programme
(b) Jawahar Rojgar Yojana with Mid-day Meal Programme
(c) Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan with National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme
(d) Shram Shakti Yojana with Jawahar Rojgar Yojana
Ans. (a)
42. Which one of the following statements is correct? J.M. Keynes assumed that supply of money as a function of rate of interest is
(a) perfect elastic
(b) highly elastic
(c) unitary elastic
(d) perfectly inelastic
Ans. (a)
43. Who developed the Time Preference Theory of interest?
(a) Irving Fisher
(b) N. Senior
(c) J.R. Hicks
(d) J.M. Keynes
Ans. (a)
44.

In the graph given above, what does the point B indicate?
(a) Excess supply in the goods market and excess demand in the money market
(b) Excess demand in the goods market and excess supply in the money market
(c) Excess supply in both goods and money market
(d) Excess demand in both goods and money market
Ans. (b)
45. Which one of the following is the most important determinant of speculative demand for money?
(a) Income
(b) Interest rate
(c) Profits
(d) Prices
Ans. (b)
46. Which one of the following equations was used by Fischer to exp the Quantity Theory of Money ?
(Symbols have their usual meanings)
(a) MV= PT
(b) MP = VT
(c) MP = PT
(d) PV = MT
Ans. (a)
47. If Y is the total money income of the community M is the money supply and P is the price level, than how is Vy (The income velocity of money) defined as?
(a) Vy = M/Y
(b) Vy = Y/M
(c) Vy = Y/ (MP)
(d) Vy = PY/M
Ans. (d)
48. When shall an increase in money supply have a small effect on nominal Gross Domestic Product?
(a) If the velocity is decreasing
(b) If the velocity is unchanged
(c) If the velocity is increasing
(d) If the Government spending is also increasing
Ans. (d)
49. There are a number of banks in a market. The initial total primary deposit is Rs. 1,000. Every bank is required to maintain a 10% reserve legally The transactions are completely made through cheque and no transaction is made in cash. W1{at will be the total credit creation in the market?
(a) Rs. 1,000
(b) Rs 5,000
(c) Rs. 10,000
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
50. Which one of the following is a source of non-tax revenue for governments?
(a) Import duty on cars
(b) Octroi at cheek points on roads.
(c) Entrance fee to museums,
(d) Excise duty or beverages
Ans. (c)