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Monday, 30 January 2012
Sunday, 29 January 2012
APGENCO Trainee Assistant Engineer- Electrical Solved Paper
1. Transfer Function of a System in 1/(s+1)(s+2) the impulse response of the System is
A) e-2t – e-t B) e-2t + e-t C) e-t + e-2t D) e-t – e-2t
2. In a thermal power plant,ash is Collected in
A) Mills B) hoppers C) Bunkers D) Boiler
3. The average life of neutrons after they decay is
A) 1 sec B) 10 sec C) 100 sec D) 1000 sec
4. The Operating time of instantaneous relay is
A) 0.001 sec B) 0.01 sec C) 0.1 sec D) 1 sec
6. Stringing chart is useful for
A) the design of tower B) the design of insulator String C) finding the Sag in the Conductor D) finding the distance between the towers
7. The Self GMD method is used to evaluate
A) inductance B) capacitance C) inductance and capacitance D) resistance
8. The velocity of travelling Wave through a cable of relative permitivity 36 is
A) 3 x 108 m/sec A) 2 x 108 m/sec A) 0.5 x 108 m/sec A) 108 m/sec
9. The Coefficient of reflection for current wave is
A) 1 B) 2 C) -1 D) 0
10. A relay has a rating of 5A, 2.2 sec IDMT and relay setting of 125% TMS =0.6. It is connected to a supply circuit through a C.T. 400/5 ratio. The Fault Current is 4000 A. The operating current of the relay is
A) 6.25 A B) 5A C) 8A D) 2.2 A
12. A single Phase transformer has resistance and reactance of 0.2 pu and 0.6 pu respectively. Its pu voltage regulation at 0.8 pf lagging would be
A) 0.52 B) 0.42 C) 0.62 D) 0.36
14. A Differential amplifier has a differential gain of 20,000, CMRR : 80 dB. The common mode gain is given by
A) 1 B) 1/2 C) 2 D) 250
15. An amplifier has input power of 2 microwatts. The Power gain of the amplifier is 60 dB. The Output power will be
A) 2 milliwatts B) 6 microwatts C) 2 Watts D) 120 microwatts
16. The voltage gains of the amplifier with and without feedback are 20 and 100 respectively. The percentage of negative feedback would be
A) 40% B) 80% C) 4% D) 8%
17. For OPAMP in differential configuration, open loop gain is 100000, and differential input voltage is 2 μ V. Power supply for OPAMP is ± 12 V. Then Output voltage will be
A) + 12 V B) -12 V C) 0 V D) 2 μ V
18. A 3-stage ripple counter has Flipflop with propagation delay of 25 nsec and pulse width of strobe input 10 nsec. Then the maximum operating frequency at which counter operates reliably is
A) 16.67 MHz B) 17.6 MHz C) 12.67 MHz D) 11.76 MHz
19. The percent resolution of an 8-bit D/A converter is
A) 0.392 B) 1/256 C) 1/255 D) (A) and (B) both
20. The Diode used in a clipping circuit has Rf = 25Ω and Rr = 1 MΩ. The External resistor R is
A) 50 KΩ B) 5KΩ C) 1/25 MΩ D) 25 MΩ
21. Which circuit is used as amplitude comparator?
A) Bistable B) Monostable C) Astable D) Schmitt Trigger
23. An example of a bounded signal is
A) e-4t B) e2t C) t D) et sint
25. A Transfer function has a Second order denominator and constant gain in the numerator
A) the System has two zeros at the origin B) the system has two finite zeros C) the System has two zeros at infinity D) the System has one zero at infinity
26. A system is linear if and only if it satisfies
A) principle of Superposition B) principle of Homogeneity C) both (A) and (B) above D) neither (A) and (B) above
29. A 200 V dc shunt motor is running at 1000 rpm and drawing a current of 10 A. Its armature winding resistance is 2Ω. It is braked by plugging. The resistance to be connected in series with armature to restrict armature current to 10A, is
A) 32 Ω B) 36 Ω C) 38 Ω D) 40 Ω
30. A transformer has maximum efficiency at 3/4 th of full load. The ratio of its iron loss (pi) and full load copper loss (Pc), is
A) 4/3 B) 16/9 C) 9/16 D) 3/4
33. A single phase fully controlled rectifier has an average output voltage of 200 V when alpha=0 . Its output voltage when alpha = 30o is approximately
A) 200 V B) 160 V C) 173 V D) 183 V
34. A 200 V dc-dc converter is turned ON for 30 μ sec and turned off for 10 μ sec. The output voltage will be
A) 200 V B) 150 V C) 175 V D) 120 V
35. In Single Pulse Modulation used in PWM Inverters, for eliminating third harmonic component in the output voltage , the pulse width should be
A) 600 B) 900 C) 1100 D) 1200
36. The Dynamic resistance of a p-n junction germanium diode at room temperature with current of 1 mA under forward biasing is
A) 100 Ω B) 13 mΩ C) 13 Ω D) 26 Ω
37. Thermal runway is not possible in FET because as temperature of FET increases
A) mobility increases B) mobility Decreases C) drain current decrease D) transconductance increases
38. The initial value of f(t), with transform F(s) = s+1/ (s+2)(s+3) is
A) 0 B) 1 C) ∞ D) 1/6
39. The two-port parameter h21 is called
A) open-circuit output admittance B) short-circuit input impedance C) open-circuit reverse voltage gain D) short-circuit forward current gain
41 . The impedance of a two-element series circuit is represented by (20-j10) Ω at a certain frequency. If the frequency is doubled, the new value of impedance is
A) (20-j5) Ω B) (40-j20) Ω C) (10-j10) Ω D) (20-j20) Ω
42. A unity feedback control system has forward-path transfer function G(s) = K/s(s+2) . If the design specification is that the steady-state error due to a unit ramp input is 0.05,the value of K allowed is
A) 20 B) 40 C) 10 D) 80
43. The transfer function of a system has the form G(s) = 200 (s+2)/s(s2+10s+100) . At very high frequencies the Bode gain curve has a slope of
A) -6 dB/octave B) -12 dB/octave C) 6 dB/octave D) 12 dB/octave
44. A Unity feed-back system has open-loop transfer function GH (s) = K/ s(s+4)(s+6) , It’s root locus plot intersects the jw axis at
A) ± j 2 B) ± j 4 C) ± j 8 D) does not intersect the jw axis
45. Auto reclosing used in case of
A) Lightning arrester B) bulk oil C.B C) air blast C.B D) minimum oil C.B
46. A transmission line has 1 P.U impedance on a base of 11 KV,100 MVA. on a base of 55KV, it will have a P.U impedance of
A) 1 P.U B) 0.2 P.U C) 0.02 P.U D) 0.1 P.U
47. A 50 Hz, 4 pole turboalternator rated at 20 MVA, 13.2 KV has an inertia constant H = 4 KW sec/KVA. The K.E Stored in the rotor at Synchronous speed is
A) 80 KJ B) 80 MJ C) 40 MJ D) 20 MJ
48. The inertia constants of two groups of machines which do not swing together are M1 and M2. The equivalent inertia constant is
A) M1 + M2 B) M1 – M2 if M1 > M2 C) √M1M2 D) M1 M2 / (M1 + M2)
50. A 36-slot, 4-pole, dc machine has a simplex lap winding with two conductors per slot. The back pitch and front pitch adopted could be respectively
A) 15,13 B) 19,17 C) 21,19 D) 23,21
53. Two Synchronous generators G1, G2 are operating in parallel and are equally sharing KVAR (lag) component of load. To shift part of KVAR from G2 to G1, while keeping terminal voltage fixed, the following action must be done
A) Raise If1 and lower If2 B) Lower If1 and raise If2 C) Lower If1 or raise If2 D) Raise If1 or lower If2
APTITUDE SECTION 30 Questions :
71. H1(x) = 1-x ,0
= 1, x ≥ 1
= 0, otherwise
H2(x) = -H1(x) for all x
H3(x) = H2(-x) for all x
H4(x) = -H3(x) for all x
How many of the following products are necessarily zero for every value of “x”?
H1(x) * H3(x) ; H3(x) * H2(x) ; H1(x) * H2(x)
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
73. The length of the bridge, which a train 130 m long and traveling at 45 km/hr can cross in 30 sec is
A) 200 m B) 225 m C) 245 m D) 250 m
74. If “PAPER” is 11.20, “PENCIL” is 9.83, what will be the PEN ?
A) 12.80 B) 11.60 C) 1.66 D) 13.8
75. What is the sum of all numbers less than 100 that can be written as the sum of 9 consecutive positive integers?
A) 612 B) 630 C) 702 D) 504
78. X introduces Y saying: “He is the husband of the grand daughter of the father of myfather”. How is Y related to X ?
A) brother B) uncle C) co-brother D) brother-in-law
79. Ravi is 7 ranks ahead of Sumit in a class of 39. If Sumit’s rank is 17th from the last. What is Ravi’s rank from the start ?
A) 11 B) 15 C) 13 D) 9
80. In a certain code, ‘bi nie pie’ means “some good jokes”;; ‘nie bat lik’ means “some real stories”;; ‘pie lik tol’ means “many good stories”. Which word in the code means ‘jokes’ ?
A) nie B) pie C) lik D) bi
81. There are five bus stops. A,B,C,D,E at equal intervals. C is not the middle stop and A,E are not terminal stops. C comes twice as many stops before D in upward jpurney as B comes after A. D is the first stop in downward journey. The correct sequence of stops in the downward journey is
A) ABDCE B) CDAEB C) DACEB D) DEBAC
82. Five persons namely Yasin,Arafat,Rasheed,Ali and Rehman are to be seated in five out of the six seats numbered 1 to 6. The following table provides information about the serial numbers of the seats on which each of the mentioned friends can possibly sit.
| Names | Yasir | Arafat | Rasheed | Ali | Rehman |
| Seat No. | 1 | 2 or 3 | 2,3 or 4 | 4 or 5 | 5 or 6 |
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
83. If (ABCD)a = D*a^0 + C*a^1 + B*a^2 + A*a^3
(8448)9/(2112)9=(y)3 then y is
A) 011 B ) 101 C) 110 D) 111
84. Two straight lines can divide a circular disk into a maximum of 4 parts. Likewise, into How many maximum parts can four straight lines divide a circular disk?
A) 11 B) 21 C) 31 D) 41
85. When the numerator of a fraction is increased by 7 and denominator is increased by 13, the resulting number is equivalent to the obrained when numerator decreased by 2 and denominator decreased by 11. The sum of the numerator and denominator is 24. Find the fraction
A) 1/23 B) 7/17 C) 11/13 D) 5/19
86. A test contains 50 questions. Each correct answer fetches 1 mark and wrong answer gets 1/2 mark is deducted. A candidate who wrote the test attempted all the questions and scored 41 marks. Find the number of questions he answered correctly?
A) 46 B) 42 C) 44 D) 48
87. ABC is a three digit number. The sum of its digits is 9. If each of BA and BC are two digit numbers such that BA=BC-3. How many values C can take ?
A) 16 B) 6 C) 26 D) 36
88. The sum of three digit number and numbers formed by reversing its digits is 989. The sum of its digits is 13. Find the middle digit
A) 9 B) 6 C) 4 D) 2
89. An observer 1.6 m tall is 20√3 away from a tower .The angle of elevation from his eye to the top of the tower is 300. The height of the tower is
A) 21.6 m B) 23.2 m C) 24.72 m D) 21.4 m
90. Identify the odd one
A) heart B) liver C) nose D) kidneys
91. 18, 10, 6, 4, 3, ?
A) 8 B) 4 C) 3.5 D) 2.5
92. Which makes the best comparison ?
TOMATO : MTOOTA : : 123412 : ?
A) 312214 B) 123456 C) 321124 D) 213314
93. My brother is standing 40m South-West of my sister.I am standing 40m South-East of my brither. I am in which direction of my sister?
A) South B) West C) East D) North-East
94. Find the next letters in series : BCZ, DEY, FGK,HIW,_________
A) JKL B) JKV C) JKU D) JKT
95. Find related word ; Conscience : wrong :: Police : _________
A) thief B) law C) discipline D) crime
96. A shopkeeper sells one transistor for Rs.840 at a gain of 20% and another for Rs.960 at a loss of 4%. His total loss or gain percent is
A) 5 15/17 % loss B) 5 15/17 % gain C) 6 2/3 % gain D) 6 2/3 % loss
97. A boatman goes 2Km against the current of the stream in 1 hour and goes 1Km along the current in 10min. How long will it take to go 5Km in stationary water ?
A) 40 Minutes B) 1 hour C) 1 hr 15 min D) 1 hr 30 min
98. In how many ways can the letters of the word LEADER can be arranged ?
A) 72 B) 144 C) 360 D) 720
99. One pipe can fill a tank three times as fast as another pipe. If together, the two pipes can fill the tank in 36 minutes, then the slower pipe alone will be able to fill the tank in
A) 81 min B) 144 min C) 108 min D) 192 min
100. If log 27 = 1.431 , then the value of log 9 is
A) 0.934 B) 0.954 C) 0.945 D) 0.958
Tuesday, 24 January 2012
UPSC CIVIL SERVICES MAINS EXAM SOLVED PAPER 2011
General Studies Paper – II
(a) List the Central Asian Republics and identify those of particular strategic and economic importance to India. Examine the opportunities and bottlenecks in enhancing relations with these countries.
Answer:
Central Asian Republics include Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan, Although all of them are important for India from the perspective of trade, security, energy security, civilisational link, but the ones particularly important are Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan and Tajikistan.
Kazakhstan is one of the fastest growing economies of Central Asia and a politically stable nation. India has signed civil nuclear agreement with Kazakhstan and agreed to give India a foothold in the oil rich Caspian through Satapayev block. Central Asian republics are important to India for its energy security (vast reserves of oil, gas and radioactive material), a potential market for its growing trade, strategically vital to safeguard India’s interest in Central Asia, West Asia and Africa. TAPI gas pipeline agreement signed recently involving Turkmenistan promises to address some of India’s energy needs through supply of natural gas. Central Asian Republic are also potential markets for export of Indian pharmaceuticals, IT services, entertainment services etc.
These nation are also part of regional groupings like SCO which will play crucial role in regional stability and prosperity in Asia and hence in the world.
On the flip side of it, some of these nations are not politically stable, lack vibrant democracy, and are marred by ethnic clashes which make it difficult for the businesses to operate. Lack of infrastructure and land connectivity also places obstacles in the smooth business activity. The same product that would take more than a month to reach these nations from India can be obtained within a week from China, Turkey or Europe. Terrorism emanating from the Central Asian region like from Fergana valley is another area of concern and challenge for India.
(b) Critically examine the security and strategic implications of the so-called ‘string of pearls’ theory for India.
Answer:
String of pearls theory refers to China building deep water ports in the Indian Ocean like Gwadar (Pakistan), Hambantota (Sri Lanka), Sittwe(Mayanmar), Chittagong (Bangladesh) as a part of the strategy to encircle India. China denies this and claims that it is not directed against any nation. It is rather for securing its energy supplies and sea routes for its trade.
Several western analysts including some Indian Defence analyst think otherwise and claim that it is part of China’s strategy to contain India in the event of any future conflict. India is surrounded by sea from three sides and a naval dominance of China or any other nation in Indian Ocean is certainly a security concern for India. String of pearls makes China India’s maritime neighbour and give the opportunity to China to have a two front situation against India in case of a conflict.
Strategically China’s growing indulgence with India’s neighbours like Sri Lanka or Bangladesh through these ports gives China an extra lever to use against India. It can be used both as soft and a hard power to gain strategic depth inside India’s neighbourhood.
India’s rise on the world stage is guided mostly by its economic might in terms of its rising GDP and share in world trade which depends largely on the sea routes through which the trade is conducted. Any dominance on the sea routes can be used against India’s growth and thus requires India to take cognizance of the String of Pearls strategy by china.
(c) “Compared to the South Asian Trade Area (SAFTA), the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multisectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation Free Trade Area (BIMSTEC FTA) seems to be more promising.” Critically evaluate.
Answer:
BIMSTEC was initiated with the goal to combine the 'Look West' policy of Thailand and ASEAN with the 'Look East' policy of India and South Asia. So it could be explained that BIMSTEC is a link between ASEAN and SAARC. BIMSTEC provides a unique link between South Asia and Southeast Asia bringing together 1.3 billion people - 21 percent of the world population.
Compared to south Asian free trade area (SAFTA), the BIMSTEC FTA seems to be more promising. A deeper economic integration process within South Asian Association of Regional Cooperation (SAARC) sometime suffers because of political tension between India and Pakistan. Such things are less likely to happen in case of BIMSTEC. It is believed that negotiation under the BIMSTEC umbrella will be easier than under SAFTA because all the BIMSTEC members are purely guided by economic interests rather than by political interests. Many countries in SAFTA have less favorable geographical location in terms of being land locked and thus have adverse affect on trade as compared to BIMSTEC nations. BIMSTEC being a link between South Asia and South East Asia also opens up vast opportunities for trade as compared to SAFTA which is limited to mainly South Asia.
When compared in terms of their economic structure, namely, value addition of services, industry, and agriculture sector, to gross domestic product (GDP), BIMSTEC nations have many similarities. Except in case of Thailand, the industrial sector constitutes roughly a fourth of GDP in all countries. All these economies are predominantly associated with service related activities. Although majority of the population still lives in rural areas, all of these nations are becoming increasingly urbanised. Geographical proximity along with similar economic profile indicates complementarities in consumption, production, and trading pattern. All these factors make BIMSTEC FTA more promising.
2. Answer any three of the following in about 150 words each: 15×3=36
(a) Subsequent to the Nuclear Supplier Group (NSG) waiver in 2008, what are the agreements on nuclear energy that India has signed with different countries?
Answer:
Subsequent to NSG waiver India has signed Civil Nuclear Cooperation with nine nations and South Korea is the latest in the list. The NSG waiver ended nuclear apartheid of almost three decades for India where world declined to share any nuclear technology and resources with India even for non military purposes.
India has also incorporated enrichment and reprocessing agreements with several nations like Russia and France after the NSG waiver. Countries have guaranteed fuel supply to Indian nuclear reactors which were running much below their capacity due to lack of nuclear fuel.
India has also passed legislation on nuclear liabilities and is progressing towards ratifying Convention for Supplementary Convention which will bring India in line with the international regime and facilitate nuclear suppliers of other nations to do business with India.
(b) Trace the progress of India’s efforts for a joint counter-terrorism strategy with China. What are the likely implications of the recent Xinjiang violence on these efforts?
Answer:
India and China have completed two rounds of joint anti terrorism exercise in 2007 and 2008. Although the symbolic importance of these exercises is immense, both countries could explore cooperation in preventive measures particularly intelligence sharing; and hotline for critical situations to tackle the menace of terrorism. The two sides could consider maximizing their cooperation in the field of counter-terrorism and further consolidating strategic partnership between the two.
China’s Xinjiang problem is connected with the network of cross border and transnational terrorism. Xinjiang is a case in point of the ethno-religious separatist problem in the Xinjiang region.
Even after having such immense opportunities, India and China defense cooperation has been stalled due Chinese policy of stapled visa or denial of visa for Indian army officers from Jammu and Kashmir region and the state of Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Bring out the importance of the Small and Medium Enterprises Expo and Conference held in Dubai last year for Indian business.
Answer:
The 2010 SME Conference theme was Meet, discuss, start. Last year’s conference was designed to provide information and assistance to all sizes of small businesses, as well as to those from the government who work with them. The conference created opportunities for small business owners and entrepreneurs to network, build alliances, and learn about new products, services and trends. Relevant educational presentations provided participants with new strategies and tools that can be put into action.
The conference was important for Indian business because of following reasons
• Opportunities for SME
• Strategies to boost the business environment for SMEs
• Investments and financing SME growth
• Banking and financial service innovations for SMEs
• Technologies that can help SME growth
• Women Entrepreneur
Small and Medium Enterprises Expo and Conference, offered great platform to small units to promote their brands, products and services, as well as to explore business opportunities in the Middle East and North African markets.
Besides giving a major impetus to networking activities with other visiting countries such as Pakistan, Mauritius, Nigeria and Vietnam, the event offered Indian SMEs the opportunity to acquaint themselves with the latest technologies in their industries and form alliances with international clients. Indian SMEs from sectors such as plastic, petrochemicals, garments and textiles, and art and handicrafts, among others gained from the participation at the expo.
(d) What are the salient features of the political and economic relationship between India and South Africa?
Answer:
South Africa has emerged as an important ally for India in recent times. Apart from having civilisational links and India’s close support during the apartheid movement and Mahatma Gandhi’s proximity with the cause South Africa is also a symbol of India’s engagement with the African people and society.
India and South Africa are part of IBSA and BRICS. IBSA represents south-south alliance while BRICS is concerned more with the economic cooperation among the member states. India and South Africa have given coordinated response in G20 and WTO. South Africa is an important destination for investment by the Inidan Business Community and a joint CEOs forum has been set up between the two nations to deepen economic cooperation and raise the level of bilateral trade.
The two nations have demanded reforms of the international institutions, given coordinated responses in the climate change negotiations with the developed nations. They coordinated and put a joint stand on the issue of Syria which provided a third alternative or a middle path in dealing with such issues of international intervention. The two nations also have a shared understanding of Iran’s nuclear issue.
3. Answer either of the following in about 250 words: 20
(a) “The causes and implications of the Jasmine Revolution and its spread are as much economic in nature as they are political.” Critically evaluate.
Answer:
The region of West Asia and North Africa is in a state of flux and going through a turbulent phase. The ripples that started in Tunisia from Jasmine revolution has spread far and wide. Many regimes like in Egypt and Libya have fallen since then while some have been truly shaken like in Syria, Behrain and Yemen.
The region shares some common economic and political characteristics that have resulted in this. These regimes have been more or less dictatorial in nature, giving minimum or no political liberties to its citizens. The freedom of speech, expression and movement has been restricted in past with no credible democracy. Elections were often rigged and constitutions manipulated to suit the ruling elite. The growing reach of media and social networking sites on the other hand opened the window for their people to peep into the outside free world. This raised their expectations from their own rulers and also provided a platform to organise protests against the regimes. Underlying ethnic and sect tensions against the regimes have also added fuel to the fire.
Economic reasons like high rate of unemployment among youth as in case of Tunisia, and low per capita income have also resulted in these revolts. The rulers in these nations have indulged in lavish life style and amassed treasures while the fellow citizens were starving and struggling with poor education, health and public utilities system. None of these nations had any proper higher education system which could ensure respectable jobs to its youth. Many countries like Bahrain and Saudi Arabia have distributed cash and benefits among its citizens since the start of Jasmine revolution but that does not address the systemic reforms that the people these nations are demanding.
(b) In the context of the ‘Euro-zone’ debt crisis, examine the proposed ‘six-pack’ solution. Do you think that this has a better chance of success than the earlier stability and growth pact?
Answer:
The six pack solution has been proposed for Euro Zone debt crisis which threatens to drag the world economy along with it into yet another full blown crisis. It is a set of legislative measures that gives European Commission the ability to impose sanctions on the eurozone countries that fail to control their debt and deficit. The rules are designed to prevent any future debt crisis of the present nature and thus give more sanctioning power to European Commission.
The European parliament will have the right to call finance ministers from countries that have been warned to hearings, while the European semester provides for the annual assessment of national budgets. Falsified debt and deficit statistics can lead to a fine of 0.2 per cent of gross domestic product. And countries will be obliged to act pre-emptively to maintain the health of economies threatened by imbalances such as a housing-bubble.
The legislation would discourage member states from evading their responsibilities to each other to ensure the stability of the eurozone. The rules would provide for enhanced monitoring and surveillance of imbalances like unemployment, credit growth and housing bubble etc. This would also give right signals to the financial markets about the seriousness of the EU and its resolve to handle any future debt crisis.
4. Answer any four of the following in about 150 words each: 12×4=48
(a) “As regards the increasing rates of melting of Arctic Sea ice, the interests of the Arctic Council nations may not coincide with those of the wider world”. Explain.
Answer:
The climate change has increased the rate of melting of the Arctic Sea Ice. This has increased the access of earlier hidden oil and gas resources. Many Arctic countries like Russia, Denmark, Canada and Iceland have rushed to claim their sovereignty over these resources. They see the climate change as an opportunity to exploit these hidden resources. They also provide new opportunities for fishing and shipping.
Wider world on the other hand is concerned about the increasing rate of melting of Arctic Ice as this can threaten existence of some species, disturb the water and ocean cycle, adversely affect global average temperature, and can also lead to loosing climate history stored in these ice sheets. This is a ecologically sensitive area and highly unregulated thus causes concerns for the world at large.
(b) Is there still a role for the concept of balance of power in contemporary international politics? Discuss.
Answer:
The balance of power in the contemporary international politics can be used not only in terms of one super power balancing the other or regional balance of power but also the balance between hard and soft power. The disintegration of USSR tilted the balance of power in favour of America but economic rise of China has started to threaten the numero uno position of USA.
Several example of balance of power in international politics is seen. USA uses Israel as a tool to balance power in West Asia. NAM during the cold war era was used by developing countries to balance the relationship between two superpowers. The doctrine that neighbour’s neighbour is a friend is seen in several situations like China having all weather friendship with Pakistan to balance India. Chinese allege that USA is using its neighbours to contain the rise of China.
The growing economic prowess of emerging economies like India, China, Brazil and South Africa is being used in international forums like G20 or WTO to balance the developed nations. Thus the concept is very much alive even though it might have weakened a bit in the interconnected globalized world with supra national organisations like United Nations playing a key role in international politics.
(c) “Strategic interests seem to be replacing commercial interests for the host country with regard to Cam Ranh bay.” Amplify.
Answer:
Vietnam opened its Cam Ranh Bay after eight years of its closure. The bay is in the northeast of Ho Chi Minh City. It is one of the best deepwater shelters in Southeast Asia. Ships can stop here for refuelling or repair. It enjoys a geo strategic significance as it is located near to key shipping lanes in the South China Sea. China’s aggressive policy in the South China Sea also led to this decision by Vietnam.
The Bay has been strategically crucial for great powers like Russia, Japan, France and USA in the history. Vietnam had not opened it after Russian withdrawal in 2002 but the recent claims by China seems to have led Vietnam to take this step. Opening of the Bay for the navies of many nations will indirectly strengthen Vietnam’s claim and right in the South China Sea and weaken Chinese position.
(d) To what extent has the withdrawal of al-Shabab from Mogadishu given peace a real chance in Somalia? Assess.
Answer:
Al-Shabab has withdrawn from most parts of the capital of Somalia but its fighters still control some areas, including Deynile. The Islamist group withdrew after a government offensive to retake the city and clear the way for foreign aid destined for drought and famine victims. African Union troops has helped push back the rebels.
Al-Shabab once controlled nearly all of Mogadishu and still controls large swaths of central and southern Somalia. The group has tightly controlled the delivery of aid to famine victims in its territory, and has banned access for many international aid agencies. Thus its withdrawal provides real opportunity for peace but it also depends on how this opportunity is utilised by the Somalis government.
Al-Shabab on the other hand has claimed that the retreat was a strategic move and it will remain nearby and continue its effort to topple the United Nations-backed government.
(e) On a Formula-one (F-1) racing car track, information to drivers is generally signalled through the standardized use of flags of different colours. Describe the meaning associated with any six of the flags listed below:
(i) White Flag
Answer:
When the white flag is waved by the race marshals, it means the drivers should immediately slow down, as it indicates the presence of a safety car, ambulance or towing truck ahead, on the track. In this situation, overtaking is strictly prohibited.
(ii) Black Flag
Answer:
Once a race marshal waves the black flag and it attaches the race number to the car to it that means the driver is disqualified for the ongoing race. After seeing the black flag, a driver must enter the pits within the next lap and report immediately to the Clerk of the Course.
(iii) Yellow Flag
Answer:
Indicates danger ahead and overtaking is prohibited. A single waved yellow flag means slow down, a double waved yellow warns that the driver must be prepared to stop if necessary.
(iv) Blue Flag
Answer:
Shown to a driver to indicate that a faster car is behind him and trying to overtake. Shown both to lapped cars and those racing. A lapped car must allow the faster car past after seeing a maximum of three blue flags or risk being penalised.
(v) Black and White Flag divided diagonally
Answer:
Shown with car number to indicate a warning for unsportsmanlike behaviour. A black flag may follow if the driver takes no heed of the warning.
(vi) Chequered Flag
Answer:
This shows that the race has ended. Shown first to the winner, and then to every car to cross the line behind them.
(vii) Yellow and Red Striped Flag
Answer:
The track is slippery. This usually warns of oil or water on the track.
5. Comment on any thirteen of the following in about 50 words each: 5×13=65
(a) International Year of Chemistry
Answer:
The United Nations declared 2011 to be the International Year of Chemistry. The year 2011 marks the 100th anniversary of the founding of the International Association of Chemical Societies, as well as the year Madame Marie Curie won the Nobel Prize – which celebrates the contributions of women to science. The Year hopes to promote the appreciation of chemistry in meeting world needs and the future development of chemistry.
(b) The scourge of e-waste
Answer:
e-waste constitutes of used, obsolete, and end of life cycle electronics product which if disposed in an unscientific manner can lead to pollution of air, water and soil. Acid bath, land fill and burning are used for the disposal of e-waste leading to pollution through heavy metals (like cadmium, mercury, and nickel) poly vinyl chloride and poly chlorinated biphenyl. e-waste is from developed countries is being dumped to developing countries causing large scale health hazards.
(c) Designer poultry eggs
Answer:
Designer eggs are for beauty conscious consumers, as well as persons affected with diabetes and heart-disease. It will be bacteria-free, rich in protein and high on calorific value. The designer eggs are produced through a scientific method adopted for nurturing the layer with the right feed so that they lay high quality eggs. The composition of the feed leads to the desired composition of the eggs.
(d) INSPIRE programme of the Department of Science and Technology
Answer:
Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research (INSPIRE)" is an innovative programme sponsored and managed by the Department of Science & Technology for attraction of talent to Science. The basic objective of INSPIRE is to communicate to the youth of the country the excitements of creative pursuit of science, attract talent to the study of science at an early age and thus build the required critical human resource pool for strengthening and expanding the Science & Technology system and R&D base.
(e) The Kessler syndrome with reference to space debris
Answer:
The Kessler Syndrome is a future scenario when the amount of space junk reaches a high enough density that each collision will produce sufficient fragments that generate a slow cascade effect; producing more collisions and debris, eventually causing our species to become incapable of launching space craft. It was first proposed in 1978 by Donald J. Kessler when debris that accumulates in space is increasing faster than what debris falls out of orbit and burns up.
(f) Omega-3 fatty acids in our food
Answer:
Omega-3 fatty acids are polyunsaturated fats found naturally in oily fish, nuts, seeds, and leafy green vegetables. Omega-3 fatty acids are thought to protect against heart disease, inflammation, and certain types of cancer, diabetes, Alzheimer’s disease, and macular degeneration (a leading cause of vision loss). Omega-3 fatty acids are critical for proper brain development and neurological function in developing babies, too.
(g) Difference between ‘spin-drying’ and ‘tumble-drying’ technology with reference to drying of washed clothes
Answer:
Spin drying technology for drying washed clothes saves time as the high speed and RPM (revolutions per minute) allows the clothes to get rid of water quickly due to centrifugal force. Tumble drying technology on the other hand works mainly on the heated air being passed through the clothes to dry them up. Heat and not spinning speed is used to dry the clothes through this technology.
(h) The admonishing population of vultures
Answer:
The vulture population has been declining which was a cause of concern. Use of diclofenac with the cattle population is partly responsible for this decline. Bombay Natural History Society has taken up conservation and awareness efforts which have positively impacted the vulture population. Vulture breeding centres are set up in Pinjore(Haryana), Rani forest (Assam) to arrest the declining population. The slender billed, white backed vultures are among the endangered species.
(i) ‘Arsenic-bug’ and the significance of its discovery
Answer:
NASA-supported researchers have discovered the first known microorganism on Earth able to thrive and reproduce using the toxic chemical arsenic. The microorganism, which lives in California's Mono Lake, substitutes arsenic for phosphorus in the backbone of its DNA and other cellular components. Carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorus and sulfur are the six basic building blocks of all known forms of life on Earth. This finding will alter biology textbooks and expand the scope of the search for life beyond Earth.
(j) F-22 ‘Raptor’ aircraft
Answer:
Developed by Lockheed Martin/Boeing, the F-22A Raptor is a supersonic, dual-engine fighter jet. The F-22 is designed for stealth, supercruise speed and super-agility.
It is a fifth generation aircraft. . It has additional capabilities that include ground attack, electronic warfare, and signals intelligence roles. It lost the Indian bid to Eurofighter and French Rafale recently.
(k) ‘Concentrated’ solar energy and’ photovoltaic’ solar energy
Answer:
Concentrating solar power (CSP) technologies use mirrors to reflect and concentrate sunlight onto receivers that collect the solar energy and convert it to heat. This thermal energy can then be used to produce electricity via a steam turbine or heat engine driving a generator.Photovoltaic solar energy is method of converting solar energy into electrical energy using photovoltaic cells having semiconductors that exhibit photoelectric effects. Photovoltaic cells could use any of the semiconductors like silicon, selenium, gallium.
(l) Analog hybrid and IP systems in CCTV technology
Answer:
Monitoring and surveillance applications were traditionally done by analog CCTV technology. Analog CCTV systems are generally maintenance intensive, offer no remote accessibility, and are notoriously difficult to integrate with other systems. IP systems in CCTV technology gets rid of these obstacles. It provides ease of use, advanced search capabilities, simultaneous record and playback, no image degradation, improved compression and storage, and integration potential. IP CCTV technology allows us to take advantage of many new technologies like LAN, Broadband, VPN etc.
(m) Various applications of Kevlar
Answer:
Originally developed as a replacement for steel in radial tires, Kevlar is now used in a wide range of applications. The Kevlar tire technology has been applied to aeroplane, car, racing vehicle and truck tires. Some components of Kevlar are used in an array of rackets, such as tennis, badminton and squash rackets. Canoes and kayaks were also improved when Kevlar technology was applied there.
(n) Differences between Compact Disc (CD), Digital Versatile Disc (DVD) and Blu-ray Disc.
Answer:
The Compact Disc is an optical disc used to store digital data. A DVD is an optical disc storage media format, developed by Philips, Sony, Toshiba, and Panasonic. DVDs offer higher storage capacity than Compact Discs while having the same dimensions. Blu-ray Disc is an optical disc storage medium designed to supersede the DVD format. The plastic disc is 120 mm in diameter and 1.2 mm thick, the same size as DVDs and CDs. Blu-ray Discs contain 25 GB per layer. Blue ray gets its name from the blue laser used to read the data. It allows information to be stored at a greater density as compared to red laser being used in DVD.
6. Comment on the following in about 50 words each: 5×5=25
(a) Functions of the World Customs Organisation (WCO)
Answer:
The World Customs Organization is the only intergovernmental organisation exclusively focused on Customs matters. WCO is recognised as the voice of the global Customs community. It works in the areas covering the development of global standards, the simplification and harmonisation of Customs procedures, trade supply chain security, the facilitation of international trade, the enhancement of Customs enforcement and compliance activities, anti-counterfeiting and piracy initiatives, public-private partnerships, integrity promotion, and sustainable global Customs capacity building programmes.
(b) Success of international intervention of Cote d’Ivoire (Ivory Coast)
Answer:
UN Security council had authorised the intervention in Cote d’Ivoire to end the standoff created by the Gbagbo who had refused to give power after defeat in Presidential elections. UN peacekeeping French forces intervened and the intervention in Côte d'Ivoire worked. Within a week, former president Laurent Gbagbo, who had refused to accept defeat in an election and plunged his country into a steadily escalating spiral of violence and repression, was in custody, and within two weeks the majority of his forces had surrendered or rallied to the new President's side.
(c) Strategic adopted by Colombia to eliminate its drug cartels
Answer:
Columbia has adopted a comprehensive strategy to eliminate drug cartels which involves reducing or eliminating corruption from the police force, judiciary and all the drug enforcement agencies. Several operations involving undercover agents were also undertaken to expose the financial network used by the drug mafia for money laundering. Columbia is also making international efforts to have a coordinated response to the menace of drug trafficking.
(d) World Food Programme (WFP) of the United Nations (UN)
Answer:
WFP is the United Nations frontline agency in the fight against global hunger. WFP is the food aid arm of the United Nations system. Food aid is one of the many instruments that can help to promote food security. The policies governing the use of World Food Programme food aid is oriented towards the objective of eradicating hunger and poverty. The ultimate objective of food aid is the elimination of the need for food aid.
(e) Sculpture of the broken chair in front of the UN building at Geneva
Answer:
Sculpture of the broken chair symbolises opposition to land mines and cluster bombs, and acts as a reminder to politicians and others visiting Geneva. The sculpture was erected by Handicap International and is a work by the Swiss artist Daniel Berset.
7. Why each of the following been in the news recently? (each answer in a sentence or two only); 2×10=20
(a) Tiangong – 1
Answer:
It is a Chinese space laboratory module,and is an experimental testbed to demonstrate the rendezvous and docking capabilities needed to support a space station complex.
(b) K-computer
Answer:
It is a supercomputer produced by Fujitsu at the RIKEN Advanced Institute for Computational Science campus in Kobe, Japan. The K computer is based on distributed memory architecture.
(c) Gliese 581 g
Answer:
It is a hypothetical extrasolar planet of the red dwarf star Gliese 581, in the constellation of Libra. It is the sixth planet discovered in the Gliese 581 planetary system and the fourth in order of increasing distance from the star.
(d) MABEL robot
Answer:
It is believed to be the world’s fastest bipedal robot with knees. It is built with funding from the National Science Foundation and the Defence Advanced Research Projects Agency, USA.
(e) Operation Shady Rat
Answer:
It is referred to the series of cyber attacks starting from mid 2006. It is characterized by McAfee as a five year targeted operation by one specific actor. It refers to targeting of several athletic organisations around the time of Summer 2008 Olympics.
(f) SAGA-220
Answer:
It is the fastest super computer of India developed by ISRO. Its speed is 220 teraflops.
(g) Billion Acts of Green
Answer:
The goal of Billion Acts of Green campaign is to reach a billion acts of environmental service and advocacy before Rio +20 to be held in 2012.
(h) L’Aquila earthquake
Answer:
Six scientists have been accused for manslaughter over the 2009 L’Aquila earthquake. Prosecutors allege the defendants gave a falsely reassuring statement before the quake after studying hundreds of tremors that had shaken the city.
(i) OPERA detector at Gran Sasso
Answer:
Oscillation Project with Emulsion-Racking Apparatus is an experiment to detect neutrinos. OPERA researchers have observed muon neutrinos travelling apparently at faster than the speed of light.
(j) Saturn’s Titan
Answer:
Titan is the largest moon of Saturn and the second largest moon in the solar system. It is the only natural satellite known to have a dense atmosphere.
8. Why have the following been in the news recently? (each answer in a sentence or two only): 2×5=10
(a) ‘News International’ newspaper
Answer:
News International is the UK arm of Murdoch's global News Corp empire and publishes four British newspapers: the Times, the Sunday Times, the Sun and the News of the World, as well as the weekly Times Literary Supplement.
(b) Mustafa Abdul-Jalil
Answer:
He is the Chairman of the National Transitional Council of Libya, and as such serves as head of state in Libya's caretaker government which was formed as a result of the 2011 Libyan civil war.
(c) Abel Kirui
Answer:
Kenya's Abel Kirui is a marathon runner who retained his world championships title in emphatic fashion, recording the largest winning margin in championship history.
(d) Natalie Portman
Answer:
She is a hollywood actress who has won the Oscar for the best actress for her performance in the movie Black Swan.
(e) Nawaf Salam
Answer:
He is a Lebanese diplomat, academic, and jurist. He is currently serving as Lebanon's Ambassador and Permanent Representative to the United Nations in New York.
9. (a) List the requisites of a good table:
Present the following in a suitable tabular form: 5
In 1980 out of a total of 1750 workers of a factory, 1200 were members of a union. The number of women employed was 200 of which 175 did not belong to the union. In 1985 the number of union workers increased to 1580 of which 1290 were men. On the other hand the number of non-union workers fell down to 208 of which 180 were men. In 1990 there were 1800 employees who belonged to the union and 50 who did not belong to the union. Of all the employees in 1990, 300 were women of which only 8 did not belong to the union.
Answer:
| Male | Female | |||
| Union | Non Union | Union | Non Union | |
| 1980 | 1175 | 375 | 25 | 175 |
| 1985 | 1290 | 180 | 290 | 28 |
| 1990 | 1508 | 42 | 292 | 8 |
| Marks | No. Of Students |
| 50-55 | 6 |
| 55-60 | 10 |
| 60-65 | 22 |
| 65-70 | 30 |
| 70-75 | 16 |
| 75-80 | 12 |
| 80-100 | 15 |
| No. of tablets | No. of Persons cured |
| 4-8 | 11 |
| 8-12 | 13 |
| 12-16 | 16 |
| 16-20 | 14 |
| 20-24 | ? |
| 24-28 | 9 |
| 28-32 | 17 |
| 32-36 | 6 |
| 36-40 | 4 |
Answer:
| No. of tablets | Middle Point | No. of Persons cured | Product |
| 4-8 | 6 | 11 | 66 |
| 8-12 | 10 | 13 | 130 |
| 12-16 | 14 | 16 | 224 |
| 16-20 | 18 | 14 | 252 |
| 20-24 | 22 | x | 22x |
| 24-28 | 26 | 9 | 234 |
| 28-32 | 30 | 17 | 510 |
| 32-36 | 34 | 6 | 204 |
| 36-40 | 38 | 4 | 152 |
| 1772+22x/90+x = 19.9 |
| 1772 +22x = 1791 + 19.9x |
| 2.1x = 19 |
| x = 9 |
| Life time (hours) | No. of tubes |
| 300-399 | 14 |
| 400-499 | 46 |
| 500-599 | 58 |
| 600-699 | 76 |
| 700-799 | 68 |
| 800-899 | 62 |
| 900-999 | 48 |
| 1000-1099 | 22 |
| 1100-1199 | 6 |
(i) Relative frequency of sixth class.
Answer: See Answer table below
Relative frequency of sixth class is = Frequency of that class/ Total frequency = 62/ 400 = 0.155 = 15.5%
(ii) Percentage of tubes whose life-time does not exceed 600 hours.
Answer:Percentage of tubes whose life-time does not exceed 600 hours = 29.5% from table below
(iii) Percentage of tubes whose life time is greater than or equal to 900 hours.
Answer:Percentage of tubes whose life time is greater than or equal to 900 hours = 19% from table below
(iv) Percentage of tubes whose life time is at least 500 but less than 1000 hours.
Answer:Percentage of tubes whose life time is at least 500 but less than 1000 hours = (Less than 1000 hours – Less than 500 hours) / 400 = (372 – 60)/ 400 = 312/400 = 78%
| Life time | Less than | Cumulative Fr | Percentage | More than | Cumulative Fr | Percentage | No. of tubes |
| 299.5-399.5 | 399.5 | 14 | 3.50% | 299.5 | 400.00 | 100.00% | 14 |
| 399.5-499.5 | 499.5 | 60.00 | 15.00% | 399.5 | 386.00 | 96.50% | 46 |
| 499.5-599.5 | 599.5 | 118.00 | 29.50% | 499.5 | 340.00 | 85.00% | 58 |
| 599.5-699.5 | 699.5 | 194.00 | 48.50% | 599.5 | 282.00 | 70.50% | 76 |
| 699.5-799.5 | 799.5 | 262.00 | 65.50% | 699.5 | 206.00 | 51.50% | 68 |
| 799.5-899.5 | 899.5 | 324.00 | 81.00% | 799.5 | 138.00 | 34.50% | 62 |
| 899.5-999.5 | 999.5 | 372.00 | 93.00% | 899.5 | 76.00 | 19.00% | 48 |
| 999.5-1099.5 | 1099.5 | 394.00 | 98.50% | 999.5 | 28.00 | 7.00% | 22 |
| 1099.5-1199.5 | 1199.5 | 400.00 | 100.00% | 1099.50 | 6.00 | 1.50% | 6 |
10. (a) A car travels 25 km at 25 kph, 25 km at 50 kph, and 25 km at 75 kph. Find the average speed of the car for the entire journey.
Answer:
| Distance in km | Speed in kph | Time taken in hr = Distance/ Speed | |
| 25 | 25 | 1.00 | |
| 25 | 50 | 0.50 | |
| 25 | 75 | 0.33 | |
| Total | 75 | 1.83 | |
| Average Speed in kph | Total Distance/ Total Time | 40.91 |
Answer:
Incorrect Total = 200*50 = 10000
Correct Total = 10000 + (192-92) + (88-8) = 10180
Correct Mean = 10180/ 200 = 50.9
(c) Students were asked how long it took them to walk to school on a particular morning. A cumulative frequency distribution was formed.
| Time taken (minutes) | c.f. |
| <5 | 28 |
| <10 | 45 |
| <15 | 81 |
| <20 | 143 |
| <25 | 280 |
| <30 | 349 |
| <35 | 374 |
| <40 | 395 |
| <45 | 400 |
(ii) Estimate how many students took less than 18 minutes.
(ii) 6% of students took x minutes or longer. Find x. 6
(d) An investor buys ` 1200 worth of shares in a company each month. During the first five months he bought the shares at a price of ` 10, ` 12, ` 15, ` 20 and ` 24 per share. After 5 months, what is the average price paid for the shares by him? 4
Answer:
Number of shares in first month = 1200/10 = 120
Number of shares in second month = 1200/12 = 100
Number of shares in third month = 1200/15 = 80
Number of shares in fourth month = 1200/20 = 60
Number of shares in fifth month = 1200/24 = 50
Total number of shares = 410
Total money spent = 1200*5 = 6000
Average price for shares = 6000/ 410 = 14.6
Prathama Gramin Bank Officers Exam., 2011
English Language
(Held on 25-9-2011)
Directions–Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below them. Certain words/expressions are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The Battle of Gettysburg was fought during the first three days of July, 1863. During the night of July 4, Lee began to retreat southward while storm clouds' deluged the country with rain. When Lee reached the Potomac river with his defeated army, he found a swollen, impassable river in front of him, and a victorious Union army behind him. Lee was in a trap. He couldn't escape. US President, Abraham Lincoln saw that. Here was a golden, heaven-sent opportunity - the opportunity to capture Lee's army and end the war immediately. So, with a surge of high hope, Lincoln ordered General Meade not to call a council of war but to attack Lee immediately. Lincoln telegraphed his orders and then sent a special messenger to Meade demanding immediate action.
And, what did General Meade do ? He did the very opposite of what he was told to do. He called a council of war in direct violation of Lincoln's orders. Finally the water receded and Lee escaped over the Potomac with his forces.
Lincoln was furious. "What does this mean ?" Lincoln cried "Great God ! What does this mean ? We had them within our grasp, and had only to stretch forth our hands and they were ours; yet nothing that I could say or do could make the army move. Under the circumstances, almost any general could have defeated Lee.
In bitter disappointment, Lincoln sat down and wrote Meade this letter. And remember, at this period of his life, he was extremely conservative and restrained in his phraseology. So this letter coming from Lincoln in 1863 was tantamount to the severest rebuke.
"My dear' General,
"I do not believe you appreciate the magnitude of the misfortune involved in Lee's escape. He was within our easy grasp, and to have closed upon him would, in connection with our other late successes, have ended the war. As it is, the war will be prolonged indefinitely. If you could not safely attack Lee last Monday, how can you possibly do so south of the river, when you can take with you very few -not more than two-thirds of the force you then had in hand ? It would be unreasonable to expect and I do not expect that you can now effect much. Your golden opportunity is gone, and I am distressed immeasurably because of it."
What do you suppose Meade did when he read that letter ?
Meade never saw that letter. Lincoln never mailed it. It was found among Lincoln's papers after his death.
My guess is – and this is only a guess – that after writing that letter, Lincoln looked out of the window and said to himself, "Just a minute. May be I ought not to be so hasty. It is easy enough for me to sit here in the quiet of the White House and order Meade to attack; but if I had been up at Gettysburg, and if I had seen as much blood as Meade had seen during the last week, and if my ears had been pierced with the screams and shrieks of the wounded and dying, maybe I wouldn't be so anxious to attack either."
1. Which of the following is the author's guess about the reason for Lincoln's withholding the letter to General Meade ?
(A) There was no point in lamenting over spilt milk as the matter was already over
(B) Decisions taken while sitting in ivory tower may not be as appropriate as those taken after witnessing the battle field
(C) The blood seen at the battle field and the shrieks of the dying heard by Lincoln
(D) General's views should be considered by President not-withstanding their merits
(E) He wanted to avoid confrontation with the General at that critical hour
Ans : (B)
2. What would have been the probable consequences had General Meade followed Lincoln's orders ?
(a) It would have prolonged the war further, indefinitely
(b) Lee's army would have got enough time for a safe escape
(c) The Council of war would not have granted permission to carry out the orders
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (a) and (c) only
(C) (b) and (c) only
(D) All the three (a), (b) and (c)
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
3. Abraham Lincoln had ordered General Meade not to……………..
(a) attack Lee while he had been at a disadvantage due to flooded river
(b) let Lee escape so that the war could be ended immediately
(c) call a council of war to discuss the attack on Lee's forces
(A) All the three
(B) (a) and (b) only
(C) (a) and (c) only
(D) (b) and (c) only
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. In the context of the passage, all of the following statements are true EXCEPT……………..
(A) General Meade would have found it difficult to win the war after Lee's safe escape
(B) General Meade failed to end the war because of the swollen Potomac river
(C) Abraham Lincoln's orders were violated by General Meade
(D) When Potomac river was in spate, Lincoln considered it as a golden opportunity
(E) Abraham Lincoln refrained from sending the letter to General Meade
Ans : (B)
5. What was the situation that made Lee uncomfortable on the fourth day of war while retreating ?
(A) His army had been defeated in a very humiliating manner
(B) He was trapped in an ambush laid down by the enemy's army
(C) His army was sandwiched between enemy's forces and a swollen river
(D) Storm clouds had deluged the country with heavy rains
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
6. What could be the probable reason why General Meade didn't follow Lincoln's orders ?
General Meade……………..
(A) knew that Lincoln was not empowered to issue such orders
(B) did not wish to terminate war so early
(C) was rule-bound and wanted to follow orders of Council of War
(D) having defeated the enemy, wanted to avoid further bloodshed
(E) was aware of the danger of crossing the swollen Potomac river
Ans : (D)
7. What was the outcome of General Meade' s inaction on Abraham Lincoln's orders ?
(a) Lee and his army could escape safely
(b) It infuriated Abraham Lincoln
(c) Lee's army was defeated and had to retreat
(A) (a) and (b) only
(B) (a) and (c) only
(C) (b) and (c) only
(D) All the three
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
8. The contents of the passage reveal which qualities of General Meade ?
(A) Timidity and arrogance
(B) Courage and humanitarian consideration
(C) Obedience and bravery
(D) Treachery and lack of patriotism
(E) Undue compassion for enemy and lawlessness
Ans : (B)
9. Abraham Lincoln was extremely annoyed with General Meade because…………….. (A) the latter had hurt his ego by violating his orders
(B) the General had procrastinated on his orders due to inertia
(C) a golden opportunity to win the war early was lost
(D) the latter had colluded with the enemy General
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
Directions–(Q. 10-12) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST NEARLY THE SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold.
10. Conservative
(A) Traditional
(B) Negative
(C) Backward
(D) Biased
(E) Unsymmetrical
Ans : (A)
11. Distressed
(A) Relieved
(B) Annoyed
(C) Sad
(D) Anxious
(E) Devastated
Ans : (B)
12. Grasp
(A) Understand
(B) Seize
(C) Knowledge
(D) Reach
(E) Assimilate
Ans : (B)
Directions–(Q. 13-15) Choose the word or group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning of the word/group of words printed in bold.
13. Surge
(A) Thinning
(B) Flash
(C) Drought
(D) Iota
(E) Miniscule
Ans : (A)
14. Violation
(A) Breach
(B) Honouring
(C) Obedient
(D) Confirmation
(E) Regulation
Ans : (B)
15. Receded
(A) Accumulated
(B) Extended
(C) Deflated
(D) Reflected
(E) Advanced
Ans : (E)
Directions–(Q. 16-20) Rearrange the following six sentences (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(a) What made him one of the richest men in the USA ?
(b) He had hundreds of men working for him.
(c) And he knew how to handle these knowledgeable men.
(d) What made Andrew Carnegie a successful businessman?
(e) They knew far more about steel than he did.
(f) He was called the steel king, yet he himself knew little about manufacture of steel.
16. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (B)
17. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (E)
18. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (a)
(B) (b)
(C) (c)
(D) (d)
(E) (e)
Ans : (A)
19. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (f)
(B) (e)
(C) (d)
(D) (c)
(E) (b)
Ans : (A)
20. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) (f)
(B) (e)
(C) (d)
(D) (c)
(E) (b)
Ans : (C)
Directions–(Q. 21-25) Against each question number, an incomplete statement is provided. In the next column, there are fillers denoted by (a), (b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h) and (i). You have to find out which one, two or more of these can grammatically and meaningfully complete the incomplete statement provided against the question number. Accordingly, mark your answer where .answer choices are provided against question number repeated below the statement and fillers.
(a) he had to pay what the vendor had insisted on.
(b) yet, he seldom wins any easy bargain.
(c) yet, he somehow manages to maintain a win-win situation.
(d) and therefore, he always gets an edge over others.
(e) still, he rarely succeeds in being a beneficiary.
(f) but he refrains from seeking any benefits out of that strength.
(g) people are carried away by his perceived quality.
(h) he uses it for the society and not for self
(i) how can one expect him to benefit ?
21. His misunderstanding is that he acquired a good trick of the trade…………..
(A) (i) only
(B) Either (d) or (e)
(C) (g) only
(D) (d) only
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
22. He projects himself as a likeable person without really being so…………..
(A) (e) only
(B) (g) only
(C) (c) only
(D) (a) only
(E) Either (c) or (g)
Ans : (B)
23. His persuasive skills are of a higher order…………..
(A) (i) only
(B) (a) only
(C) (c) only
(D) (g)only
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
24. Despite being good at negotiations…………..
(A) (a) only
(B) (b) only
(C) Either (a) or (c)
(D) Either (a) or (b)
(E) Either (b) or (c)
Ans : (A)
25. He has serious limitations in convincing others…………..
(A) (e) only
(B) (a) only
(C) (c) only
(D) (d) only
(E) Either (d) or (e)
Ans : (C)
Directions –(Q. 26-35) Which of the following phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence grammatically meaningful and correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer i.e. "No Correction Required".
26. Favourable changes would be visible if proper information will be shared without any reservations.
(A) will be visible if proper information would be shared
(B) would be visible if proper information is shared
(C) would be visible through proper share of information
(D) were visible after share of information will be proper
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (B)
27. In the monsoon, large branches of trees suddenly break up and fall, wreck parked cars or a passing pedestrian.
(A) break up and fall suddenly, wreck
(B) suddenly break up, fall and wreck
(C) suddenly break off and fall, wrecking
(D) suddenly wreck, fall and break off
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)
28. People had been motivated to join the movement to fight poverty and use the armed struggle to get social justice.
(A) are motivated to join
(B) were motivated to joining
(C) had motivation for joining
(D) had been motivated for joining
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)
29. The Government discovered that though the scientist's seniority was entitled the highest grade in the service, his claims had been over-looked.
(A) scientist was entitled to the I highest grade by his seniority
(B) seniority of the scientist had been entitled to the highest grade .
(C) highest grade was entitled to the scientist with his seniority
(D) seniority was a factor to decide entitlement of the scientist to highest grade
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (A)
30. Through the experiment, the boy, had gained just enough knowledge to whet his appetite for more.(A) just enough knowledge to his appetite whetting for more
(B) enough knowledge just to whet his appetite much more
(C) just enough knowledge for whetting more and more appetite
(D) knowledge enough to whet is much more appetite
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)
31. The relationship has perceived by people of both countries as mutually beneficial and rewarding, so that they will develop trust and confidence.
(A) perception of relationship between people
(B) perceived relationship among people
(C) relationship as perceived by people
(D) relationship has to perceived by people
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (D)
32. While acknowledging his knowledge and technical competence, the official sources lay down stress on his Integrity.(A) lay upon stress on the integrity
(B) lay off stress on his integrity
(C) lay stress on his integrity
(D) lay stress on him being a person on integrity
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)
33. There is an impact assessment zone where radiation levels are regularly monitoring.
(A) level is regularly monitoring
(B) level is regular to monitor
(C) levels are regularly monitored
(D) level is monitoring regularly
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (C)
34. What should they do with the enormous wealth is their lookout.
(A) they should have done with the enormous wealth have
(B) should they do if the wealth is enormous is
(C) should they be doing for the enormous wealth is
(D) they should do with the enormous wealth is
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (E)
35. Those who voted for change in the region now wonder about its whereabouts.(A) are now wonderful about its whereabouts
(B) have now wondered of its whereabouts
(C) now wonder at whereabouts of themselves
(D) wonder about their whereabouts now
(E) No Correction Required
Ans : (D)
Directions–(Q. 36-40) In each sentence below there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence, there are five pairs of words denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E). Find out which pair best fits 'in the blanks in the same serial order to make the sentence meaningfully complete. The letter of that pair is the answer.
36. She had done her graduation and has……………..working in the company……………..nearly twenty years.
(A) is, since
(B) is, from
(C) was, since
(D) been, for
(E) started, about
Ans : (D)
37. Although I was……………..in front of the house, I could not……………..it due to lot of changes around.
(A) facing, find
(B) standing, recognize
(C) right, believe
(D) working, help
(E) alighted, sense
Ans : (B)
38. Spending time is not a……………..as there are numerous……………..to keep me busy.
(A) boon, action
(B) disaster, works
(C) difficulty, occasions
(D) solution, problems
(E) problem, activities
Ans : (E)
39. He realized that poverty can be……………..not by raising slogans, but by……………..more and more jobs for the unemployed.
(A) eliminated, doing
(B) handled, enhancing
(C) eradicated, creating
(D) elevated, assigning
(E) dealt, offering
Ans : (C)
40. When the suppliers came to know that the li1aterial we purchased was for……………..work, they offered generous discount and also made free……………..
(A) relief, delivery
(B) personal, supply
( C) our, manufacture
(D) exceptional, resources
(E) trivial, passage
Ans : (A)
Directions–(Q. 41-50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The latest official figures of 2010 on ...(41)... say this: "A typical Indian worker is male,
...(42)... working in his midtwenties, is presumably better educated than before, ...(43)... most likely to find work as casual labour the ...(44)... secure of jobs. He is also more likely to ...(45)... a job, less likely to be interested in one, and will surely earn better money. His wife is less likely to work."
This is just the sort of ...(46)... that the government cautions observers not to paint, pointing to the formidable armies of the self-employed-those who ...(47)... your shoes, sell you roadside tea, and build a dhaba or a mechanic's shop-in the workforce. But be it the 'casual" workers or the self-employed, these are not the big, sweeping. ..( 48) ...that one expects to see 20 years after a big country starts liberalizing. ...(49) ..., the pro-portion of Indians in manufacturing jobs hasn't changed significantly ...(50)... the 90's.
41. (A) development
(B) economy
(C) employment
(D) education
(E) statistics
Ans : (C)
42. (A) decides
(B) starts
(C) neglects
(D) avoids
(E) pretends
Ans : (B)
43. (A) yet
(B) hence
(C) obviously
(D) and
(E) although
Ans : (A)
44. (A) financially
(B) more
(C) certainly
(D) least
(E) better
Ans : (D)
45. (A) assign
(B) seek
(C) create
(D) get
(E) delegate
Ans : (B)
46. (A) image
(B) guess
(C) riddle
(D) happening
(E) forecast
Ans : (A)
47. (A) wear
(B) polish
(C) handle
(D) sell
(E) steal
Ans : (B)
48. (A) realities
(B) tones
(C) alarms
(D) events
(E) changes
Ans : (A)
49. (A) Hence
(B) Liberally
(C) Subsequently
(D) Luckily
(E) Sadly
Ans : (E)
50. (A) before
(B) in
(C) since
(d) during
(E) over
Ans : (D)
Saturday, 7 January 2012
Solved General Studies Paper -I of Civils Main Exam 2011
1. Answer any three of the following in about 250 words each: 20x3=60
(a) ‘Essentially all that is contained in part IV- A of the Constitution is just a codification of tasks integral to Indian way of life.’ Critically examine the statement.
Answer:
Article 51A of the part IV-A of the Indian Constitution lists the fundamental duties of the citizens which were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act. Fundamental duties are restrictions on the citizens, but they are not enforceable in a court of law. They act more like a lighthouse to guide citizens’ conduct and bring it in conformity with the Indian way of life. They include abiding the constitution and respecting its ideals and institutions such as the National Flag and the National Anthem. Fundamental Duties also include cherishing and following the noble ideals that inspired our freedom struggle, upholding the sovereignty and integrity of the nation, rendering national services, promoting harmony and brotherhood, renouncing practices derogatory to the dignity of women, safeguarding public property, developing scientific temper etc.
Incidents like destruction of public property by violent mobs and protestors, delivering of hate speeches to cause disharmony and rift among communities, mounting corruption, declining child sex ratio, reports of practices like sati which still is continuing in some parts of the country point towards the fact that the republic has not succeeded completely in instilling the values contained in part IV-A, in the hearts and minds of the Indian citizens.
These values should be taught from the early childhood through a free, fair, secular, and non-discriminatory education system. The society also needs role models from all walks of life such as politics, business, administration, judiciary, academia etc. so that national identity becomes paramount and the values are most cherished.
(b) ‘The exercise of executive clemency is not a privilege but is based on several principles, and discretion has to be exercised in public consideration.’ Analyse this statement in the context of judicial powers of the President of India.
Answer:
Article 72 of the Indian Constitution empowers the president to pardon, remit, commute, respite and reprieves a person of any offence. Supreme Court has held that pardoning power of the President is subject to judicial review and it should not be handled dishonestly in the public interest.
The question of executive clemency has come into focus due to the recent decision of the President’s rejecting the mercy plea of those, convicted in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case and Tamil Nadu assembly’s passage of a resolution over it. The Afzal Guru case has also not yet been resolved which also is giving political colour to the whole issue.
Supreme Court in its 1989 judgement laid down several principles or ‘do’s’ and ‘don’ts’ with respect to the executive clemency. The apex court observed that the delay in making a decision on the death penalty leads to adverse psychological impact on the convicted and it amounts to the court’s inhuman and brutal treatment. Thus inordinate delay can form the basis for clemency. It also observed that the nature of crime needs to be taken into consideration before granting executive clemency. The conduct of the convicted cannot form the basis for granting clemency and the time calculated should be from the date the final verdict was given on the case if it needs to form the ground for clemency.
Constitution should be amended to provide the time limits within which mercy petition are to be decided. Importantly, the political parties should restrain from politicising the power of the President which is supposed to be used in the public consideration.
(c) Discuss the extent, causes, and implications of ‘nutrition transition’ said to be underway in India.
Answer:
Nutrition Transition can be referred to as the increased consumption of unhealthy foods compounded with increased prevalence of overweight in middle-to-low-income countries. It has serious implications in terms of public health outcomes, risk factors, economic growth and international nutrition policy.
Extent: As developing societies like India industrialise and urbanise, and as standards of living continue to rise, weight gain and obesity are beginning to pose a growing threat to the health of the citizens. Repeated episodes of malnutrition, followed by nutritional rehabilitation, are known to alter body composition and increase the risk of obesity. Food balance data from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) show that the change in energy intake in Asian countries has been small, but there have been large changes in consumption of animal products, sugars and fats in countries like India. There is a progressive increase in the intake of protein, and probably fats. The increase in the intake of protein and fats is due to the phenomenal increase in the consumption of milk and milk products and an increase in the intake of animal products. On the other hand consumption of pulses and legumes has fallen drastically in India.
Causes: In India, the demographic and epidemiological transition, the forces of internal migration and urbanisation, the changes in food consumption patterns and low physical activity patterns to an epidemic of obesity and other NCDs (Non-communicable Diseases). There is also a decrease in the energy expenditure in occupational activities, increased urbanisation, universal use of motor cars, mechanisation of most manual jobs outside the occupational sphere and increasing leisure time have aggravated this trend in India.
Implications: There is a large increase in the non-communicable diseases (NCDs) in the developing countries specially the countries under transition like India. Approximately 40% of the deaths in the developing countries take place due to NCDs.
(d) Bring out the salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994, and the implication of its amendment in 2003.
Answer:
Pre Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Technique Act, 1994 was enacted to arrest the declining sex ration. It is a subject of discussion now because; an all-time low child sex ratio of 914 was reported in the 2011 provisional census data.
The main purpose of enacting the act is to ban the use of sex selection techniques before or after conception and prevent the misuse of prenatal diagnostic technique for sex selective absorption.
Offences under this act include conducting or helping in the conduct of prenatal diagnostic technique in the unregistered units, sex selection on a man or woman, conducting PND test for any purpose other than the one mentioned in the act, sale, distribution, supply, renting etc. of any ultra sound machine or any other equipment capable of detecting sex of the foetus.
The act was amended in 2003 to improve the regulation of the technology used in sex selection.
Implications of PCPNDT Act, 1994 amendment:
1. Amendment of the act mainly covered bringing the technique of pre conception sex selection within the ambit of the act
2. Bringing ultrasound within its ambit
3. Empowering the central supervisory board, constitution of state level supervisory board
4. Provision for more stringent punishments
5. Empowering appropriate authorities with the power of civil court for search, seizure and sealing the machines and equipments of the violators
6. Regulating the sale of the ultrasound machines only to registered bodies
2. Answer one of the following in about 250 words: 20x1=20
(a) Trace the salient sequences of events in popular revolt that took place in February 1946 in the then Royal Indian Navy and bring out its significance in the freedom struggle. Do you agree with the views that the sailors who took part in this revolt were some of the unsung heroes of the freedom struggle?
Answer:
Royal Indian Navy revolt of February 1946 took place in the background of Quit India Movement and Second World War. This was a very turbulent phase in India’s freedom struggle. The popular revolt shook the very foundation of British Raj and made it abundantly clear that their time in India was numbered.
In November 1945 some students from Forward Block, Students Federation of India and Islamia College participated in a protest march over the INA trials. They tied together League, Congress and red flag, as a symbol of anti imperialist unity.
In February 1946, Muslim League students took a protest march in which some Congress students also participated against the seven year sentence to INA prisoner Rashid Ali.
In February 1946, naval ratings of HMIS Talwar went on strike to protest against racial discrimination, unpalatable food, INA trials, and abuse by superior officers. This was followed by city people joining in through mass strikes, hartals, meetings, attacks on police stations, railway station etc. Other parts of the country also expressed support in the form of strikes by Royal Indian Forces in Calcutta, Puna and Bombay.
The upsurge showed that the fearless action by the masses, revolt in armed forces had psychological affect on masses and it also prompted British to extend some concessions but above all it marked the end of British rule in India.
Sailors who took part in the struggle were the unsung heroes as they did not get the level of publicity as that of the INA trials and in the pages of history; they remain anonymous and unknown.
(b) Evaluate the influence of three important women’s organisations of the early twentieth century in India on country’s society and politics. To what extent do you think were the social objectives of these organisations constrained by their political objectives?
Answer:
Bharat Stree Mahamandal, All India Women’s Conference and Women’s India Association were some of the important women’s associations of the early twentieth century. Bharat Stree Mahamandal was the first women's organisation in India founded by Sarala Devi Chaudhurani in Allahabad in 1910. One of the primary goals of the organisation was to promote female education which was not well developed at that time. The organisation opened several offices in Lahore, Allahabad, Delhi, Karachi, Amritsar etc. to improve the condition of women all over India.
All India Women’s Conference was founded in 1927 by Margret cousins having Sarojni Naidu, Lady Dorab Tata as its founding members. It worked towards women’s education, abolition of purdah system, legislative reform, abolition of child marriage, harijan welfare, family planning, and rural reconstruction. These women’s organisations worked for a society based on principles of social justice, integrity, equal rights and opportunities. They wanted security for every human being; the essentials of life not determined by accidental births but by planned social distribution.
Their efforts led to several legislative reforms in Sharda Act (1929), Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act (1937), Factory Act (1947), Hindu Marriage and Divorce Act etc. AIWC efforts also led to setting up of The All India Women’s Education Fund
Association, and Lady Irwin College of Home Science.
Social and educational reforms effort by the women’s associations helped in preparing the Indian women to participate in the freedom struggle. With Mahatma Gandhi women availed an opportunity to get into the scene of freedom struggle.
3. Answer any one of the following in about 250 words: 20x1=20
(a) Critically examine the design of National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) scheme. Do you think it has a better chance of
success than the Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna(SGSY) in achieving its objectives?
Answer:
NRLM is the rechristened version of Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna (SGSY). It is a Ministry of Rural Development programme. It aims to reduce poverty by enabling the poor household to access gainful self employment and skilled wage employment opportunity resulting in a sustainable livelihood.
NRLM is based on three pillars
1. Enhancing and expanding the existing livelihood options of the poor
2. Building skills for the job market
3. Nurturing self employed and entrepreneurs
NRLM plans to give special focus on the poorest households who are currently dependent on the MGNREGA. The design of
NRLM is more likely to succeed because its implementation is in a mission mode which enables it shift from the present allocation based approach to demand based approach. This enables the states to formulate their own livelihood based on poverty reduction action plans. It also focuses on targets, outcomes, and time bound strategy. The monitoring would be done against the targets of the poverty outcomes. NRLM will have continuous capacity building, imparting of requisite skills and creating linkages with livelihood opportunities for the poor, including those emerging from the organised sector.
NRLM funds will be directly released to the state level agencies and DRDA based on the detailed district wise annual action plan. It will involve the Self Help Group in the implementation which increases the likelihood of its success. National Skill Development Council will also coordinate in the skill development part in the implementation of NRLM. In order to ensure institutional arrangement for skill development for self employment and wage employment, dedicated training institute for rural BPL youth i.e Rural Self Employment Training Institutes (RSETIs) are being set up with the aim of having at least one such institution in each district in India. These RSETIs will be set up with the partnership of banks. This will help in achieving the objectives of NRLM.
(b) Highlight the structure, objectives and role of the Advertising Standard Council of India. In what way has the August 2006
government notification made it more effective?
Answer:
The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI), established in 1985, is committed to the cause of Self-Regulation in Advertising, ensuring the protection of the interests of consumers. The ASCI was formed with the support of all four sectors connected with Advertising, viz. Advertisers, Ad Agencies, Media (including Broadcasters and the Press) and others like PR Agencies, Market Research Companies etc. Its main objective is to promote responsible advertising; thus enhancing the public's confidence in Advertising. ASCI thus aims to achieve its own overarching goal i.e., to maintain and enhance the public's confidence in advertising.
The Board of Governors (16 members) ensures equitable representation of Advertisers, Agencies, Media and other Advertising Services, the individual member firms being leaders in their respective industries or services. The Consumer Complaints Council (CCC) (21 members) has 12 Non-Advertising professionals representing civil society, who are eminent and recognised opinion leaders in their respective disciplines such as Medical, Legal, Industrial Design, Engineering, Chemical Technology, Human Resources and Consumer Interest Groups; 9 are advertising practitioners from our member firms.
ASCI is represented in all committees working on advertising content in every Ministry of the Government of India. ASCI’s Code for Self-Regulation in Advertising is now part of ad code under Cable TV Act’s Rules. Violation of ASCI’s Code is now treated as a violation of the government’s rules. ASCI’s membership of The European Advertising Standards Alliance (EASA) ensures that it gets valuable advice, learning and even influence at the international level.
The Consumer Complaints Council is ASCI's heart and soul. It is the dedicated work put in by this group of highly respected people that has given tremendous impetus to the work of ASCI and the movement of self-regulation in the advertising.
In August 2006, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting issued a notification deeming it necessary for all TV commercials in India to abide by the ASCI code. This effort of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting has made the advertising self-regulatory movement in India stronger and more effective.
4. Comment on any five of the following in about 150 words each. 12x5=60
(a) Salient recommendations of the RBI-appointed Damodaran committee on customer service in Banks.
Answer:
The Damodaran Committee on bank customer services has recommended active involvement of the boards of banks to guarantee customer satisfaction. The committee held that customer service and grievance redress should be included as a mandatory parameter in the performance appraisal report of all employees.
The committee has suggested that an agenda on the level of implementation of the Bank's Code of Commitments to Customers and an overview on the grievance redress mechanism in the bank should be placed before the bank every quarter before the Customer Service Committee.
The committee suggets that every board should ensure they have comprehensive policies for customer acceptance, care and severance. The banks should show sensitivity for small customers by ensuring that the pricing (bank charges) does not act as a deterrent for the small person to do banking transactions.
Emphasising on 'customer centricity', the committee recommended that bank boards should evolve human resources policies which should recruit for attitude and train for skills.
(b) Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS).
Answer:
It is a scheme by the Central Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. Its funding pattern is up to 90 percent; it is funded by the Central Ministry. The Grant in Aid is released on the basis of recommendations received from the State Government, UTs through State Multi-Disciplinary grant-in-aid committee concerned or any other agency designated by the Ministry. Beneficiary could be an individual, a family, a community, women and Children.
The voluntary organisations are assisted in running rehabilitation centres for leprosy cured persons and also for manpower
development in the field of mental retardation and cerebral palsy. They are also assisted in establishment and development of special schools for major disability areas, viz. Orthopaedic, speech, hearing, visual and mental disability. The NGOs are extended assistance for setting up projects of vocational training to facilitate the disabled persons to be as independent as possible by acquiring basic skills. The Ministry, under the Scheme supports both recurring and non-recurring expenditure of projects by NGOs up to 90 percent.
(c) Evolution of ‘Green Benches’ in our higher judiciary.
Answer:
The Supreme Court of India interpreted Article 21 which guarantees the fundamental right to life and personal liberty, to include the right to a wholesome environment and held that a litigant may assert his or her right to a healthy environment against the State by a writ petition to the Supreme Court or a High Court. Public interest litigation has been used by the higher judiciary to ensure environment protection and safeguard public interest.
Till 1980, not much contribution was made by the courts in preserving the environment. One of the earliest cases which came to the Supreme Court of India was Municipal Council, Ratlam, vs Vardhichand AIR 1980 SC 1622. Thereafter, series of cases were filed before the Supreme Court and there was a dynamic change in the whole approach of the courts in matters concerning environment.
India has now become the third country in the world to start a National Green Tribunal (NGT) which is a judicial body exclusively meant to judge environmental cases. The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same. The predecessor to the NGT, the erstwhile National Environment Appellate Authority has been superseded by the NGT.
(d) Distinction between ‘Department Related Parliament Standing committees’ and ‘Parliamentary Forum’.
Answer:
Departmental Standing Committees were created in 1993 to exercise control over the executive; particularly financial control. There are now 2 such committees having 31 members each; 21 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. Members from the Lok Sabha are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, while members from the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the Rajya Sabha Chairman. A minister cannot be nominated as a member of the committee. These committees consider the demand for grants of the concerned ministry. They submit the reports based on which the discussion on budget takes place.
Parliamentary Forums on the other hand are ad hoc in nature and are constituted for specific issues to make the Members of the Parliament aware of the seriousness of the particular situation and to enable them to adopt a result-oriented approach towards these issues. The Parliamentary fora do not interfere in or encroach upon the jurisdiction of the concerned Departmentally Related Standing Committees or the Ministry/Department concerned. Members of these fora are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, as the case may be.
(e) Benefits and potential drawbacks of ‘cash transfers’ to Below Poverty Line Households.
Answer:
Cash transfer has come into discussion due to the leakages in several government schemes like the Public Distribution System. It has been successful in Latin American countries. Cash transfer has some benefits in terms of better targeting of public subsidy, reducing diversion, preventing corruption, and eliminating wastages in transportation and storage of goods like food grains. It also gives flexibility to the citizens in terms of buying the public goods and services. Cash transfer is also suitable for migrating population that moves in search of work.
Cash transfer on the other hand can only succeed if an appropriate IT infrastructure exits, through which cash can be transferred directly to the account of the beneficiary which becomes a challenge in the poor financial inclusion. Cash can be more prone to diversion if proper safeguards are not taken. Moreover cash transfer can work if the public delivery system is in place for e.g. how giving cash for health services will make any difference if there are no hospitals, medicines and doctors in the villages. Factoring inflation into cash transfer is always been a challenge.
(f) New initiatives during the 11th Five Year Plan in the National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB).
Answer:
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) endorsed and approved a budget of INR 12,500 million for the XI five-year (2007-12) plan period. The enhanced funding and financial allocation to the tune of nearly two-thirds of the previous plan period is indicative of the high political commitment accorded to blindness control activities in the India. With the federal nature of the Indian Constitution, the States are largely independent in matters relating to health delivery. The Central Government’s responsibility consists mainly of policy making, planning, funding, guiding, assisting, evaluating and coordinating the work of state health ministries so that health services cover every part of the country and no state lags behind for want of these services. The NPCB is striving to enhance the capacity of health institutions, health personnel and the community at all levels to address issues under the programme. In the approved XI five-year plan period, schemes with existing/enhanced financial allocation are being implemented along with new initiatives to reduce blindness.
5. Examine any three of the following in about 150 words each. 12x3=36
(a) The impact of climate change on water resources in India.
Answer:
The impact of climate change on water resources in India is evident through erratic monsoon, more frequent floods and droughts, stronger cyclones and rivers changing their course frequently. The severity is also due to the prevailing more than 7000km of coastline.
The changed rainfall pattern has adversely affected ground water recharge, wetlands both coastal and terrestrial. Climate change has resulted in melting of Himalayan glaciers. It has the potential of making the Himalayan Rivers swell first and then turning them into seasonal rivers, threatening the source of freshwater. It can also lead to salt water intrusion and threatening aquaculture and coastal agriculture.
The impact has been severe also because, India is still an agricultural country with its large population being dependant on weather related livelihood through agriculture, forestry, pisciculture etc.
(b) Measures taken by the Indian government to combat piracy in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Indian government has used INS Talwar to foil several bids by pirates near the Gulf of Aden. Indian government is coordinating the anti piracy measures at the international level with China, European countries and with the Gulf countries.
Indian government has placed surveillance radars in countries like Maldives and Srilanka to secure the sea lanes in the Indian Ocean. It has signed agreements with Madagascar, Seychelles and Mauritius for anti piracy measures. Government has also taken measures in strengthening the coastal security by equipping and reforming the coast guards. However, incidents like unmanned vessel drifting in the ocean and reaching the coast of Mumbai have highlighted the holes in our coastal security which needs to be plugged.
Supreme Court has recently asked the Central Government to formulate separate piracy law for trying the pirates and to take care of the compensation to the victim’s family. Currently piracy is being dealt under the provisions of Indian Penal Code.
(c) The significance of counter-urbanisation in the improvement of metropolitan cities in India.
Answer:
Counter-urbanisation is a demographic and social process where people move from large urban areas or into rural areas, thereby leapfrogging the rural-urban fringe. It might mean daily commuting, but could also require lifestyle changes and the increased use of ICT (home working or teleworking). It is the process of migration of people from major urban areas to smaller urban settlements and rural areas. Counter-urbanisation affects the layout of rural settlements. Modern housing estates locate of the edge of small settlements. Industrial units are sited on main roads leading into the settlement.
Counter urbanisation will reduce pressure on the metropolitan cities and its basic amenities like drinking water supply, sewage facilities, continuous supply of electricity, education facilities, etc as people move out due to following
(i) Increase in car ownership enabling their movement, growth in information technology (E-mail, faxes and video conferencing) meaning more people can work from home
(ii) Urban areas are becoming increasing unpleasant place to live. This is the result of pollution, crime and traffic congestion.
(iii) More people tend to move when they retire.
(iv) New business parks being developed on the edge of cities (on Greenfield sites) meaning people no longer have to travel to the city centre. People now prefer to live on the outskirts of the city to be near where they work.
(d) Problems specific to the denotified and nomadic tribes in India.
Answer:
Post Independence the Criminal Tribe Act 1871 was replaced; and criminal tribe nomenclature was replaced with denotified tribe (DNTs) which is still considered derogatory. They have been discriminated; British government included some of the tribes like Gonds, Ho and Santhals under this categorisation as they had rebelled against the British Raj.
A major challenge in the intervention comes due dispersed nature of the tribes and having a nomadic culture surviving on shifting cultivation. This results in health and educational services a challenging task to deliver. It also makes the implementation of nutritional initiative like addressing iodine deficiency a challenging task. Preservation of their culture, script, practices also get hampered due to the same reason. Two different opinions arise with regard to the reservation for the DNTs to raise their social and economic conditions. One view supports providing reservation within existing group of SCs, STs and OBCs while the other view supports creating a new group for the reservation of DNTs.
6. In the context of the freedom struggle, write short notes (not exceeding 50 words each) on the following: 5x3=15
(a) 'Benoy-Badal-Dinesh' martyrdom.
Answer:
On 8 December 1930, Benoy along with Dinesh chandra Gupta and Badal Gupta, dressed in European costume, entered the Writers' Building and shot dead Simpson, the Inspector General of Prisons, who was infamous for the brutal oppression on the prisoners. This inspired further revolutionary activities in Bengal. After Independence Dalhousie square was named B.B.D Bagh-after Benoy-Badal-Dinesh.
(b) Bharat Naujavan sabha
Answer:
Bharat Naujavan Sabha was an association of Indian youths which was established at a convention held in April 1928 at the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. The aims of the Sabha were to create a youth wing of peasants and workers with a view to usher in revolution in the country and overthrow the British rule. Bhagat Singh was its secretary and principle organiser.
(c) 'Babbar Akali' movement
Answer:
The Babbar Akali movement, which emerged in the wake of the Akali Movement, and was an underground terrorist movement established in the Jalandhar Doab in 1921. Members fought pitched battles with police and committed acts of violence.
7. Comment on the following in not more than 50 words each: 5x6=30
(a) Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme in India.
Answer:
Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme by by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) means initiating intensive, annual monitoring of tigers at the tiger reserve level, across 41 protected areas in India. This programme is to estimate numbers of both tigers and their prey. This programme is planned to be commenced from November 2011.
(b) Why the Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of Consumer Price Index from this year?
Answer:
The Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of CPI with its base year of 2010 for rural, urban areas and for the nation as a whole. It will give a comprehensive picture of inflation at the national level for retail prices. Government also proposes to use it for giving dearness allowance for government employee in the seventh pay commission.
(c) Composition and functions of the National Executive Committee of the National Disaster Management Authority.
Answer:
The National Executive Committee (NEC) of the National Disaster Management Authority comprises the Union Home Secretary as the Chairperson, and the Secretaries to the GOI in the Ministries/Departments of Agriculture, Atomic Energy, Defence, Drinking Water Supply, Environment and Forests, Finance (Expenditure), Health, Power, Rural Development, Science and Technology, Space, Telecommunications, Urban Development, Water Resources and the Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff of the Chiefs of Staff Committee as members.
(d) The Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 and why it has been in news recently?
Answer:
Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 provides that the property of corrupt persons can be attached even when the probe is under way, if the authorised officer concludes that the acquisition of the property was the result of the offence committed by the accused. Bihar implemented it and some officials came under this Act. Its constitutional validity was questioned in Supreme Court which refused to stay this act.
(e) The Telecommunications Ministry’s proposed Spectrum Management Commission.
Answer:
Spectrum Management Commission is a new entity to manage and regulate spectrum allocation. The Commission will subsume Wireless Planning Coordination wing of the Department of Telecom and will get wider powers including dispute settlement, pricing and regulations related to spectrum. While the DoT will continue to be the licensor, all issues pertaining to spectrum allocation will be brought under Spectrum Management Commission.
(f) The Community-Led Total Sanitation (CLTS) approach to sanitation.
Answer:
CLTS is an innovative methodology for mobilising communities to completely eliminate open defecation (OD). Communities are facilitated to conduct their own appraisal and analysis of open defecation (OD) and take their own action to become ODF (open defecation free). CLTS focuses on the behavioural change needed to ensure real and sustainable improvements. It invests in community mobilisation instead of hardware, and shifting the focus from toilet construction for individual households to the creation of ’open defecation-free’ villages.
8. Attempt the following in not more than 50 words each. 5x4=20
(a) Distinguish either between the ‘Moatsu’ and ‘Yemshe’ festivals of Nagaland or the ‘Losar’ and ‘Khan’ festivals of Arunachal Pradesh.
Answer:
Moatsu Festival is celebrated in Nagaland by the Ao tribe. It is observed every year in the first week of May. During this Nagaland festival, a number of rituals are performed. After sowing the seeds, the Aos observe Moatsu Mong.
The Pochury Tribe celebrates their greatest festival, Yemshe in the month of October every year. During the Yemshe festival, the arrival of the new harvest is celebrated with full fun & fair. The Losar Festival also called as the New Year Festival and it is the most important festival celebrated in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh. Losar is celebrated by the Monpas that forms the major portion of population in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh.
In the Khan festival of Arunachal Pradesh, the social and cultural beliefs of the local tribes can be witnessed. Regardless the different casts and creed, the local tribes unite in the Khan celebration.
(b) Write a sentence each of any five of the following traditional theater forms:
(i) Bhand Pather: It is the traditional theatre form of Kashmir, which is a unique combination of dance, music and acting. Satire, wit and parody are preferred for inducing laughter.
(ii) Swang:
It is a popular folk dance-drama or folk theatre form in Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh. Swang incorporates suitable theatrics and mimicry (or nakal) accompanied by song and dialogue. Swang theatre is
traditionally restricted to men, who also play the female roles.
(iii) Maach:
It is a traditional Hindi theatre form of Madhya Pradesh. It shares the secular nature and characteristics of other north Indian genres like Nautanki and Khyal. Based on religious, historical, romantic, or social themes, it was invented and developed by prominent artists like Guru Gopalji, Guru Balmukund, Kaluram Ustad, and Radhakrishan Ustad.
(iv) Bhaona:
It is a unique festival of Vaishnava theatrical performance in Assam. The performance is marked by a continuous shifting between the classical and the folk, the mundane and the spiritual, providing thousands of spectators a rare aesthetic experience.
(v) Mudiyettu:
It is ritualistic dance drama performed after the harvest of summer crops in Kerala. In 2010, Mudiyettu was included in the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage Lists.
(vi) Dashavatar:
Dashavatar is the most developed theatre form of the Konkan and Goa regions. The performers personify the ten incarnations of Lord Vishnu-the god of preservation and creativity.
(c) What are the major different styles of unglazed pottery making in India?
Answer:
There are three different styles in unglazed pottery making in India. They are - the paper-thin, scrafito and highly polished. Black pottery is another famous form of unglazed pottery in Indian villages and it resembles the Harappan pottery style. In the paper thin pottery, the biscuit coloured pottery is decorated with incised patterns.
(d) List the classical dance forms of India as per the Sangeet Natak Akademy.
Answer:
Sangeet Natak Akademi currently confers classical status on nine Indian dance styles which are Bharatnatyam, Kathak, Gaudiya Nritya, Kathakali, Mohiniyattam, Oddisi, kuchipudi, Sattriya, and Manipuri.
9. Comment on following in not more than 50 words each: 5x5=25
(a) Nisarga-Runa technology of BARC.
Answer:
The Nisarga-Runa technology developed at BARC converts biodegradable solid waste into useful manure and methane. It can be deployed for the dual objectives of waste management as well as for livelihood creation among the urban underprivileged. The 'Nisargruna' technology adopts biphasic reactor system wherein the first reactor is operated under aerobic and thermophilic conditions. As a result of the first feature, the universal problem of odour from waste processing biogas plants is eliminated and the second feature leads to a faster process. Unlike conventional single phase digesters, which take 30-40 days, a 'Nisargruna' plant can digest organic solid waste between 18-22 days.
(b) The first aid that you can safely administer to a person standing next to you at the bus stop who suddenly faints.
Answer:
I would first take the person away from the crowd to an open and safe area. Then I would sprinkle some water on his/her face to bring him/her back to consciousness. If the person does not gain consciousness then mouth to mouth respiration and administering CPR can be considered as the next step. His/her family members or friends should be immediately informed about his/her ill health by a phone call from the contact details from the mobile phone or the purse of the person and can gather information on the person’s medical condition and then accordingly he/she can be taken for medical supervision.
(c) The Kaveri K-10 aero-engine.
Answer:
Kaveri K-10 engine is being developed to be used in the Light Combat Aircraft, Tejas. It is being developed in collaboration of French firm, Snecma. It will have less weight and more reheat thrust to meet the requirements of the Indian Army.
(d) Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) technology
Answer:
Molecular breast imaging (MBI) is three times more effective than mammograms, and far less costly than other nuclear-medicine imaging. Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) uses a dedicated dual-head gamma camera and 99mTc-sestamibi in women having dense breast patterns and additional risk factors for breast cancer.
(e) E-governance initiatives by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
Answer:
UPSC has taken the initiative for getting the forms of several examinations like civil services filled online. It also displays the status of the application form for every candidate on its website. UPSC publishes the syllabus and tentative schedules of various UPSC conducted examinations on its website helping students to plan in advance. UPSC also publishes the various court orders and notifications on the web site and information regarding the RTI petitions on its website.
10. Who are the following and why have they been in the news recently? (each answer should not exceed 20 words): 2x7=14
(a) Lieutenant Navdeep Singh
Answer:
Lieutenant Navdeep Singh laid down his life fighting terrorists during an anti-infiltration operation along LOC in Gurez Sector of north Kashmir.
(b) Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar
Answer:
He was an exponent of Dagar vani Dhrupad, which is one of the most pristine and richest forms of Indian classical music. He represented the 19th generation of Dagar Tradition.
(c) Lobsang Sangay
Answer:
He is the Tibetan Prime Minister in exile. He is a Harvard graduate and a political successor of Dalai Lama.
(d) P.R. Sreejesh
Answer:
P.R. Sreejesh is Hockey Goalkeeper in the Indian Hockey team. He is from Kerela.
(e) Nileema Mishra
Answer:
She is one of the Magsaysay Award winners for 2011.. She is a lender to the poorest in Maharashtra. She was recognised for her purpose-driven zeal to work tirelessly with villagers in Maharashtra.
(f) V.Tejeswini Bai
Answer:
Tejeswini is a Kabbadi player from Karnataka who has represented India from 2005 to 2010 and captained Indian team for four years.
(g) Aishwarya Narkar
Answer:
Aishwarya Narkar is a Marathi actress who also works in the Hindi TV serials. She has received National Film Award from the
President of India.
(a) ‘Essentially all that is contained in part IV- A of the Constitution is just a codification of tasks integral to Indian way of life.’ Critically examine the statement.
Answer:
Article 51A of the part IV-A of the Indian Constitution lists the fundamental duties of the citizens which were added to the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act. Fundamental duties are restrictions on the citizens, but they are not enforceable in a court of law. They act more like a lighthouse to guide citizens’ conduct and bring it in conformity with the Indian way of life. They include abiding the constitution and respecting its ideals and institutions such as the National Flag and the National Anthem. Fundamental Duties also include cherishing and following the noble ideals that inspired our freedom struggle, upholding the sovereignty and integrity of the nation, rendering national services, promoting harmony and brotherhood, renouncing practices derogatory to the dignity of women, safeguarding public property, developing scientific temper etc.
Incidents like destruction of public property by violent mobs and protestors, delivering of hate speeches to cause disharmony and rift among communities, mounting corruption, declining child sex ratio, reports of practices like sati which still is continuing in some parts of the country point towards the fact that the republic has not succeeded completely in instilling the values contained in part IV-A, in the hearts and minds of the Indian citizens.
These values should be taught from the early childhood through a free, fair, secular, and non-discriminatory education system. The society also needs role models from all walks of life such as politics, business, administration, judiciary, academia etc. so that national identity becomes paramount and the values are most cherished.
(b) ‘The exercise of executive clemency is not a privilege but is based on several principles, and discretion has to be exercised in public consideration.’ Analyse this statement in the context of judicial powers of the President of India.
Answer:
Article 72 of the Indian Constitution empowers the president to pardon, remit, commute, respite and reprieves a person of any offence. Supreme Court has held that pardoning power of the President is subject to judicial review and it should not be handled dishonestly in the public interest.
The question of executive clemency has come into focus due to the recent decision of the President’s rejecting the mercy plea of those, convicted in the Rajiv Gandhi assassination case and Tamil Nadu assembly’s passage of a resolution over it. The Afzal Guru case has also not yet been resolved which also is giving political colour to the whole issue.
Supreme Court in its 1989 judgement laid down several principles or ‘do’s’ and ‘don’ts’ with respect to the executive clemency. The apex court observed that the delay in making a decision on the death penalty leads to adverse psychological impact on the convicted and it amounts to the court’s inhuman and brutal treatment. Thus inordinate delay can form the basis for clemency. It also observed that the nature of crime needs to be taken into consideration before granting executive clemency. The conduct of the convicted cannot form the basis for granting clemency and the time calculated should be from the date the final verdict was given on the case if it needs to form the ground for clemency.
Constitution should be amended to provide the time limits within which mercy petition are to be decided. Importantly, the political parties should restrain from politicising the power of the President which is supposed to be used in the public consideration.
(c) Discuss the extent, causes, and implications of ‘nutrition transition’ said to be underway in India.
Answer:
Nutrition Transition can be referred to as the increased consumption of unhealthy foods compounded with increased prevalence of overweight in middle-to-low-income countries. It has serious implications in terms of public health outcomes, risk factors, economic growth and international nutrition policy.
Extent: As developing societies like India industrialise and urbanise, and as standards of living continue to rise, weight gain and obesity are beginning to pose a growing threat to the health of the citizens. Repeated episodes of malnutrition, followed by nutritional rehabilitation, are known to alter body composition and increase the risk of obesity. Food balance data from the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) show that the change in energy intake in Asian countries has been small, but there have been large changes in consumption of animal products, sugars and fats in countries like India. There is a progressive increase in the intake of protein, and probably fats. The increase in the intake of protein and fats is due to the phenomenal increase in the consumption of milk and milk products and an increase in the intake of animal products. On the other hand consumption of pulses and legumes has fallen drastically in India.
Causes: In India, the demographic and epidemiological transition, the forces of internal migration and urbanisation, the changes in food consumption patterns and low physical activity patterns to an epidemic of obesity and other NCDs (Non-communicable Diseases). There is also a decrease in the energy expenditure in occupational activities, increased urbanisation, universal use of motor cars, mechanisation of most manual jobs outside the occupational sphere and increasing leisure time have aggravated this trend in India.
Implications: There is a large increase in the non-communicable diseases (NCDs) in the developing countries specially the countries under transition like India. Approximately 40% of the deaths in the developing countries take place due to NCDs.
(d) Bring out the salient features of the PCPNDT Act, 1994, and the implication of its amendment in 2003.
Answer:
Pre Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Technique Act, 1994 was enacted to arrest the declining sex ration. It is a subject of discussion now because; an all-time low child sex ratio of 914 was reported in the 2011 provisional census data.
The main purpose of enacting the act is to ban the use of sex selection techniques before or after conception and prevent the misuse of prenatal diagnostic technique for sex selective absorption.
Offences under this act include conducting or helping in the conduct of prenatal diagnostic technique in the unregistered units, sex selection on a man or woman, conducting PND test for any purpose other than the one mentioned in the act, sale, distribution, supply, renting etc. of any ultra sound machine or any other equipment capable of detecting sex of the foetus.
The act was amended in 2003 to improve the regulation of the technology used in sex selection.
Implications of PCPNDT Act, 1994 amendment:
1. Amendment of the act mainly covered bringing the technique of pre conception sex selection within the ambit of the act
2. Bringing ultrasound within its ambit
3. Empowering the central supervisory board, constitution of state level supervisory board
4. Provision for more stringent punishments
5. Empowering appropriate authorities with the power of civil court for search, seizure and sealing the machines and equipments of the violators
6. Regulating the sale of the ultrasound machines only to registered bodies
2. Answer one of the following in about 250 words: 20x1=20
(a) Trace the salient sequences of events in popular revolt that took place in February 1946 in the then Royal Indian Navy and bring out its significance in the freedom struggle. Do you agree with the views that the sailors who took part in this revolt were some of the unsung heroes of the freedom struggle?
Answer:
Royal Indian Navy revolt of February 1946 took place in the background of Quit India Movement and Second World War. This was a very turbulent phase in India’s freedom struggle. The popular revolt shook the very foundation of British Raj and made it abundantly clear that their time in India was numbered.
In November 1945 some students from Forward Block, Students Federation of India and Islamia College participated in a protest march over the INA trials. They tied together League, Congress and red flag, as a symbol of anti imperialist unity.
In February 1946, Muslim League students took a protest march in which some Congress students also participated against the seven year sentence to INA prisoner Rashid Ali.
In February 1946, naval ratings of HMIS Talwar went on strike to protest against racial discrimination, unpalatable food, INA trials, and abuse by superior officers. This was followed by city people joining in through mass strikes, hartals, meetings, attacks on police stations, railway station etc. Other parts of the country also expressed support in the form of strikes by Royal Indian Forces in Calcutta, Puna and Bombay.
The upsurge showed that the fearless action by the masses, revolt in armed forces had psychological affect on masses and it also prompted British to extend some concessions but above all it marked the end of British rule in India.
Sailors who took part in the struggle were the unsung heroes as they did not get the level of publicity as that of the INA trials and in the pages of history; they remain anonymous and unknown.
(b) Evaluate the influence of three important women’s organisations of the early twentieth century in India on country’s society and politics. To what extent do you think were the social objectives of these organisations constrained by their political objectives?
Answer:
Bharat Stree Mahamandal, All India Women’s Conference and Women’s India Association were some of the important women’s associations of the early twentieth century. Bharat Stree Mahamandal was the first women's organisation in India founded by Sarala Devi Chaudhurani in Allahabad in 1910. One of the primary goals of the organisation was to promote female education which was not well developed at that time. The organisation opened several offices in Lahore, Allahabad, Delhi, Karachi, Amritsar etc. to improve the condition of women all over India.
All India Women’s Conference was founded in 1927 by Margret cousins having Sarojni Naidu, Lady Dorab Tata as its founding members. It worked towards women’s education, abolition of purdah system, legislative reform, abolition of child marriage, harijan welfare, family planning, and rural reconstruction. These women’s organisations worked for a society based on principles of social justice, integrity, equal rights and opportunities. They wanted security for every human being; the essentials of life not determined by accidental births but by planned social distribution.
Their efforts led to several legislative reforms in Sharda Act (1929), Hindu Women’s Right to Property Act (1937), Factory Act (1947), Hindu Marriage and Divorce Act etc. AIWC efforts also led to setting up of The All India Women’s Education Fund
Association, and Lady Irwin College of Home Science.
Social and educational reforms effort by the women’s associations helped in preparing the Indian women to participate in the freedom struggle. With Mahatma Gandhi women availed an opportunity to get into the scene of freedom struggle.
3. Answer any one of the following in about 250 words: 20x1=20
(a) Critically examine the design of National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) scheme. Do you think it has a better chance of
success than the Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna(SGSY) in achieving its objectives?
Answer:
NRLM is the rechristened version of Swarna Jayanti Swarojgar Yojna (SGSY). It is a Ministry of Rural Development programme. It aims to reduce poverty by enabling the poor household to access gainful self employment and skilled wage employment opportunity resulting in a sustainable livelihood.
NRLM is based on three pillars
1. Enhancing and expanding the existing livelihood options of the poor
2. Building skills for the job market
3. Nurturing self employed and entrepreneurs
NRLM plans to give special focus on the poorest households who are currently dependent on the MGNREGA. The design of
NRLM is more likely to succeed because its implementation is in a mission mode which enables it shift from the present allocation based approach to demand based approach. This enables the states to formulate their own livelihood based on poverty reduction action plans. It also focuses on targets, outcomes, and time bound strategy. The monitoring would be done against the targets of the poverty outcomes. NRLM will have continuous capacity building, imparting of requisite skills and creating linkages with livelihood opportunities for the poor, including those emerging from the organised sector.
NRLM funds will be directly released to the state level agencies and DRDA based on the detailed district wise annual action plan. It will involve the Self Help Group in the implementation which increases the likelihood of its success. National Skill Development Council will also coordinate in the skill development part in the implementation of NRLM. In order to ensure institutional arrangement for skill development for self employment and wage employment, dedicated training institute for rural BPL youth i.e Rural Self Employment Training Institutes (RSETIs) are being set up with the aim of having at least one such institution in each district in India. These RSETIs will be set up with the partnership of banks. This will help in achieving the objectives of NRLM.
(b) Highlight the structure, objectives and role of the Advertising Standard Council of India. In what way has the August 2006
government notification made it more effective?
Answer:
The Advertising Standards Council of India (ASCI), established in 1985, is committed to the cause of Self-Regulation in Advertising, ensuring the protection of the interests of consumers. The ASCI was formed with the support of all four sectors connected with Advertising, viz. Advertisers, Ad Agencies, Media (including Broadcasters and the Press) and others like PR Agencies, Market Research Companies etc. Its main objective is to promote responsible advertising; thus enhancing the public's confidence in Advertising. ASCI thus aims to achieve its own overarching goal i.e., to maintain and enhance the public's confidence in advertising.
The Board of Governors (16 members) ensures equitable representation of Advertisers, Agencies, Media and other Advertising Services, the individual member firms being leaders in their respective industries or services. The Consumer Complaints Council (CCC) (21 members) has 12 Non-Advertising professionals representing civil society, who are eminent and recognised opinion leaders in their respective disciplines such as Medical, Legal, Industrial Design, Engineering, Chemical Technology, Human Resources and Consumer Interest Groups; 9 are advertising practitioners from our member firms.
ASCI is represented in all committees working on advertising content in every Ministry of the Government of India. ASCI’s Code for Self-Regulation in Advertising is now part of ad code under Cable TV Act’s Rules. Violation of ASCI’s Code is now treated as a violation of the government’s rules. ASCI’s membership of The European Advertising Standards Alliance (EASA) ensures that it gets valuable advice, learning and even influence at the international level.
The Consumer Complaints Council is ASCI's heart and soul. It is the dedicated work put in by this group of highly respected people that has given tremendous impetus to the work of ASCI and the movement of self-regulation in the advertising.
In August 2006, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting issued a notification deeming it necessary for all TV commercials in India to abide by the ASCI code. This effort of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting has made the advertising self-regulatory movement in India stronger and more effective.
4. Comment on any five of the following in about 150 words each. 12x5=60
(a) Salient recommendations of the RBI-appointed Damodaran committee on customer service in Banks.
Answer:
The Damodaran Committee on bank customer services has recommended active involvement of the boards of banks to guarantee customer satisfaction. The committee held that customer service and grievance redress should be included as a mandatory parameter in the performance appraisal report of all employees.
The committee has suggested that an agenda on the level of implementation of the Bank's Code of Commitments to Customers and an overview on the grievance redress mechanism in the bank should be placed before the bank every quarter before the Customer Service Committee.
The committee suggets that every board should ensure they have comprehensive policies for customer acceptance, care and severance. The banks should show sensitivity for small customers by ensuring that the pricing (bank charges) does not act as a deterrent for the small person to do banking transactions.
Emphasising on 'customer centricity', the committee recommended that bank boards should evolve human resources policies which should recruit for attitude and train for skills.
(b) Deendayal Disabled Rehabilitation Scheme (DDRS).
Answer:
It is a scheme by the Central Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment. Its funding pattern is up to 90 percent; it is funded by the Central Ministry. The Grant in Aid is released on the basis of recommendations received from the State Government, UTs through State Multi-Disciplinary grant-in-aid committee concerned or any other agency designated by the Ministry. Beneficiary could be an individual, a family, a community, women and Children.
The voluntary organisations are assisted in running rehabilitation centres for leprosy cured persons and also for manpower
development in the field of mental retardation and cerebral palsy. They are also assisted in establishment and development of special schools for major disability areas, viz. Orthopaedic, speech, hearing, visual and mental disability. The NGOs are extended assistance for setting up projects of vocational training to facilitate the disabled persons to be as independent as possible by acquiring basic skills. The Ministry, under the Scheme supports both recurring and non-recurring expenditure of projects by NGOs up to 90 percent.
(c) Evolution of ‘Green Benches’ in our higher judiciary.
Answer:
The Supreme Court of India interpreted Article 21 which guarantees the fundamental right to life and personal liberty, to include the right to a wholesome environment and held that a litigant may assert his or her right to a healthy environment against the State by a writ petition to the Supreme Court or a High Court. Public interest litigation has been used by the higher judiciary to ensure environment protection and safeguard public interest.
Till 1980, not much contribution was made by the courts in preserving the environment. One of the earliest cases which came to the Supreme Court of India was Municipal Council, Ratlam, vs Vardhichand AIR 1980 SC 1622. Thereafter, series of cases were filed before the Supreme Court and there was a dynamic change in the whole approach of the courts in matters concerning environment.
India has now become the third country in the world to start a National Green Tribunal (NGT) which is a judicial body exclusively meant to judge environmental cases. The National Green Tribunal has been established under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of filing of the same. The predecessor to the NGT, the erstwhile National Environment Appellate Authority has been superseded by the NGT.
(d) Distinction between ‘Department Related Parliament Standing committees’ and ‘Parliamentary Forum’.
Answer:
Departmental Standing Committees were created in 1993 to exercise control over the executive; particularly financial control. There are now 2 such committees having 31 members each; 21 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. Members from the Lok Sabha are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, while members from the Rajya Sabha are nominated by the Rajya Sabha Chairman. A minister cannot be nominated as a member of the committee. These committees consider the demand for grants of the concerned ministry. They submit the reports based on which the discussion on budget takes place.
Parliamentary Forums on the other hand are ad hoc in nature and are constituted for specific issues to make the Members of the Parliament aware of the seriousness of the particular situation and to enable them to adopt a result-oriented approach towards these issues. The Parliamentary fora do not interfere in or encroach upon the jurisdiction of the concerned Departmentally Related Standing Committees or the Ministry/Department concerned. Members of these fora are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, as the case may be.
(e) Benefits and potential drawbacks of ‘cash transfers’ to Below Poverty Line Households.
Answer:
Cash transfer has come into discussion due to the leakages in several government schemes like the Public Distribution System. It has been successful in Latin American countries. Cash transfer has some benefits in terms of better targeting of public subsidy, reducing diversion, preventing corruption, and eliminating wastages in transportation and storage of goods like food grains. It also gives flexibility to the citizens in terms of buying the public goods and services. Cash transfer is also suitable for migrating population that moves in search of work.
Cash transfer on the other hand can only succeed if an appropriate IT infrastructure exits, through which cash can be transferred directly to the account of the beneficiary which becomes a challenge in the poor financial inclusion. Cash can be more prone to diversion if proper safeguards are not taken. Moreover cash transfer can work if the public delivery system is in place for e.g. how giving cash for health services will make any difference if there are no hospitals, medicines and doctors in the villages. Factoring inflation into cash transfer is always been a challenge.
(f) New initiatives during the 11th Five Year Plan in the National Programme for Control of Blindness (NPCB).
Answer:
The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA) endorsed and approved a budget of INR 12,500 million for the XI five-year (2007-12) plan period. The enhanced funding and financial allocation to the tune of nearly two-thirds of the previous plan period is indicative of the high political commitment accorded to blindness control activities in the India. With the federal nature of the Indian Constitution, the States are largely independent in matters relating to health delivery. The Central Government’s responsibility consists mainly of policy making, planning, funding, guiding, assisting, evaluating and coordinating the work of state health ministries so that health services cover every part of the country and no state lags behind for want of these services. The NPCB is striving to enhance the capacity of health institutions, health personnel and the community at all levels to address issues under the programme. In the approved XI five-year plan period, schemes with existing/enhanced financial allocation are being implemented along with new initiatives to reduce blindness.
5. Examine any three of the following in about 150 words each. 12x3=36
(a) The impact of climate change on water resources in India.
Answer:
The impact of climate change on water resources in India is evident through erratic monsoon, more frequent floods and droughts, stronger cyclones and rivers changing their course frequently. The severity is also due to the prevailing more than 7000km of coastline.
The changed rainfall pattern has adversely affected ground water recharge, wetlands both coastal and terrestrial. Climate change has resulted in melting of Himalayan glaciers. It has the potential of making the Himalayan Rivers swell first and then turning them into seasonal rivers, threatening the source of freshwater. It can also lead to salt water intrusion and threatening aquaculture and coastal agriculture.
The impact has been severe also because, India is still an agricultural country with its large population being dependant on weather related livelihood through agriculture, forestry, pisciculture etc.
(b) Measures taken by the Indian government to combat piracy in the Indian Ocean.
Answer:
Indian government has used INS Talwar to foil several bids by pirates near the Gulf of Aden. Indian government is coordinating the anti piracy measures at the international level with China, European countries and with the Gulf countries.
Indian government has placed surveillance radars in countries like Maldives and Srilanka to secure the sea lanes in the Indian Ocean. It has signed agreements with Madagascar, Seychelles and Mauritius for anti piracy measures. Government has also taken measures in strengthening the coastal security by equipping and reforming the coast guards. However, incidents like unmanned vessel drifting in the ocean and reaching the coast of Mumbai have highlighted the holes in our coastal security which needs to be plugged.
Supreme Court has recently asked the Central Government to formulate separate piracy law for trying the pirates and to take care of the compensation to the victim’s family. Currently piracy is being dealt under the provisions of Indian Penal Code.
(c) The significance of counter-urbanisation in the improvement of metropolitan cities in India.
Answer:
Counter-urbanisation is a demographic and social process where people move from large urban areas or into rural areas, thereby leapfrogging the rural-urban fringe. It might mean daily commuting, but could also require lifestyle changes and the increased use of ICT (home working or teleworking). It is the process of migration of people from major urban areas to smaller urban settlements and rural areas. Counter-urbanisation affects the layout of rural settlements. Modern housing estates locate of the edge of small settlements. Industrial units are sited on main roads leading into the settlement.
Counter urbanisation will reduce pressure on the metropolitan cities and its basic amenities like drinking water supply, sewage facilities, continuous supply of electricity, education facilities, etc as people move out due to following
(i) Increase in car ownership enabling their movement, growth in information technology (E-mail, faxes and video conferencing) meaning more people can work from home
(ii) Urban areas are becoming increasing unpleasant place to live. This is the result of pollution, crime and traffic congestion.
(iii) More people tend to move when they retire.
(iv) New business parks being developed on the edge of cities (on Greenfield sites) meaning people no longer have to travel to the city centre. People now prefer to live on the outskirts of the city to be near where they work.
(d) Problems specific to the denotified and nomadic tribes in India.
Answer:
Post Independence the Criminal Tribe Act 1871 was replaced; and criminal tribe nomenclature was replaced with denotified tribe (DNTs) which is still considered derogatory. They have been discriminated; British government included some of the tribes like Gonds, Ho and Santhals under this categorisation as they had rebelled against the British Raj.
A major challenge in the intervention comes due dispersed nature of the tribes and having a nomadic culture surviving on shifting cultivation. This results in health and educational services a challenging task to deliver. It also makes the implementation of nutritional initiative like addressing iodine deficiency a challenging task. Preservation of their culture, script, practices also get hampered due to the same reason. Two different opinions arise with regard to the reservation for the DNTs to raise their social and economic conditions. One view supports providing reservation within existing group of SCs, STs and OBCs while the other view supports creating a new group for the reservation of DNTs.
6. In the context of the freedom struggle, write short notes (not exceeding 50 words each) on the following: 5x3=15
(a) 'Benoy-Badal-Dinesh' martyrdom.
Answer:
On 8 December 1930, Benoy along with Dinesh chandra Gupta and Badal Gupta, dressed in European costume, entered the Writers' Building and shot dead Simpson, the Inspector General of Prisons, who was infamous for the brutal oppression on the prisoners. This inspired further revolutionary activities in Bengal. After Independence Dalhousie square was named B.B.D Bagh-after Benoy-Badal-Dinesh.
(b) Bharat Naujavan sabha
Answer:
Bharat Naujavan Sabha was an association of Indian youths which was established at a convention held in April 1928 at the Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar. The aims of the Sabha were to create a youth wing of peasants and workers with a view to usher in revolution in the country and overthrow the British rule. Bhagat Singh was its secretary and principle organiser.
(c) 'Babbar Akali' movement
Answer:
The Babbar Akali movement, which emerged in the wake of the Akali Movement, and was an underground terrorist movement established in the Jalandhar Doab in 1921. Members fought pitched battles with police and committed acts of violence.
7. Comment on the following in not more than 50 words each: 5x6=30
(a) Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme in India.
Answer:
Phase-IV of the tiger monitoring programme by by the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) means initiating intensive, annual monitoring of tigers at the tiger reserve level, across 41 protected areas in India. This programme is to estimate numbers of both tigers and their prey. This programme is planned to be commenced from November 2011.
(b) Why the Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of Consumer Price Index from this year?
Answer:
The Central Statistical Office has notified a new series of CPI with its base year of 2010 for rural, urban areas and for the nation as a whole. It will give a comprehensive picture of inflation at the national level for retail prices. Government also proposes to use it for giving dearness allowance for government employee in the seventh pay commission.
(c) Composition and functions of the National Executive Committee of the National Disaster Management Authority.
Answer:
The National Executive Committee (NEC) of the National Disaster Management Authority comprises the Union Home Secretary as the Chairperson, and the Secretaries to the GOI in the Ministries/Departments of Agriculture, Atomic Energy, Defence, Drinking Water Supply, Environment and Forests, Finance (Expenditure), Health, Power, Rural Development, Science and Technology, Space, Telecommunications, Urban Development, Water Resources and the Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff of the Chiefs of Staff Committee as members.
(d) The Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 and why it has been in news recently?
Answer:
Bihar Special Courts Act, 2009 provides that the property of corrupt persons can be attached even when the probe is under way, if the authorised officer concludes that the acquisition of the property was the result of the offence committed by the accused. Bihar implemented it and some officials came under this Act. Its constitutional validity was questioned in Supreme Court which refused to stay this act.
(e) The Telecommunications Ministry’s proposed Spectrum Management Commission.
Answer:
Spectrum Management Commission is a new entity to manage and regulate spectrum allocation. The Commission will subsume Wireless Planning Coordination wing of the Department of Telecom and will get wider powers including dispute settlement, pricing and regulations related to spectrum. While the DoT will continue to be the licensor, all issues pertaining to spectrum allocation will be brought under Spectrum Management Commission.
(f) The Community-Led Total Sanitation (CLTS) approach to sanitation.
Answer:
CLTS is an innovative methodology for mobilising communities to completely eliminate open defecation (OD). Communities are facilitated to conduct their own appraisal and analysis of open defecation (OD) and take their own action to become ODF (open defecation free). CLTS focuses on the behavioural change needed to ensure real and sustainable improvements. It invests in community mobilisation instead of hardware, and shifting the focus from toilet construction for individual households to the creation of ’open defecation-free’ villages.
8. Attempt the following in not more than 50 words each. 5x4=20
(a) Distinguish either between the ‘Moatsu’ and ‘Yemshe’ festivals of Nagaland or the ‘Losar’ and ‘Khan’ festivals of Arunachal Pradesh.
Answer:
Moatsu Festival is celebrated in Nagaland by the Ao tribe. It is observed every year in the first week of May. During this Nagaland festival, a number of rituals are performed. After sowing the seeds, the Aos observe Moatsu Mong.
The Pochury Tribe celebrates their greatest festival, Yemshe in the month of October every year. During the Yemshe festival, the arrival of the new harvest is celebrated with full fun & fair. The Losar Festival also called as the New Year Festival and it is the most important festival celebrated in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh. Losar is celebrated by the Monpas that forms the major portion of population in Tawang, Arunachal Pradesh.
In the Khan festival of Arunachal Pradesh, the social and cultural beliefs of the local tribes can be witnessed. Regardless the different casts and creed, the local tribes unite in the Khan celebration.
(b) Write a sentence each of any five of the following traditional theater forms:
(i) Bhand Pather: It is the traditional theatre form of Kashmir, which is a unique combination of dance, music and acting. Satire, wit and parody are preferred for inducing laughter.
(ii) Swang:
It is a popular folk dance-drama or folk theatre form in Rajasthan, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Malwa region of Madhya Pradesh. Swang incorporates suitable theatrics and mimicry (or nakal) accompanied by song and dialogue. Swang theatre is
traditionally restricted to men, who also play the female roles.
(iii) Maach:
It is a traditional Hindi theatre form of Madhya Pradesh. It shares the secular nature and characteristics of other north Indian genres like Nautanki and Khyal. Based on religious, historical, romantic, or social themes, it was invented and developed by prominent artists like Guru Gopalji, Guru Balmukund, Kaluram Ustad, and Radhakrishan Ustad.
(iv) Bhaona:
It is a unique festival of Vaishnava theatrical performance in Assam. The performance is marked by a continuous shifting between the classical and the folk, the mundane and the spiritual, providing thousands of spectators a rare aesthetic experience.
(v) Mudiyettu:
It is ritualistic dance drama performed after the harvest of summer crops in Kerala. In 2010, Mudiyettu was included in the UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage Lists.
(vi) Dashavatar:
Dashavatar is the most developed theatre form of the Konkan and Goa regions. The performers personify the ten incarnations of Lord Vishnu-the god of preservation and creativity.
(c) What are the major different styles of unglazed pottery making in India?
Answer:
There are three different styles in unglazed pottery making in India. They are - the paper-thin, scrafito and highly polished. Black pottery is another famous form of unglazed pottery in Indian villages and it resembles the Harappan pottery style. In the paper thin pottery, the biscuit coloured pottery is decorated with incised patterns.
(d) List the classical dance forms of India as per the Sangeet Natak Akademy.
Answer:
Sangeet Natak Akademi currently confers classical status on nine Indian dance styles which are Bharatnatyam, Kathak, Gaudiya Nritya, Kathakali, Mohiniyattam, Oddisi, kuchipudi, Sattriya, and Manipuri.
9. Comment on following in not more than 50 words each: 5x5=25
(a) Nisarga-Runa technology of BARC.
Answer:
The Nisarga-Runa technology developed at BARC converts biodegradable solid waste into useful manure and methane. It can be deployed for the dual objectives of waste management as well as for livelihood creation among the urban underprivileged. The 'Nisargruna' technology adopts biphasic reactor system wherein the first reactor is operated under aerobic and thermophilic conditions. As a result of the first feature, the universal problem of odour from waste processing biogas plants is eliminated and the second feature leads to a faster process. Unlike conventional single phase digesters, which take 30-40 days, a 'Nisargruna' plant can digest organic solid waste between 18-22 days.
(b) The first aid that you can safely administer to a person standing next to you at the bus stop who suddenly faints.
Answer:
I would first take the person away from the crowd to an open and safe area. Then I would sprinkle some water on his/her face to bring him/her back to consciousness. If the person does not gain consciousness then mouth to mouth respiration and administering CPR can be considered as the next step. His/her family members or friends should be immediately informed about his/her ill health by a phone call from the contact details from the mobile phone or the purse of the person and can gather information on the person’s medical condition and then accordingly he/she can be taken for medical supervision.
(c) The Kaveri K-10 aero-engine.
Answer:
Kaveri K-10 engine is being developed to be used in the Light Combat Aircraft, Tejas. It is being developed in collaboration of French firm, Snecma. It will have less weight and more reheat thrust to meet the requirements of the Indian Army.
(d) Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) technology
Answer:
Molecular breast imaging (MBI) is three times more effective than mammograms, and far less costly than other nuclear-medicine imaging. Molecular Breast Imaging (MBI) uses a dedicated dual-head gamma camera and 99mTc-sestamibi in women having dense breast patterns and additional risk factors for breast cancer.
(e) E-governance initiatives by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC)
Answer:
UPSC has taken the initiative for getting the forms of several examinations like civil services filled online. It also displays the status of the application form for every candidate on its website. UPSC publishes the syllabus and tentative schedules of various UPSC conducted examinations on its website helping students to plan in advance. UPSC also publishes the various court orders and notifications on the web site and information regarding the RTI petitions on its website.
10. Who are the following and why have they been in the news recently? (each answer should not exceed 20 words): 2x7=14
(a) Lieutenant Navdeep Singh
Answer:
Lieutenant Navdeep Singh laid down his life fighting terrorists during an anti-infiltration operation along LOC in Gurez Sector of north Kashmir.
(b) Rahim Fahimuddin Dagar
Answer:
He was an exponent of Dagar vani Dhrupad, which is one of the most pristine and richest forms of Indian classical music. He represented the 19th generation of Dagar Tradition.
(c) Lobsang Sangay
Answer:
He is the Tibetan Prime Minister in exile. He is a Harvard graduate and a political successor of Dalai Lama.
(d) P.R. Sreejesh
Answer:
P.R. Sreejesh is Hockey Goalkeeper in the Indian Hockey team. He is from Kerela.
(e) Nileema Mishra
Answer:
She is one of the Magsaysay Award winners for 2011.. She is a lender to the poorest in Maharashtra. She was recognised for her purpose-driven zeal to work tirelessly with villagers in Maharashtra.
(f) V.Tejeswini Bai
Answer:
Tejeswini is a Kabbadi player from Karnataka who has represented India from 2005 to 2010 and captained Indian team for four years.
(g) Aishwarya Narkar
Answer:
Aishwarya Narkar is a Marathi actress who also works in the Hindi TV serials. She has received National Film Award from the
President of India.
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