1. The memory of a computer is usually measured in ––
A. Bits B. Bytes C. RAM D. PROM
2. Which of the following requirements must be strictly satisfied by a system in thermo dynamical equilibrium?
A. Mechanical equilibrium B. Thermal equilibrium
C. Chemical equilibrium D. All of the above
3. The force of attraction between earth and an apple is——
A. Gravity B. Electrostatic Force C. Elastic force D. None
4. A body falling freely under the action of gravity has
A. No weight B. Minimum weight C. Maximum weight
D. No effect on its weight
5. Who among the following discovered law of photo electric effect, general theory of relativity etc.
A. Hertz B. Einstein C. Fredrich D. Knipping
6. Which of the following metals show photo-electric effect with ultra-violet light ?
A. Lithium, Sodium, potassium B. potassium, cesium, zinc
C. Zinc, cadmium, magnesium D. magnesium, sodium, cesium
7. Semiconductor meterials are –––––
A. those which do not conduct electricity B. those which conduct electricity partially
C. those which conduct electricity wholly D. All of the above
8. A person can swim comfortably in water. This is due to –––––––
A. Pascal’s law B. Archimede’s principle
C. Newton’s third law D. None of the above
9. Which of the following element when added to a pure germanium crystal forms n-type extrinsic semi-conductor
A. Gallium B. Aluminium C. Antimony D. Indium
10. The method of Radio-carbon dating is used to find the age of –––––
A. fossils B. stars C. Skeletons D. Trees
11. One gm. Wt is equal to
A. 9.8 ergs B. 9.8 dynes C. 980 ergs D. 980 dynes
12. The unit of energy is
A. Watt B. Pound C. Joule D. Newtons
13. Longitudinal waves do not exhibit
A. polarisation B. diffraction C. interference D. dispersion
14. What is the source of electrical energy in an artificial satellite ?
A. Thermopile B. Solarcell C. Mini nuclear reactorD. Dynamo
15. Sound waves cannot travel in
A. solid B. hydrogen C. Oil D. Vacuum
16. Inertia is the property of
A. mass B. volume C. strength D. all the above
17. Movement of a body in a circular path is due to
A. centrifugal forceB. centripetal force C. Artificial force D. Linear force
18. The theory behind the lever and pulleys was first demonstrated by
A. Archimedes B. Newton C. Albert Einstein D. Foucault
19. Example for non-renewable sources of energy is–––
A. Hydrogen B. Petrol C. Geo thermal energy D. Biomass
20. When a cycle is driven on an oily road, it slips because on such roads
A. Friction between tyres and road decreases
B. Friction between tyres and road increases
C. Inertia of tyres increases D. None of the above.
21. Rainbow is caused due to
A. Reflection of sun’s rays from water drops
B. Dispersion of sun’s rays from water drops
C. Total internal reflection from sun’s rays D. None of these
22. Finger prints on a piece of paper may be defected by sprinkling fluorescent powder on the paper and then looking at it in
A. sunlight B. infrared light C. Ultraviolet light D. None of these
23. If train is traveling with the velocity of light, its length would be
A. Infinite B. Zero C. very small or very large
D. None of the above
24. A needle or a pin floats on the surface of water because of
A. surface tension B. viscosity C.. higher weight D. capillarity
25. Light emitted from the sun takes approximately —— to reach the earth
A. 50 seconds B. 10 seconds C. 500 seconds D. 1000 seconds
26. When a man circles round the earth in a satellite, his
A. mass becomes zero but weight remains the same
B. mass remains constant by weight becomes zero
C. mass and weight remains constant D. both mass and weight becomes zero
27. The Milky way ——
A. is stationary B. is not stationary C. revolves sometimes D. never revolves
28. ‘Lyra’, ‘Vega’ and ‘Orion’ are the names of
A. Galaries B. Cosmic rays C. Constellations D. None of these
29. Persistence of vision is the principles behind
A. periscope B. spectroscope C. cinema D. camera
30. In what type of trays will ice cubes be formed more quickly in a freezer ?
A. Wooden trays B. Plastic trays C. Rubber trays D. Aluminium trays
31. In the walking of man ——— is involved
A. Newton’s Ist law B. Newton’s IInd law
C. Newton’s IIIrd law D. None of the above
32. Gravitational forces are
A. The weakest force in nature B. The strongest force in nature
C. Ineffective in nature D. None of the above
33. If a person sitting in a boat in a river throws a large stone with a large velocity, the boat will
A. Move in forward direction B. Move in backward direction
C. Remain stationary D. Oscillate in its position
34. Sound energy is converted into electrical energy by the
A. microphone B. Loud speaker C. telephone D. Ear phone
35. In gases an ultrasonic wave is
A. longitudinal only B. both (A) & (C) C. transverse only D. Neither (A) or (C)
36. “Hydro power” is the term used for electricity produced through
A. Atomic power B. Water C. Mineral oil D. Coal
37. —— was the first to realize that the moon is a satellite of the earth
A. Kepler B. Newton C. Einstein D. Galileo
38. The force due to a magnet is
A. Variable force B. Same at different points
C. Electric in nature D. None of the above
39. A person pushing against a wall
A. Does work B. Does no work unless wall in moved C. produces displacement
D. is wasting his time
40. Why does the human body perspire in summer ?
A. To maintain a constant normal body temperature B. To relax
C. To get more energy D. To intake more cool air.
41. The wave length of thermal radiations is ———— that of visible light
A. More than B. Lesser than C. Equal to D. None of these
42. Light waves and radio waves are
A. Transverse waves B. Longitudinal waves C. Elastic waves D. None of the above
43. The sound heard after reflection from a rigid obstacle is
A. an echo B. refraction of the sound C. Dispersion D. Diffusion
44. The audible range for human ear is
A. 20 Hz to 2000 Hz B. 20 Hz to 200 Hz
C. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz D. 20 Hz to 20 kHz
45. The unit of frequency is
A. Meter/second B. Meter C. Second D. Hertz
46. During compression in longitudinal waves
A. Particles of a medium are closer to one another and there is a momentary reduction in
volume of the medium
B. Particles of a medium are further apart than is normal and there is a momentary increase in the volume
C. Particles remains at their normal positions D. None of the above
47. The distance of distinct vision for a normal eye is
A. 25 metres B. 250 centimetres C. 25 centimetres D. 0.25 centimetres
48. When a magnet is broken into two pieces, it acts as a
A. North pole B. South pole C. Magnet D. Non-magnetic substance
49. The S.I. unit of magnetic flux is
A. Tesla B. Weber C. Maxwell D. Gauss
50. The S.I unit of intensity of magnetic field is
A. Weber B. Tesla C. Gauss D. Ampere
51. In India the fast breeder reactor is installed at
A. Trombay B. Kalpakkam C. Tarapur D. Narora
52. Which cannot be included in fossil fuels ?
A. Petroleum B. Natural gas C. Wood charcoal D. Coal
53. Two objects losing the same weight when immersed in water must have the same
A. weight in air B. weight in water C. volume D. density
54. The main source of energy in the biosphere is
A. electricity B. fire wood C. sun D. plants
55. The voltage between any two phases in the three phase system is
A. 1100V B. 400 V C. 220 V D. 110V
56. Dynamo was invented by
A. Newton B. Einstein C. Faraday D. Edison
57. Who was the first chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission of India ?
A. Vikram Sarabhai B. Dr. Homi J. Bhaba C. U.R. Rao D. M.G.K. Menon
58. The planet nearest to the Earth is
A. Venus B. Mars C. Pluto D. Neptune
59. Pasteurization is a process of
A. cooling the milk to 00C B. heating the milk to boiling
C. cooling the milk followed by moderate heating
D. moderate heating followed by cooling.
60. Water freezes at
A. 10°C B. -32°C C. -1°C D. 32°F
61. The X-ray spectra is
A. discrete B. continuous C. series of lines separated by a distance
D. none of these
62. The fact that the compass needle does not point true north was observed first by
A. Newton B. Columbus c. Archimedes D. Edison
63. The base of the binary system is
A. 10 B. 20 C. 4 D. 2
64. The defect in a lens due to its prismatic action is known as
A. chromatic aberration B. spherical aberration
C. Monochromatic aberration D. Myopia
65. In a refrigerator, the refrigerant is
A. Nitrogen B. Oxygen C. Chlorine D. Freon
66. The platinum – Resistance thermometer was first designed by
A. Celsium B. Siemen C. Fahrenheit D. Callender and Griffiths
67. When water in a bucket is whirled fast overhead, the water does not fall out at the top of the motion because
A. the centripetal force on the water is greater than its weight
B. the centripetal force on the water is less than the weight of the water
C. atmospheric pressure counteracts the weight.
D. the reaction of the bucket on the water is zero
68. When milk is churned, cream separates from it due to the
A. Cohesive force B. Centripetal force C. gravitational force D. adhesive force
69. Bat can fly in the dark because
A. they have a better vision in the dark
B. the pupils of their eype are every big
C. They are guided by ultrasonic waves produced by them D. any birds can do so
70. Torricelli is the unit of
A. volume B. pressure C. density D. temperature
71. As a boat moves from fresh water into the salt water, its water mark will
A. go upward B. go down ward C. remain the same
D. depend on the material of the boat
72. In a electric bulb, air is completely removed to prevent
A. efficiency of the bulb B. high resistance of the tungsten
C. high melting point of tungsten D. Oridation of tungsten
73. The small drops of mercury are spherical because the surface area is
A. minimum B. maximum C. zero D. none of the above
74. The surface tension of liquids
A. increases with the rise of temperature B. decreases with the rise of temperature
C. is independent of temperature D. increases randomly with temperature
75. Two pieces of glass plates one over the other with a little water in between them cannot be seperated because of the
A. surface tension B. viscosity C. inertia D. pressure
76. The theory that was developed by Max Planck is
A. wave theory B. quantum theory C. kinetic theory D. none of the above
77. Cobalt – 60 is commonly used in radiation therapy because it emits
A. alpha rays B. beta rays C. gamma rays D. x-rays
78. Which one of the following is a longitudinal wave ?
A. Light wave B. sound wave C. micro wave D. Radio wave
79. One Astronomical unit is the average distance between
A. Earth and the sun B. Earth and the moon
C. Jupiter and the sun D. Pluto and the sun
80. A ‘black hole’ is a body in space which does not allow any radiation to come out. This property is due to its
A. very small size B. very large size C. very high density D. very low density
81. A person is moving towards a plane mirror with a speed of 1m/sec. The image will approach the moving person with a relative speed of
A. ½ m/sec B. 1 m/ sec C. 2 m/sec D. 3 m/sec
82. Domestic electrical wiring is basically a
A. Series connection. B. Parallel connection
C. Combination of series and parallel connections.
D. Neither series nor parallel connections.
83. The working of the quartz crystal in the watch is based on the
A. photo electric effect B. Johnson effect C. Piezo-electric effort D. Edison effect.
84. The term “Mach” is used to measure speed of
A. sound B. wind C. ship D. Aeroplanes
85. Which temperature is equal in Celsius and Fareheits thermometer ?
A. -40 B. 212 C. 40 D. 100
86. The normal temperature of human body on the Kelvin scale is
A. 280 K B. 290 K C. 300 K D. 310 K
87. A man starts walking from a point towards North-East direction. After moving 500 metres he turns towards south and covers a distance 400 metres. At the end he reaches a point.
A. 300 metre North from staring point B. 100 metre North – East from starting point
C. 300 metre East from starting point D. 100 metre North from starting point.
88. A hydrogen – inflated polythene balloon is released from the surface of the earth. As the balloon rises to an altitude up in the atmosphere, it will
A. decrease in size B. flatten into a disc-like shape
C. increase in size D. maintain the same size and shape
89. The nature of light is a
A. wave like B. particle like C. both wave and particle like D. none of these
90. X-rays were discovered by
A. Rutherford B. Bohr C. Rontgen D. Fresnel
91. The property of a liquid owing to which it opposes the relative motion of its various parts is called its
A. surface tension B. critical velocity C. viscosity D. velocity gradient
92. The accumulation of snow on wings of an aeroplane may reduce the lift as
A. weight of the wings changes B. shape of the wings changes
C. overall weight of the aeroplane increases D. none of the above
93. In aeroplanes, we use polaroids to
A. control speed B. control amount of light coming inside
C. control direction D. None of the above
94. The wave theory of light was put forward by
A. Christian Huygens B. Newton C. Max Plank D. Einstein
95. On mixing some detergent with pure water, the cleaning property of water improves because of
A. low surface tension B. low density C. low viscosity D. laminar flow
96. The human ear is
A. more sensitive to sound of low intensity B. less sensitive to sound of low intensity
C. equally sensitive to sound of all intensities D. not sensitive to sound of low intensity
97. If one of the prongs of a turning fork gets broken the vibrations
A. cannot be maintained B. are maintained at the same frequency
C. are maintained at a lower frequency D. are maintained at a higher frequency
98. Which of the following instruments is not used for measuring thermal radiations
A. Bolometer B. Boy’s radio micrometer C. Crooke’s radiometer
D. Pyrometer
99. Which of the following will radiate more heat ?
A. White polished surface B. White rough surface
C.Black polished surface D. Black rough surface
100.Lift was invented by
A. Edison B. Graham Bell C. James watt D. Ottis
Answers
1 B 2 D 3 A 4 A 5 B 6 C 7 B 8 C 9 C 10 A 11 D 12 C 13 A 14 B 15 D 16 A 17 B 18 A 19 B 20 A 21 B 22 C 23 B 24 A 25 C 26 B 27 B 28 C 29 C 30 D 31 C 32 A 33 B 34 A 35 A 36 B 37 B 38 A 39 B 40 A
41 A 42 A 43 A 44 C 45 D 46 A 47 C 48 C 49 B 50 B 51 B 52 C 53 D 54 C 55 B 56 C 57 B 58 A 59 D 60 D 61 B 62 B 63 D 64 A 65 D 66 B 67 A 68 B 69 B 70 B 71 B 72 D 73 A 74 B 75 A 76 B 77 B 78 B 79 A 80 C 81 C 82 B 83 C 84 D 85 A 86 D 87 C 88 D 89 C 90 C 91 C 92 B 93 B 94 A 95 A 96 A 97 A 98 D 99 D 100D
Thursday, 20 October 2011
GENERAL SCIENCE PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. LASER is
A. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation.
B. Light amplified by simultaneous emission of radiation
C. Light amplification by super emission of radiation.
D. None of the above.
2. The energy possessed by the water collected in the reservoir of a dam
A. Kinetic energy
B. Mechanical energy
C. Electric energy
D. Potential energy
3. Laws of electrolysis was given by
A. Arrhenius
B. Bronsted – Lowery
C. Faraday
D. Ostwald
4. The unit of electric charge is
A. Ampere
B. Ohm
C. Volt
D. Coulomb
5. In an electrochemical cell, electrons flow from
A. Cathode to anode
B. Anode to cathode
C. Either cathode or anode
D. None of the above
6. The correct form of Einsteins mass-energy equation is _____
A. E = mc
B. E = mc2
C. M = ec
D. m = Ec2
7. Acceleration due to gravity on the moon is the acceleration 1/6th due to gravity on earth. If a balloon filled with the hydrogen is released on the moon
A. falls with acceleration g/6
B. falls with acceleration less than g/6
C. rises with uniform velocity
D. rises with acceleration less than g/6
8. Which mirror is used as rear view mirror in vehicles
A. convex mirror
B. Concave mirror
C. plane mirror
D. metallic mirror
9. Optical fibres are related with
A. communication
B. light
C. computer
D. None of these
10. Brilliance of diamond is due to
A. shape
B. Cutting
C. reflection
D. total internal refection
11. One can not see through fog because
A. fog absorbs light
B. the refractive index of fog is infinity
C. light suffers total reflection at the droplet in a fog
D. light is scattered by droplets in fog.
12. Golden view of sea shell is due to
A. diffraction
B. dispersion
C. polarization
D. reflection
13. Cyclotron is a device to
A. Accelerate neutrons
B. Accelerate electrons
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
14. If a stationary charge is put inside a magnetic field, then the charge will
A. move in straight line
B. move in circle
C. more in helix
D. remain stationary
15. At the magnetic poles of the earth, a compass needle will be
A. Bent slightly vertical
B. Vertical
C. Horizontal
D. Inclined at 450 to the horizontal
16. When sugar is added to water, the surface tension of sugar solution is
A. More than that of water
B. The same as that of water
C. Less than that of water
D. Uncertain
17. An astronaut can’t hear his companion at the surface of the moon because :
A. Produced frequencies are above the audio frequencies
B. There is no medium for sound propagation
C. Temperature is too during night and too high during day
D. There are too many craters on the surface of the moon
18. The ear phone of a telephone converts
A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
B. Sound energy into electrical energy
C. Electrical energy into sound energy
D. Electrical energy into mechanical energy
19. Earthquake is measured by
A. Seismograph
B. Electroscope
C. Barometer
D. None of these
20. Pitch of a sound depends upon its
A. wave length
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. Overtones
21. Thermopile is used to
A. Measure electric current
B. Measure potential difference
C. Detect the pressure of heat radiation
D. None of the above
22. Rectifier is used for
A. Giving constant current
B. Giving constant voltage
C. Converting DC to AC
D. Converting AC to DC
23. Most of the light rays inside a tube-light is in the form of ____
A. infrared light
B. visible light
C. ultra-violet light
D. Bright light
24. The triode was designed by
A. Edison
B. Le.De.Forest
C. Flemming
D. Richardson
25. Electromagnetic waves transport
A. Electric charge
B. Alternating current
C. Energy
D. Wave length
26. The back side of the stage of an auditorium should be
A. straight
B. elliptic
C. parabolic
D. None of the above
27. Which of the following pairs are not inter-related to each other ?
A. Carat-gold
B. Decibel-sound
C. Horse power-power
D. Ohm-acceleration
28. Thermal state of a body is defined by
A. Temperature
B. Heat
C. Cold
D. None of the above
29. The temperature of the sun can be calculated from
A. Newton’s law of motion
B. Einstein’s law of relativity
C. Wein’s law of displacement
D. Cannot be calculated
30. The a- ray and b- ray in radioactivity was found by
A. Madam Curie
B. Rutherford
C. Becquerel
D. Kaufmann
31. The half life of 14C is
A. 5692 × 1010 years
B. 5692 years
C. 6592 years
D. 6592 ×1010 years
32. A binary digit is called
A. word
B. code
C. bit
D. Digit
33. The force keeping the planets in a regular orbit is
A. Electrostatic
B. Magnetic
C. Gravitational
D. Nuclear
34. Venturi meter is used to measure
A. The mass of the liquid
B. The density of the liquid
C. the rate of flow of the liquid
D. None of the above
35. When a soap bubble is charged, it is found to be
A. increased in size
B. Decreased in size
C. of the same size
D. varing in the size depending on the amount of the charge
36. The scientist who was conferred with all the three national awards : Padma Bhushan, Padma Vibhushan and Bharat Ratna.
A. Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
B. Dr. Raja Ramanna
C. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul kalam
D. Dr. Homi.J.Bhabha
37. A cylindrical lens is required to correct
A. Astigmatism
B. Myopia
C. Presbyopia
D. Hyper metropia
38. Skating on ice is possible because of
A. friction
B. regulation
C. sublimation
D. Evaporation
39. Cathode rays consists of
A. Positively charged particles
B. Negatively charged particles
C. Neutral particles
D. None of the above
40. The number of neutrons in an Uranium atom, 238U92 is
A. 92
B. 238
C. 330
D. 146
41. Germanium is
A. conductor
B. Insulator
C. Semi-conductor
D. Metal
42. Electronics is the study of
A. flow of electrons
B. flow of molecules
C. flow of photons
D. flow of elements
43. The smallest particle of a substance that can exist in free state are
A. Atoms
B. Ions
C. Molecules
D. Electrons
44. With rise in temperature, the resistance of metals
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains same
D. None of the above
45. The resistance of mercury disappears at
A. 00C
B. below 40K
C. Above 40C
D. 1000C
46. Colour of thin films result from
A. Scattering of light
B. Dispersion of light
C. Interference of light
D. Absorption of light
47. The instrument used for electrolysis is
A. Watt meter
B. Volta meter
C. Volt meter
D. Ammeter
48. Friction can be reduced by changing over from
A. potential to kinetic energy
B. sliding to rolling
C. dynamic to static
D. rolling to sliding
49. If the earth is assumed to be a homogenous sphere and if, some how, it contracts to half its present size, the duration of the day will be
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
50. Which of following statements is incorrect ?
A. The mass of a body is not the same as its weight
B. The mass is a measure of quantity of matter whereas weight is a force
C. The mass of a body varies from place to place but its weight remains constant.
D.In the MKS system, mass is expressed in kilogram and weight in Newton.
51. If a conductor is touched by hand, the charge would leak to
A. body of man
B. only to the hand
C. Earth
D. the charge will not leak
52. Diffusion of light in atmosphere takes place due to
A. Carbondioxide
B. Dust particles
C. Helium
D. Water vapour
53. A plant with green leaves placed in red light will appear
A. Black
B. Green
C. Red
D. Violet
54. A tennis ball will bounce
A. higher on hills than on plains
B. higher on plains than on hills
C. equally on hills and plains
D. higher either on hills or on plains depending upon the ground friction.
55. Name the first Indian Astronaut
A. Kalpana Chawla
B. Rakesh Sharma
C. Kalpana Chaudhari
D. Chokila Iyer
56. The invisible water vapour in the atmosphere is termed as –––––––
A. Smog
B. Dewpoint
C. Humidity
D. Hoar frost
57. Meniscus of mercury in capillary is
A. concave
B. convex
C. plane
D. Cylindrical
58. When there are no external forces, the shape of a liquid drop is determined by
A. surface tension of the liquid
B. density of the liquid
C. Viscosity of the liquid
D. temperature of air only
59. A good lubricant should have
A. high viscosity
B. low viscosity
C. moderate viscosity
D. high density
60. A ring shaped piece of metal is heated. If the material expands, the hole will
A. expand
B. contract
C. expand or contract depending on the width of the ring
D. expand or contract depending on the value of the coefficient of expansion.
61. Solar energy is received by the earth through
A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Refraction
62. Water pipes burst in severe winter at hill stations because
A. They contract on cooling
B. Water in the pipe expands on freezing
C. Water in the pipes contract
D. Pipes expand on cooling.
63. Which waves are used in sonography ?
A. microwaves
B. infra-red rays
C. sound waves
D. ultrasonic waves
64. Velocity of sound in vacuum (in m/s) is
A. 0
B. 340
C. 156
D. 1000
65. Who said, ‘A body will remain at rest unless an external force acts on the body ?
A. Newton
B. Einstein
C. Archimedes
D. Galileo
66. An echo is heard when minimum distance of the reflecting surface is
A. 10 cm
B. 17 m
C. 34 m
D. 340 m
67. When ice metts in a beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. first increase then decrease
68. Unit of power is
A. watt
B. Decibel
C. Ampere
D. Volt
69. Insulators are substances with
A. free electrons
B. Bound electrons
C. (A) & (B)
D. None of the above
70. Which of the following electro magnetic waves are used in telecommunication ?
A. x-rays
B. Infrared
C. Microwaves
D. Ultraviolet
71. The radioactive element which is used for finding the age of fossils is ——
A. 6C12
B. 6C14
C. Radio active nitrogen
D. Radio active oxygen
72. The Indira Gandhi Atomic Research Centre is located in ———
A. Maharastra
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Karnataka
73. The velocity of light is maximum in
A. diamond
B. water
C. vacuum
D. glass
74. In radioactivity, the mass number and the atomic number of a radio active nucleus does not change when it emits
A. An alpha particle
B. A beta particle
C. A gamma ray
D. All the three
75. The unit of electric charge is
A. ampere
B. Ohm
C. volt
D. coulomb
76. The distance traveled by a body in unit time is termed as
A. Velocity
B. Acceleration
C. Speed
D. Displacement
77. ———— is used for measuring flow of liquids
A. Ammeter
B. Venturimeter
C. Galvanometer
D. Resonance column
78. Wave theory of light was discovered by ——
A. Issac Newton
B. Christian Huygens
C. Maxwell
D. Theodore Miaman
79. A modern digital computer consists of
A. Hardware only
B. Software only
C. Hardware and software
D. Hardware, software and firmware
80. The refractive index for air is
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1.5
81. A red light is used in a traffic signal because
A. It has the longest wavelength and can be easily noticed from a long distance
B. It is beautiful
C. It is visible to people even with bad eye sight
D. None of these
82. Water cannot be used to extinguish fire caused by an electric current because
A. It may cause another short circuit
B. it may cause hydrolysis
C. it may cause electroduction
D. it will spoil the wiring
83. Colour of a light is determined by its
A. intensity
B. amplitude
D. velocity
D. frequency
84. Using a sextant, we can measure the
A. thickness of a paper sheet
B. brightness of a wall at a large distance
C. depth of a mine
D. altitude of the sun
85. If we go to the Himalayas, we feel breathless because
A. it is very cold there
B. the density of air is much less on the hills. So oxygen content in reduced
C. the density of air is high on the hills. This reduces the oxygen content
D. None of these
86. An echo is produced by the ––––– of sound waves
A. refraction
B. reflection
C. absorption
D. diffraction
87. A p-type semi conductor crystal has an excess of
A. Electrons
B. Holes
C. protons
D. none of the above
88. The energy of sun is produced by :
A. oxidation
B. nuclear fission
C. Nuclear fusion
D. Some other source
89. Fish plates are used in railway tracks
A. To avoid tracks being distorted due to temperature fluctuation
B. To control speed of the train
C. to connect two rails
D. to keep the rails equidistant
90. The element used in an electric filament is
A. copper
B. Aluminium
C. iron
D. Tungsten
91. During rusting
A. iron gains weight
B. iron loses weight
C. The weight of iron remains unchanged
D. Iron volatilizes
92. The passenger in a boat are not allowed to stand because
A. this will raise the centre of gravity and the boat will be rocked
B. this will lower centre of gravity and the boat will be rocked
C. the effective weight of system increases
D. of surface tension effects.
93. A fresh egg sinks in pure water but floats in salt water. This is because
A. Saline water is denser than pure water
B. Saline water is lighter than pure water
C. The viscosity of saline water is higher than that of pure water
D. the surface tension of saline water is lower than that of pure water.
94. The planet that has prominent rings around it is
A. Venus
B. Jupiter
C. Mars
D. Saturn
95. For measuring temperature near absolute zero, thermometer used is –––––––
A. Thermo-electric thermometer
B. Radiation thermometer
C. Magnetic thermometer
D. Resistance thermometer
96. Light from the sun reaches us in nearly
A. 200 seconds
B. 300 seconds
C. 500 seconds
D. 400 seconds
97. Which of the following heavenly bodies do not belong to the solar system
A. planets
B. pulsars
C. Comets
D. Asteroids
98. The colour of the ocean appears to be blue because the sun-light falling on it is
A. reflected
B. refracted
C. absorbed
D. scattered
99. Alternating current is converted to direct current by a
A. rectifier
B. oscillator
C. transformer
D. motor
100.Which of the following is not a primary colour?
A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. black
Answers
1 A 2 D 3 C 4 D 5 B 6 B 7 A 8 A 9 A 10 D 11 D 12 C 13 B 14 D 15 B 16 A 17 B 18 C 19 A 20 B 21 C 22 D 23 C 24 B 25 C 26 C 27 D 28 A 29 C 30 B 31 B 32 C 33 C 34 C 35 A 36 C 37 A 38 A 39 B 40 D
41 C 42 A 43 C 44 B 45 B 46 C 47 B 48 B 49 A 50 C 51 C 52 B 53 A 54 A 55 B 56 C 57 B 58 A 59 A 60 A 61 A 62 D 63 D 64 A 65 A 66 B 67 C 68 A 69 B 70 C 71 B 72 B 73 C 74 C 75 D 76 C 77 B 78 B 79 D 80 B 81 A 82 A 83 D 84 D 85 B 86 B 87 B 88 C 89 B 90 D 91 A 92 A 93 A 94 D 95 C 96 C 97 B 98 D 99 A 100 D
A. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation.
B. Light amplified by simultaneous emission of radiation
C. Light amplification by super emission of radiation.
D. None of the above.
2. The energy possessed by the water collected in the reservoir of a dam
A. Kinetic energy
B. Mechanical energy
C. Electric energy
D. Potential energy
3. Laws of electrolysis was given by
A. Arrhenius
B. Bronsted – Lowery
C. Faraday
D. Ostwald
4. The unit of electric charge is
A. Ampere
B. Ohm
C. Volt
D. Coulomb
5. In an electrochemical cell, electrons flow from
A. Cathode to anode
B. Anode to cathode
C. Either cathode or anode
D. None of the above
6. The correct form of Einsteins mass-energy equation is _____
A. E = mc
B. E = mc2
C. M = ec
D. m = Ec2
7. Acceleration due to gravity on the moon is the acceleration 1/6th due to gravity on earth. If a balloon filled with the hydrogen is released on the moon
A. falls with acceleration g/6
B. falls with acceleration less than g/6
C. rises with uniform velocity
D. rises with acceleration less than g/6
8. Which mirror is used as rear view mirror in vehicles
A. convex mirror
B. Concave mirror
C. plane mirror
D. metallic mirror
9. Optical fibres are related with
A. communication
B. light
C. computer
D. None of these
10. Brilliance of diamond is due to
A. shape
B. Cutting
C. reflection
D. total internal refection
11. One can not see through fog because
A. fog absorbs light
B. the refractive index of fog is infinity
C. light suffers total reflection at the droplet in a fog
D. light is scattered by droplets in fog.
12. Golden view of sea shell is due to
A. diffraction
B. dispersion
C. polarization
D. reflection
13. Cyclotron is a device to
A. Accelerate neutrons
B. Accelerate electrons
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
14. If a stationary charge is put inside a magnetic field, then the charge will
A. move in straight line
B. move in circle
C. more in helix
D. remain stationary
15. At the magnetic poles of the earth, a compass needle will be
A. Bent slightly vertical
B. Vertical
C. Horizontal
D. Inclined at 450 to the horizontal
16. When sugar is added to water, the surface tension of sugar solution is
A. More than that of water
B. The same as that of water
C. Less than that of water
D. Uncertain
17. An astronaut can’t hear his companion at the surface of the moon because :
A. Produced frequencies are above the audio frequencies
B. There is no medium for sound propagation
C. Temperature is too during night and too high during day
D. There are too many craters on the surface of the moon
18. The ear phone of a telephone converts
A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
B. Sound energy into electrical energy
C. Electrical energy into sound energy
D. Electrical energy into mechanical energy
19. Earthquake is measured by
A. Seismograph
B. Electroscope
C. Barometer
D. None of these
20. Pitch of a sound depends upon its
A. wave length
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. Overtones
21. Thermopile is used to
A. Measure electric current
B. Measure potential difference
C. Detect the pressure of heat radiation
D. None of the above
22. Rectifier is used for
A. Giving constant current
B. Giving constant voltage
C. Converting DC to AC
D. Converting AC to DC
23. Most of the light rays inside a tube-light is in the form of ____
A. infrared light
B. visible light
C. ultra-violet light
D. Bright light
24. The triode was designed by
A. Edison
B. Le.De.Forest
C. Flemming
D. Richardson
25. Electromagnetic waves transport
A. Electric charge
B. Alternating current
C. Energy
D. Wave length
26. The back side of the stage of an auditorium should be
A. straight
B. elliptic
C. parabolic
D. None of the above
27. Which of the following pairs are not inter-related to each other ?
A. Carat-gold
B. Decibel-sound
C. Horse power-power
D. Ohm-acceleration
28. Thermal state of a body is defined by
A. Temperature
B. Heat
C. Cold
D. None of the above
29. The temperature of the sun can be calculated from
A. Newton’s law of motion
B. Einstein’s law of relativity
C. Wein’s law of displacement
D. Cannot be calculated
30. The a- ray and b- ray in radioactivity was found by
A. Madam Curie
B. Rutherford
C. Becquerel
D. Kaufmann
31. The half life of 14C is
A. 5692 × 1010 years
B. 5692 years
C. 6592 years
D. 6592 ×1010 years
32. A binary digit is called
A. word
B. code
C. bit
D. Digit
33. The force keeping the planets in a regular orbit is
A. Electrostatic
B. Magnetic
C. Gravitational
D. Nuclear
34. Venturi meter is used to measure
A. The mass of the liquid
B. The density of the liquid
C. the rate of flow of the liquid
D. None of the above
35. When a soap bubble is charged, it is found to be
A. increased in size
B. Decreased in size
C. of the same size
D. varing in the size depending on the amount of the charge
36. The scientist who was conferred with all the three national awards : Padma Bhushan, Padma Vibhushan and Bharat Ratna.
A. Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
B. Dr. Raja Ramanna
C. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul kalam
D. Dr. Homi.J.Bhabha
37. A cylindrical lens is required to correct
A. Astigmatism
B. Myopia
C. Presbyopia
D. Hyper metropia
38. Skating on ice is possible because of
A. friction
B. regulation
C. sublimation
D. Evaporation
39. Cathode rays consists of
A. Positively charged particles
B. Negatively charged particles
C. Neutral particles
D. None of the above
40. The number of neutrons in an Uranium atom, 238U92 is
A. 92
B. 238
C. 330
D. 146
41. Germanium is
A. conductor
B. Insulator
C. Semi-conductor
D. Metal
42. Electronics is the study of
A. flow of electrons
B. flow of molecules
C. flow of photons
D. flow of elements
43. The smallest particle of a substance that can exist in free state are
A. Atoms
B. Ions
C. Molecules
D. Electrons
44. With rise in temperature, the resistance of metals
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remains same
D. None of the above
45. The resistance of mercury disappears at
A. 00C
B. below 40K
C. Above 40C
D. 1000C
46. Colour of thin films result from
A. Scattering of light
B. Dispersion of light
C. Interference of light
D. Absorption of light
47. The instrument used for electrolysis is
A. Watt meter
B. Volta meter
C. Volt meter
D. Ammeter
48. Friction can be reduced by changing over from
A. potential to kinetic energy
B. sliding to rolling
C. dynamic to static
D. rolling to sliding
49. If the earth is assumed to be a homogenous sphere and if, some how, it contracts to half its present size, the duration of the day will be
A. 6 hours
B. 12 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 48 hours
50. Which of following statements is incorrect ?
A. The mass of a body is not the same as its weight
B. The mass is a measure of quantity of matter whereas weight is a force
C. The mass of a body varies from place to place but its weight remains constant.
D.In the MKS system, mass is expressed in kilogram and weight in Newton.
51. If a conductor is touched by hand, the charge would leak to
A. body of man
B. only to the hand
C. Earth
D. the charge will not leak
52. Diffusion of light in atmosphere takes place due to
A. Carbondioxide
B. Dust particles
C. Helium
D. Water vapour
53. A plant with green leaves placed in red light will appear
A. Black
B. Green
C. Red
D. Violet
54. A tennis ball will bounce
A. higher on hills than on plains
B. higher on plains than on hills
C. equally on hills and plains
D. higher either on hills or on plains depending upon the ground friction.
55. Name the first Indian Astronaut
A. Kalpana Chawla
B. Rakesh Sharma
C. Kalpana Chaudhari
D. Chokila Iyer
56. The invisible water vapour in the atmosphere is termed as –––––––
A. Smog
B. Dewpoint
C. Humidity
D. Hoar frost
57. Meniscus of mercury in capillary is
A. concave
B. convex
C. plane
D. Cylindrical
58. When there are no external forces, the shape of a liquid drop is determined by
A. surface tension of the liquid
B. density of the liquid
C. Viscosity of the liquid
D. temperature of air only
59. A good lubricant should have
A. high viscosity
B. low viscosity
C. moderate viscosity
D. high density
60. A ring shaped piece of metal is heated. If the material expands, the hole will
A. expand
B. contract
C. expand or contract depending on the width of the ring
D. expand or contract depending on the value of the coefficient of expansion.
61. Solar energy is received by the earth through
A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Refraction
62. Water pipes burst in severe winter at hill stations because
A. They contract on cooling
B. Water in the pipe expands on freezing
C. Water in the pipes contract
D. Pipes expand on cooling.
63. Which waves are used in sonography ?
A. microwaves
B. infra-red rays
C. sound waves
D. ultrasonic waves
64. Velocity of sound in vacuum (in m/s) is
A. 0
B. 340
C. 156
D. 1000
65. Who said, ‘A body will remain at rest unless an external force acts on the body ?
A. Newton
B. Einstein
C. Archimedes
D. Galileo
66. An echo is heard when minimum distance of the reflecting surface is
A. 10 cm
B. 17 m
C. 34 m
D. 340 m
67. When ice metts in a beaker of water, the level of water in the beaker will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. first increase then decrease
68. Unit of power is
A. watt
B. Decibel
C. Ampere
D. Volt
69. Insulators are substances with
A. free electrons
B. Bound electrons
C. (A) & (B)
D. None of the above
70. Which of the following electro magnetic waves are used in telecommunication ?
A. x-rays
B. Infrared
C. Microwaves
D. Ultraviolet
71. The radioactive element which is used for finding the age of fossils is ——
A. 6C12
B. 6C14
C. Radio active nitrogen
D. Radio active oxygen
72. The Indira Gandhi Atomic Research Centre is located in ———
A. Maharastra
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Karnataka
73. The velocity of light is maximum in
A. diamond
B. water
C. vacuum
D. glass
74. In radioactivity, the mass number and the atomic number of a radio active nucleus does not change when it emits
A. An alpha particle
B. A beta particle
C. A gamma ray
D. All the three
75. The unit of electric charge is
A. ampere
B. Ohm
C. volt
D. coulomb
76. The distance traveled by a body in unit time is termed as
A. Velocity
B. Acceleration
C. Speed
D. Displacement
77. ———— is used for measuring flow of liquids
A. Ammeter
B. Venturimeter
C. Galvanometer
D. Resonance column
78. Wave theory of light was discovered by ——
A. Issac Newton
B. Christian Huygens
C. Maxwell
D. Theodore Miaman
79. A modern digital computer consists of
A. Hardware only
B. Software only
C. Hardware and software
D. Hardware, software and firmware
80. The refractive index for air is
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 1.5
81. A red light is used in a traffic signal because
A. It has the longest wavelength and can be easily noticed from a long distance
B. It is beautiful
C. It is visible to people even with bad eye sight
D. None of these
82. Water cannot be used to extinguish fire caused by an electric current because
A. It may cause another short circuit
B. it may cause hydrolysis
C. it may cause electroduction
D. it will spoil the wiring
83. Colour of a light is determined by its
A. intensity
B. amplitude
D. velocity
D. frequency
84. Using a sextant, we can measure the
A. thickness of a paper sheet
B. brightness of a wall at a large distance
C. depth of a mine
D. altitude of the sun
85. If we go to the Himalayas, we feel breathless because
A. it is very cold there
B. the density of air is much less on the hills. So oxygen content in reduced
C. the density of air is high on the hills. This reduces the oxygen content
D. None of these
86. An echo is produced by the ––––– of sound waves
A. refraction
B. reflection
C. absorption
D. diffraction
87. A p-type semi conductor crystal has an excess of
A. Electrons
B. Holes
C. protons
D. none of the above
88. The energy of sun is produced by :
A. oxidation
B. nuclear fission
C. Nuclear fusion
D. Some other source
89. Fish plates are used in railway tracks
A. To avoid tracks being distorted due to temperature fluctuation
B. To control speed of the train
C. to connect two rails
D. to keep the rails equidistant
90. The element used in an electric filament is
A. copper
B. Aluminium
C. iron
D. Tungsten
91. During rusting
A. iron gains weight
B. iron loses weight
C. The weight of iron remains unchanged
D. Iron volatilizes
92. The passenger in a boat are not allowed to stand because
A. this will raise the centre of gravity and the boat will be rocked
B. this will lower centre of gravity and the boat will be rocked
C. the effective weight of system increases
D. of surface tension effects.
93. A fresh egg sinks in pure water but floats in salt water. This is because
A. Saline water is denser than pure water
B. Saline water is lighter than pure water
C. The viscosity of saline water is higher than that of pure water
D. the surface tension of saline water is lower than that of pure water.
94. The planet that has prominent rings around it is
A. Venus
B. Jupiter
C. Mars
D. Saturn
95. For measuring temperature near absolute zero, thermometer used is –––––––
A. Thermo-electric thermometer
B. Radiation thermometer
C. Magnetic thermometer
D. Resistance thermometer
96. Light from the sun reaches us in nearly
A. 200 seconds
B. 300 seconds
C. 500 seconds
D. 400 seconds
97. Which of the following heavenly bodies do not belong to the solar system
A. planets
B. pulsars
C. Comets
D. Asteroids
98. The colour of the ocean appears to be blue because the sun-light falling on it is
A. reflected
B. refracted
C. absorbed
D. scattered
99. Alternating current is converted to direct current by a
A. rectifier
B. oscillator
C. transformer
D. motor
100.Which of the following is not a primary colour?
A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. black
Answers
1 A 2 D 3 C 4 D 5 B 6 B 7 A 8 A 9 A 10 D 11 D 12 C 13 B 14 D 15 B 16 A 17 B 18 C 19 A 20 B 21 C 22 D 23 C 24 B 25 C 26 C 27 D 28 A 29 C 30 B 31 B 32 C 33 C 34 C 35 A 36 C 37 A 38 A 39 B 40 D
41 C 42 A 43 C 44 B 45 B 46 C 47 B 48 B 49 A 50 C 51 C 52 B 53 A 54 A 55 B 56 C 57 B 58 A 59 A 60 A 61 A 62 D 63 D 64 A 65 A 66 B 67 C 68 A 69 B 70 C 71 B 72 B 73 C 74 C 75 D 76 C 77 B 78 B 79 D 80 B 81 A 82 A 83 D 84 D 85 B 86 B 87 B 88 C 89 B 90 D 91 A 92 A 93 A 94 D 95 C 96 C 97 B 98 D 99 A 100 D
CURRENT AFFAIRS MCQs
1. Which among the following has been named the most valuable sports team in the world?
a. The Red Devils
b. Dallas Cowboys
c. New York Yankees
d. Manchester United
2. Patrick Vieira is related with which of the following sports?
a. Cricket
b. Football
c. Hockey
d. Swimming
3. What was the name of NASA’s spacecraft which entered an asteroid’s orbit recently?
a. Dawn
b. Lycosta
c. Vesta
d. Horbid
4. Rowghat, an area of Iron ore minning recently in news is situated in which of the following
state?
a. Jharkhand
b. Orissa
c. Chhatisgarh
d. Karnataka
5. Who among the following was unanimously chosen the next Central Vigilance Commissioner?
a. Yogesh Wadhwa
b. Atul Pratap Singh
c. Nirbhay Sachan
d. Pradeep Kumar
6. Recently which country’s airways have planned to operate aircraft powered by cooking oil?
a. Britain
b. United States
c. Australia
d. Germany
7. Which state recently has launched 24x7 web cast of Chief Minister's offi ce?
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Kerala
c. Himachal Pradesh
d. Bihar
8. GSAT-12 communication satellite placed in geosynchronous orbit, was injected by -
a. PSLV-C15
b. PSLV-C16
c. PSLV-C17
d. PSLV-C18
9. The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully fl ighttested its latest surface-to-surface missile, named-
a. Prahaar
b. Pradyumna
c. Arjuna
d. Bheem
10. U.S. National Hurricane Center is located at
a. Miami
b. New York
c. Washington
d. Chicago
11. Hurricane Dora has recently affected –
a. Indonesia
b. Philippines
c. Japan
d. Mexico
12. China has opened the world’s longest sea bridge. It stretches across –
a. Jiaozhou Bay
b. Shanjhou Bay
c. Yangtze Bay
d. Hangjhou Bay
13. Which country recently has enforced new immigration rules that focus on higher qualifi cation and advance English language skills as requirements for those wanting to migrate to this country?
a. United States
b. Australia
c. Germany
d. Canada
14. Which country’s parliament looked set to approve an exit from nuclear energy by 2022?
a. Germany
b. United States
c. India
d. France
15. Who among the following has taken over as the new Railway Board Chairman?
a. Prakash Sharma
b. Pradeep Roy
c. Vinay Mittal
d. Vijay Narain
16. Petra Kvitova has recently won the 2011 Wimbledon Championships singles title. She belongs
to which countrty?
a. Czech Republic
b. United States
c. Russia
d. Ukraine
17. Which among the following is the fi rst e-hospital in the country?
a. MediAngels
b. MediCures
c. E -Care
d. Regency
18. DRDO laboratory, Advanced Centre for Energetic Materials (ACEM) is established at -
a. Nashik
b. Bengaluru
c. Ahmedabad
d. Hyderabad
19. US is seeking to ban the production of ammonium nitrate used in fertilizers in which of the
following countries?
a. India
b. Pakistan
c. Brazil
d. China
20. Which country recently has announced that it would stop granting work permits to domestic workers from Indonesia and the Philippines, following hiring conditions imposed by the Asian countries?
a. Saudi Arabia
b. France
c. Germany
d. Australia
21. Who among the following is the new coach of Indian Cricket team?
a. Andy Flower
b. Eddo Brandes
c. Duncan Fletcher
d. Heath Streak
22. Where is Mount Kailash located?
a. India
b. Tibet
c. China
e. Nepal
23. The 12th IIFA awards ceremony was held at which of the following place?
a. New York
b. Sun City
c. Goa
d. Toronto
24. Who got the World Food Prize 2011?
a. John A Kufur
b. Lula da Silva
c. Manmohan Singh
d. a and b both
25. Who among the following had coined the term “Biodiversity”?
a. W GRosen
b. Dr Normem Mayers
c. Raymond F.Dasmann
d. Peter Hamilton
26. Who among the following had observed fast for equal rights for Indian prisoners?
a. Bhagat Singh
b. Potti srimalu
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Lala Lajpat Rai
27. Which among the following countries has topped the list of most failed states ?
a. Somalia
b. Sudan
c. Iraq
d. Zimbabwe
28. Indian Institute of Public Management is situated at which place?
a. Hyderabad
b. Shimla
c. Bengaluru
d. New Delhi
29. The National Solar Mission aims at tapping 20,000 mw of solar power by –
a. 2012
b. 2022
c. 2020
d. 2025
30. Khallas: An A to Z guide to Underworld, is written by –
a. Shobha Dey
b. Arundhati Roy
c. Jyotendra Dey
d. Ashutosh Mukherjee
31. Who among the following publishes the magazine 'Rail Bandhu' ?
a. The Pioneer
b. Times Of India
c. Dainik Jagran
d. The Hindu
32. C.K. Naidu Lifetime Achievement award in 2011 has been conferred to -
a. Sachin Tendulkar
b. Salim Durrani
c. Abhimanyu Mithun
d. Sunil Gavaskar
33. Who among the following is known as Dr. Death?
a. James Mandis
b. Notjirker Posch
c. Jack Kevorkian
d. Mac Dinghty
34. Who among the following is the President of Sudan ?
a. Ali Abdullah Saleh
b. Tayyip Erdogen
c. Omar al Bashir
d. Bashar Al Asad
35. Who among the following is known as “Andhra Natyam”?
a. Natraja Ramkrishna
b. Sujata Krishnamurti
c. Radha Swaminatham
d. Krishna Reddy
36. Which is the world’s youngest country?
a. South Sudan
b. North Sudan
c. Serbia
d. Montenegro
37. Which country's explorers recently have found large deposits of the rare earth metal on the
fl oor of the Pacifi c Ocean?
a. China
b. India
c. Japan
d. Indonesia
38. Which country does not have a dedicated court to decide on “green cases”?
a. India
b. Australia
c. New Zealand
d. United States of America
39. What is the rank of India in Global Innovation Index?
a. 29
b. 52
c. 62
d. 78
40. Which Pharmaceutical company has received a warning letter from US health regulator, Food and Drug Administration (FDA) over violation of current good manufacturing practice (GMP) regulations for fi nished pharmaceuticals?
a. Zydus Cadila
b. Cipla
c. GlaxoSmithKline
d. Aventis Pharma
ANSWERS:
a. The Red Devils
b. Dallas Cowboys
c. New York Yankees
d. Manchester United
2. Patrick Vieira is related with which of the following sports?
a. Cricket
b. Football
c. Hockey
d. Swimming
3. What was the name of NASA’s spacecraft which entered an asteroid’s orbit recently?
a. Dawn
b. Lycosta
c. Vesta
d. Horbid
4. Rowghat, an area of Iron ore minning recently in news is situated in which of the following
state?
a. Jharkhand
b. Orissa
c. Chhatisgarh
d. Karnataka
5. Who among the following was unanimously chosen the next Central Vigilance Commissioner?
a. Yogesh Wadhwa
b. Atul Pratap Singh
c. Nirbhay Sachan
d. Pradeep Kumar
6. Recently which country’s airways have planned to operate aircraft powered by cooking oil?
a. Britain
b. United States
c. Australia
d. Germany
7. Which state recently has launched 24x7 web cast of Chief Minister's offi ce?
a. Tamil Nadu
b. Kerala
c. Himachal Pradesh
d. Bihar
8. GSAT-12 communication satellite placed in geosynchronous orbit, was injected by -
a. PSLV-C15
b. PSLV-C16
c. PSLV-C17
d. PSLV-C18
9. The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully fl ighttested its latest surface-to-surface missile, named-
a. Prahaar
b. Pradyumna
c. Arjuna
d. Bheem
10. U.S. National Hurricane Center is located at
a. Miami
b. New York
c. Washington
d. Chicago
11. Hurricane Dora has recently affected –
a. Indonesia
b. Philippines
c. Japan
d. Mexico
12. China has opened the world’s longest sea bridge. It stretches across –
a. Jiaozhou Bay
b. Shanjhou Bay
c. Yangtze Bay
d. Hangjhou Bay
13. Which country recently has enforced new immigration rules that focus on higher qualifi cation and advance English language skills as requirements for those wanting to migrate to this country?
a. United States
b. Australia
c. Germany
d. Canada
14. Which country’s parliament looked set to approve an exit from nuclear energy by 2022?
a. Germany
b. United States
c. India
d. France
15. Who among the following has taken over as the new Railway Board Chairman?
a. Prakash Sharma
b. Pradeep Roy
c. Vinay Mittal
d. Vijay Narain
16. Petra Kvitova has recently won the 2011 Wimbledon Championships singles title. She belongs
to which countrty?
a. Czech Republic
b. United States
c. Russia
d. Ukraine
17. Which among the following is the fi rst e-hospital in the country?
a. MediAngels
b. MediCures
c. E -Care
d. Regency
18. DRDO laboratory, Advanced Centre for Energetic Materials (ACEM) is established at -
a. Nashik
b. Bengaluru
c. Ahmedabad
d. Hyderabad
19. US is seeking to ban the production of ammonium nitrate used in fertilizers in which of the
following countries?
a. India
b. Pakistan
c. Brazil
d. China
20. Which country recently has announced that it would stop granting work permits to domestic workers from Indonesia and the Philippines, following hiring conditions imposed by the Asian countries?
a. Saudi Arabia
b. France
c. Germany
d. Australia
21. Who among the following is the new coach of Indian Cricket team?
a. Andy Flower
b. Eddo Brandes
c. Duncan Fletcher
d. Heath Streak
22. Where is Mount Kailash located?
a. India
b. Tibet
c. China
e. Nepal
23. The 12th IIFA awards ceremony was held at which of the following place?
a. New York
b. Sun City
c. Goa
d. Toronto
24. Who got the World Food Prize 2011?
a. John A Kufur
b. Lula da Silva
c. Manmohan Singh
d. a and b both
25. Who among the following had coined the term “Biodiversity”?
a. W GRosen
b. Dr Normem Mayers
c. Raymond F.Dasmann
d. Peter Hamilton
26. Who among the following had observed fast for equal rights for Indian prisoners?
a. Bhagat Singh
b. Potti srimalu
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Lala Lajpat Rai
27. Which among the following countries has topped the list of most failed states ?
a. Somalia
b. Sudan
c. Iraq
d. Zimbabwe
28. Indian Institute of Public Management is situated at which place?
a. Hyderabad
b. Shimla
c. Bengaluru
d. New Delhi
29. The National Solar Mission aims at tapping 20,000 mw of solar power by –
a. 2012
b. 2022
c. 2020
d. 2025
30. Khallas: An A to Z guide to Underworld, is written by –
a. Shobha Dey
b. Arundhati Roy
c. Jyotendra Dey
d. Ashutosh Mukherjee
31. Who among the following publishes the magazine 'Rail Bandhu' ?
a. The Pioneer
b. Times Of India
c. Dainik Jagran
d. The Hindu
32. C.K. Naidu Lifetime Achievement award in 2011 has been conferred to -
a. Sachin Tendulkar
b. Salim Durrani
c. Abhimanyu Mithun
d. Sunil Gavaskar
33. Who among the following is known as Dr. Death?
a. James Mandis
b. Notjirker Posch
c. Jack Kevorkian
d. Mac Dinghty
34. Who among the following is the President of Sudan ?
a. Ali Abdullah Saleh
b. Tayyip Erdogen
c. Omar al Bashir
d. Bashar Al Asad
35. Who among the following is known as “Andhra Natyam”?
a. Natraja Ramkrishna
b. Sujata Krishnamurti
c. Radha Swaminatham
d. Krishna Reddy
36. Which is the world’s youngest country?
a. South Sudan
b. North Sudan
c. Serbia
d. Montenegro
37. Which country's explorers recently have found large deposits of the rare earth metal on the
fl oor of the Pacifi c Ocean?
a. China
b. India
c. Japan
d. Indonesia
38. Which country does not have a dedicated court to decide on “green cases”?
a. India
b. Australia
c. New Zealand
d. United States of America
39. What is the rank of India in Global Innovation Index?
a. 29
b. 52
c. 62
d. 78
40. Which Pharmaceutical company has received a warning letter from US health regulator, Food and Drug Administration (FDA) over violation of current good manufacturing practice (GMP) regulations for fi nished pharmaceuticals?
a. Zydus Cadila
b. Cipla
c. GlaxoSmithKline
d. Aventis Pharma
ANSWERS:
1. d. Manchester united
2. b Football
3. a Dawn
4. c . Chhatisgarh
5. d . Pradeep kumar
6. a. Britain
7. b. Kerala
8. c. PSLV –C17
9. a. Prahar
10. a. Miami
11. d. Mexico
12. a Jiajhou Bay
13. b.Australia
14. a. Germany
15 .c. Vinay mittal
16. a. Czech Republic
17. a. Medi Angels
18. a. Nasik
19. b.Pakistan
20. a. Saudi Arabia
21. c. Duncan Fletcher
22. b.Tibet
23. d Toranto
24. d. a and b both
25. a. W G Rosen
26. a. Bhagat Singh
27. a. Somalia
28. d. New delhi
29. b. 2022
30. c. Jyotendra dey
31. a. The Pioneer
32. b. Salim durrani
33. c. Jack kevorkian
34. c. Omar al Bashir
35. a. Natraj Ramkrishna
36. a. South sudan
37. c. Japan
38. d. United States
39. c . 62
40 a. Zydus cadila
Wednesday, 19 October 2011
IBSA Trade Ministers meet in Pretoria
In a meeting of the three Trade Ministers from India Brazil and South Africa in Pretoria on 18 October it was decided to hold an annual trilateral meeting of the Trade Ministers from the IBSA members to further enhance the intra- IBSA trade. Commerce and Industry & Textiles Minister, Shri Anand Sharma, offered to host the first annual trilateral meeting in New Delhi in early March 2012. The dates are to be decided through diplomatic channels.
Intra IBSA trade has done very well despite the economic slowdown of 2008 and its aftershocks including the prevailing uncertainties in the Eurozone. The three nation’s trade is already close to USD 20 billion, having crossed in 2009 the target of USD 15 billion set for 2012. India’s trade with its trade partners in IBSA accounts for a majority of this trade. The Leaders at the IBSA Summit felt that the trends indicate that the target of 25 billion USD trade by 2015 will be achieved early, and this gave reasons to be optimistic and more ambitious. The Leaders mandated the Working Group on Trade and Investment to examine all issues related to trade holistically including issues relating to non-tariff barriers, maritime and air links and opportunities for investments. Direct air connectivity is expected to give tourism a major boost and the trade ministers agreed to look at the visa related issues so that the process for business visas is made easy. The three Trade Ministers also interacted with the IBSA Business forum on 17 October 2011.
The Ministers also decided to set up a technical team under the IBSA’s Working Group on Trade and Investment to reconcile the trade data and devise a common reporting format as well as methods for capturing all the data of trilateral trade including those occurring through third countries. Due to different methodologies of capturing trade data (calendar year vs financial year or CIF or FOB) at times the numbers vary.
The South African and Indian trade ministers also decided to enter into long term contracts for purchase of raw materials and commodities, and the recently opened office of MMTC in South Africa has been mandated by Shri Anand Sharma to work on this proposal expeditiously.
The Ministers also felt that with the ratification process of the MERCOSUR SACU FTA advancing, and initiation of the process of deepening of the India MERCOSUR Preferential trade agreement (PTA), the deck is now clear for making progress on a trilateral FTA involving India SACU and MERCOSUR. This FTA linking developing countries in the three continentsis envisaged as one of the most ambitious free trade area and will be a symbol of growing south-south cooperation, said Minister Anand Sharma. His sentiment was shared by his counterparts from Brazil and South Africa and the Brazilian Trade Minister, Mr.Pimental offered to host the second Ministerial meeting of India-SACU- MERCOSUR in June/ July 2012 in Brazil.
The three Ministers also agreed to seek an opportunity to meet before the WTO’s 8th Ministerial conference (MC8- 15-17 December, Geneva) to coordinate their position on all issues relating to the WTO negotiations and to discuss the possible outcomes of MC8 as well as the way forward on Doha Development round.
Intra IBSA trade has done very well despite the economic slowdown of 2008 and its aftershocks including the prevailing uncertainties in the Eurozone. The three nation’s trade is already close to USD 20 billion, having crossed in 2009 the target of USD 15 billion set for 2012. India’s trade with its trade partners in IBSA accounts for a majority of this trade. The Leaders at the IBSA Summit felt that the trends indicate that the target of 25 billion USD trade by 2015 will be achieved early, and this gave reasons to be optimistic and more ambitious. The Leaders mandated the Working Group on Trade and Investment to examine all issues related to trade holistically including issues relating to non-tariff barriers, maritime and air links and opportunities for investments. Direct air connectivity is expected to give tourism a major boost and the trade ministers agreed to look at the visa related issues so that the process for business visas is made easy. The three Trade Ministers also interacted with the IBSA Business forum on 17 October 2011.
The Ministers also decided to set up a technical team under the IBSA’s Working Group on Trade and Investment to reconcile the trade data and devise a common reporting format as well as methods for capturing all the data of trilateral trade including those occurring through third countries. Due to different methodologies of capturing trade data (calendar year vs financial year or CIF or FOB) at times the numbers vary.
The South African and Indian trade ministers also decided to enter into long term contracts for purchase of raw materials and commodities, and the recently opened office of MMTC in South Africa has been mandated by Shri Anand Sharma to work on this proposal expeditiously.
The Ministers also felt that with the ratification process of the MERCOSUR SACU FTA advancing, and initiation of the process of deepening of the India MERCOSUR Preferential trade agreement (PTA), the deck is now clear for making progress on a trilateral FTA involving India SACU and MERCOSUR. This FTA linking developing countries in the three continentsis envisaged as one of the most ambitious free trade area and will be a symbol of growing south-south cooperation, said Minister Anand Sharma. His sentiment was shared by his counterparts from Brazil and South Africa and the Brazilian Trade Minister, Mr.Pimental offered to host the second Ministerial meeting of India-SACU- MERCOSUR in June/ July 2012 in Brazil.
The three Ministers also agreed to seek an opportunity to meet before the WTO’s 8th Ministerial conference (MC8- 15-17 December, Geneva) to coordinate their position on all issues relating to the WTO negotiations and to discuss the possible outcomes of MC8 as well as the way forward on Doha Development round.
India Global Summit on MSMEs 2011- Innovation
The Micro, Small and Medium enterprises sector has a key role cut out in shaping India’s GDP growth in the 12th Plan period. Addressing the two-day, inaugural function of India Global Summit on MSMEs 2011- Innovation: Changing the Indian MSME Landscape here today the Minister of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, Shri Virbhadra Singh said that the MSME Sector has contributed immensely towards the Indian growth story enabling the country to maintain a steady rate of growth even in the face of worldwide economic decline/meltdown. He said that even though adversely affected by the depressing global economic environment especially since 2008, the performance of the Sector has been somewhat consistent.
Elaborating on the achievements of the sector, Shri Virbhadra Singh said the Sector consisting of 26.1 million units, as of today, provides employment to over 60 million persons. The Sector through more than 6,000 products contributes about 8% to GDP besides 45% to the total manufacturing output and 40% to the exports from the country. The Sector is expected to perform an equal important role during the 12th Five Year Plan Period (2012-13 to 2016-17) in enabling the country to achieve the envisaged overall growth rate of 9% during the Plan.
At the India Global Summit on MSMEs, 2011 organized by the Confederation of Indian Industries (CII) with the support of Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, Shri Singh said the summit, has provided a singular opportunity for Indian MSMEs to demonstrate their capabilities to a global audience as well as open up new opportunities for partnerships.
The Minister emphasized that given the current global scenario, the only way that Indian MSMEs can remain competitive is by adopting innovation as a key business strategy. He further added that National Innovation Council has been constituted by the Prime Minister to encourage and promote innovation in every sector of the economy and MSME sector has got a special emphasis under this Innovation Council and a Sectoral Council has been constituted for the MSME sector and has started functioning under the Chairmanship of Secretary (MSME). Stating that the Ministry of MSME is implementing the National Manufacturing Competitiveness Programme (NMCP), he said it includes programmes like establishment of new Tool Rooms, enhancing of product and process quality, cost reduction through lean manufacturing techniques, design clinic, etc. Out of these 10 components, one component i.e. incubator scheme especially cater to the needs of supporting innovative ideas. Shri Virbhadra Singh expressed satisfaction that specific tailor made programmes are also being organized for the skill development of socially disadvantaged groups like OBC, SC, ST, minorities and women.
Shri Virbhadra Singh said the Government has accorded high priority to the MSME sector in key national developmental programmes and assured the gathering that the Ministry will consider and act upon key recommendations made at the summit. Stating that the Government has introduced a whole gamut of schemes to support MSME initiatives, the Minister urged the entrepreneurs to fully leverage the support systems and schemes that have been put in place. Noting that global alliances and partnerships have assumed key significance for MSME growth, he said that his Ministry will continue to encourage Indian MSMEs to participate in international fairs and exhibitions. He said the presence of delegates from 47 countries at the summit was a key milestone in the direction of international MSME cooperation.
The Minister said, the Government has set up a Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro & Small Enterprise (CGFTMSE). Under the scheme, credit facilities extended to micro and small enterprises are guaranteed upto 75% of the amount in the event of a default. The Performance & Credit Rating Scheme of the Ministry is a very unique way of empowering the small enterprises to face internal and global competition. Under this Scheme, financial assistance to the extent of 75% is provided for rating of MSMEs by a third party national or international rating agency. This rating benefits the units in many ways like establishing their creditworthiness, which helps them in accessing quicker and cheaper credit.
Shri Uday Kumar Varma, Secretary, Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises in his special address said the MSME sector is fundamental to India maintaining growth with equity. A significant number of MSMEs are owned by people belonging to the disadvantaged sections of society. For instance, nearly 13% of MSMEs are owned by women entrepreneurs. Hence, the sector forms a key piece of the inclusive growth process. Stating that the MSME sector is at the threshold of big transformation powered by innovations, Shri Varma said the challenge lies in institutionalizing the initiatives that drive innovation. The MSME Innovation Council plays an important role in this, he said. Shri Varma said that while key sectoral challenges like access to easy finance, technology and markets are being addressed; in the 12th Plan period the focus will be on building MSME global competitiveness. He also said that MSMEs will continue to account for 40-50% of the GDP growth, and added that the defence-offset policy has created new growth avenues for the sector.
Elaborating on the achievements of the sector, Shri Virbhadra Singh said the Sector consisting of 26.1 million units, as of today, provides employment to over 60 million persons. The Sector through more than 6,000 products contributes about 8% to GDP besides 45% to the total manufacturing output and 40% to the exports from the country. The Sector is expected to perform an equal important role during the 12th Five Year Plan Period (2012-13 to 2016-17) in enabling the country to achieve the envisaged overall growth rate of 9% during the Plan.
At the India Global Summit on MSMEs, 2011 organized by the Confederation of Indian Industries (CII) with the support of Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, Shri Singh said the summit, has provided a singular opportunity for Indian MSMEs to demonstrate their capabilities to a global audience as well as open up new opportunities for partnerships.
The Minister emphasized that given the current global scenario, the only way that Indian MSMEs can remain competitive is by adopting innovation as a key business strategy. He further added that National Innovation Council has been constituted by the Prime Minister to encourage and promote innovation in every sector of the economy and MSME sector has got a special emphasis under this Innovation Council and a Sectoral Council has been constituted for the MSME sector and has started functioning under the Chairmanship of Secretary (MSME). Stating that the Ministry of MSME is implementing the National Manufacturing Competitiveness Programme (NMCP), he said it includes programmes like establishment of new Tool Rooms, enhancing of product and process quality, cost reduction through lean manufacturing techniques, design clinic, etc. Out of these 10 components, one component i.e. incubator scheme especially cater to the needs of supporting innovative ideas. Shri Virbhadra Singh expressed satisfaction that specific tailor made programmes are also being organized for the skill development of socially disadvantaged groups like OBC, SC, ST, minorities and women.
Shri Virbhadra Singh said the Government has accorded high priority to the MSME sector in key national developmental programmes and assured the gathering that the Ministry will consider and act upon key recommendations made at the summit. Stating that the Government has introduced a whole gamut of schemes to support MSME initiatives, the Minister urged the entrepreneurs to fully leverage the support systems and schemes that have been put in place. Noting that global alliances and partnerships have assumed key significance for MSME growth, he said that his Ministry will continue to encourage Indian MSMEs to participate in international fairs and exhibitions. He said the presence of delegates from 47 countries at the summit was a key milestone in the direction of international MSME cooperation.
The Minister said, the Government has set up a Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro & Small Enterprise (CGFTMSE). Under the scheme, credit facilities extended to micro and small enterprises are guaranteed upto 75% of the amount in the event of a default. The Performance & Credit Rating Scheme of the Ministry is a very unique way of empowering the small enterprises to face internal and global competition. Under this Scheme, financial assistance to the extent of 75% is provided for rating of MSMEs by a third party national or international rating agency. This rating benefits the units in many ways like establishing their creditworthiness, which helps them in accessing quicker and cheaper credit.
Shri Uday Kumar Varma, Secretary, Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises in his special address said the MSME sector is fundamental to India maintaining growth with equity. A significant number of MSMEs are owned by people belonging to the disadvantaged sections of society. For instance, nearly 13% of MSMEs are owned by women entrepreneurs. Hence, the sector forms a key piece of the inclusive growth process. Stating that the MSME sector is at the threshold of big transformation powered by innovations, Shri Varma said the challenge lies in institutionalizing the initiatives that drive innovation. The MSME Innovation Council plays an important role in this, he said. Shri Varma said that while key sectoral challenges like access to easy finance, technology and markets are being addressed; in the 12th Plan period the focus will be on building MSME global competitiveness. He also said that MSMEs will continue to account for 40-50% of the GDP growth, and added that the defence-offset policy has created new growth avenues for the sector.
India Accords Reception to Bangladesh Prime Minister at ‘TIN BIGHA’ Corridor Crossing Point
The Prime Minister of Bangladesh, Smt. Sheikh Hasina, was in the Bangladeshi enclaves of the Dahagram and Angarpota on an official tour today. She crossed ‘Tin Bigha’ Corridor through India into Bangladesh and back through Pathgram area. Since this was for the first time that a Bangladesh Prime Minister was passing through the Indian territory by road, the Government of India decided to give a brief reception to her at the crossing point. The Union Health Minister, Shri Ghulam Nabi Azad, and the Minister of State for Home, Shri Jitendra Singh, accompanied by senior officers of the Ministry of Home Affairs and BSF received her at the Corridor. She was accompanied by about fifty Ministers and Members of Parliament.
She had brief discussion with the Union Health Minister and the Minister of State for Home and said that she was extremely thrilled to be passing through the Corridor through which India has now provided 24-hour access to the people living in the enclaves to the mainland of Bangladesh. She also said that providing 24-hour access to the enclaves has been her dream since 1986 when she was in the opposition. India has now made her dream come true.
She thanked the Government of India for the arrangements made for the people of Bangladesh.
She had brief discussion with the Union Health Minister and the Minister of State for Home and said that she was extremely thrilled to be passing through the Corridor through which India has now provided 24-hour access to the people living in the enclaves to the mainland of Bangladesh. She also said that providing 24-hour access to the enclaves has been her dream since 1986 when she was in the opposition. India has now made her dream come true.
She thanked the Government of India for the arrangements made for the people of Bangladesh.
6 States Report Over 60% Utilisation of Funds Released under Multi-Sectoral Development Programme for the Welfare of Minorities
Jammu & Kashmir has utilised 74.39% of the amount released to it (till September 30, 2011) by the Ministry of Minority Affairs under Multi-sectoral Development Programme (MsDP) for the welfare of Minorities. The Ministry has released Rs. 5.99 crore to it out of which the State has been able to spend Rs. 4.46 crore. This is the highest percentage of expenditure reported by any State/UT under the Programme, which is being implemented in 90 Minority Concentration Districts (MCDs) of 20 States/UTs. Jammu & Kashmir has one MCD under MsDP.
Five other States have reported over 60% expenditure out of the amount released by the Ministry (till September 30, 2011):
1. Orissa: 69.50% (Amount released: Rs. 25.58 crore; utilised: Rs. 17.78 crore);
2. West Bengal: 67.85% (Amount released: Rs. 517.24 crore; utilised: Rs. 350.93 crore);
3. Haryana: 65.69% (Amount released: Rs. 30.47crore; utilised: Rs. 20.02crore);
4. Madhya Pradesh: 65.03% (Amount released: Rs. 13.98 crore; utilised: Rs. 9.09 crore); and
5. Jharkhand: 64.24% (Amount released: Rs. 101.13 crore; utilised: Rs. 64.96 crore).
Performance, with respect to spending the amount released by the Ministry, reported by other States/UTs under this Programme is as follows:
Manipur: 58.44%; Assam: 47.71%; Bihar: 43.76%; Uttar Pradesh: 42.21%; Arunachal Pradesh: 34.78%; Meghalaya: 30.62%; Maharashtra: 29.66%; Karnataka: 23.42%; Mizoram: 21.67%; Uttarakhand: 20.03%; Kerala: 7%; Andaman & Nicobar Islands: 0%; Sikkim: 0% and Delhi: 0%.
Thus the average percentage of the expenditure (till September 30, 2011) for the 20 States/UTs under this Programme is 49.97 %.
Multi-sectoral Development programme (MsDP) for the welfare of the Minorities, being implemented by the Ministry of Minority Affairs, is a Special Area Development Programme.It has been implemented from 2008-09 in 90 Minority Concentration Districts (MCDs) identified on the basis of substantial minority population and relative backwardness in terms of selected socio-economic and basic amenities parameters based on data of 2001 Census. The primary objective of the programme is to improve the backwardness parameters which resulted in the identification of the districts as backward and to bring them at par with the national averages.
Five other States have reported over 60% expenditure out of the amount released by the Ministry (till September 30, 2011):
1. Orissa: 69.50% (Amount released: Rs. 25.58 crore; utilised: Rs. 17.78 crore);
2. West Bengal: 67.85% (Amount released: Rs. 517.24 crore; utilised: Rs. 350.93 crore);
3. Haryana: 65.69% (Amount released: Rs. 30.47crore; utilised: Rs. 20.02crore);
4. Madhya Pradesh: 65.03% (Amount released: Rs. 13.98 crore; utilised: Rs. 9.09 crore); and
5. Jharkhand: 64.24% (Amount released: Rs. 101.13 crore; utilised: Rs. 64.96 crore).
Performance, with respect to spending the amount released by the Ministry, reported by other States/UTs under this Programme is as follows:
Manipur: 58.44%; Assam: 47.71%; Bihar: 43.76%; Uttar Pradesh: 42.21%; Arunachal Pradesh: 34.78%; Meghalaya: 30.62%; Maharashtra: 29.66%; Karnataka: 23.42%; Mizoram: 21.67%; Uttarakhand: 20.03%; Kerala: 7%; Andaman & Nicobar Islands: 0%; Sikkim: 0% and Delhi: 0%.
Thus the average percentage of the expenditure (till September 30, 2011) for the 20 States/UTs under this Programme is 49.97 %.
Multi-sectoral Development programme (MsDP) for the welfare of the Minorities, being implemented by the Ministry of Minority Affairs, is a Special Area Development Programme.It has been implemented from 2008-09 in 90 Minority Concentration Districts (MCDs) identified on the basis of substantial minority population and relative backwardness in terms of selected socio-economic and basic amenities parameters based on data of 2001 Census. The primary objective of the programme is to improve the backwardness parameters which resulted in the identification of the districts as backward and to bring them at par with the national averages.
Tuesday, 18 October 2011
Parliament of India Junior Clerk Selection Procedure
Eligible candidates will have to appear in Written Examination/Typing Test as per the following scheme:
Preliminary examination:
Part-A: General Knowledge & Current Affairs: 50 Marks
Part-B: General English(50 multiple choice objective type questions in each part): 50 Marks
Total Time: 50 minutes
The marks secured by the candidates in this paper will not be counted while preparing the final selection list. Only those candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in each component and aggregate in the Preliminary Examination will be called for the Descriptive Written Paper and Typing Test.
II. Descriptive Written Paper and Typing Test
Paper I: Essay, Letter and Grammar*: 100 Marks: 2hours
Paper II: Typing test at 40 w.p.m. in English/Hindi: 100: 10 minutes
* Essay (50 Marks), Letter (35 Marks) and Grammar (15 Marks)
A candidate will be considered for appointment against the vacancies in that stream (English/Hindi) only in which he qualifies Paper-I (Essay, Letter and Grammar) and Paper-II (Typing Test). The candidates will have to qualify Papers-I and II in the same stream. However, a candidate qualifying the typing test in both English and Hindi streams, will be given preference in appointment against the vacancies in that stream in which he qualifies the Paper I.
The answer scripts of Paper-I of only those candidates will be evaluated who qualify Paper-II (typing test) at the requisite speed of 40 w.p.m. Candidates will have to secure the minimum qualifying marks in Paper-I.
From amongst the candidates who qualify both Papers I and II, selection will be made on the basis of the overall performance of the candidates in Papers-I and II, subject to the availability of vacancies.
Preliminary examination:
Part-A: General Knowledge & Current Affairs: 50 Marks
Part-B: General English(50 multiple choice objective type questions in each part): 50 Marks
Total Time: 50 minutes
The marks secured by the candidates in this paper will not be counted while preparing the final selection list. Only those candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in each component and aggregate in the Preliminary Examination will be called for the Descriptive Written Paper and Typing Test.
II. Descriptive Written Paper and Typing Test
Paper I: Essay, Letter and Grammar*: 100 Marks: 2hours
Paper II: Typing test at 40 w.p.m. in English/Hindi: 100: 10 minutes
* Essay (50 Marks), Letter (35 Marks) and Grammar (15 Marks)
A candidate will be considered for appointment against the vacancies in that stream (English/Hindi) only in which he qualifies Paper-I (Essay, Letter and Grammar) and Paper-II (Typing Test). The candidates will have to qualify Papers-I and II in the same stream. However, a candidate qualifying the typing test in both English and Hindi streams, will be given preference in appointment against the vacancies in that stream in which he qualifies the Paper I.
The answer scripts of Paper-I of only those candidates will be evaluated who qualify Paper-II (typing test) at the requisite speed of 40 w.p.m. Candidates will have to secure the minimum qualifying marks in Paper-I.
From amongst the candidates who qualify both Papers I and II, selection will be made on the basis of the overall performance of the candidates in Papers-I and II, subject to the availability of vacancies.
Madhya Pradesh Grade 2 Teachers Recruitment Exam Pattern and Selection Procedure
SCHEME OF WRITTEN EXAMINATION
The Question paper for Eligibility Test would consists of 150 marks of 2 hrs: 30 mnts
The Total number of questions would be 330 and each correct answer would fetch of 1 mark and there will not be any negative marking.
The paper would consist of Multiple Choice Questions with 4 choices and one would be correct.
STRUCTURE OF THE EXAMINATION
The Question paper for Eligibility Test would consists of 150 marks of 2 hrs: 30 mnts
The Total number of questions would be 330 and each correct answer would fetch of 1 mark and there will not be any negative marking.
The paper would consist of Multiple Choice Questions with 4 choices and one would be correct.
STRUCTURE OF THE EXAMINATION
| Part | Subjects (all compulsory ) | No. of Questions | Total MARKS |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | Child Development & Pedagogy | 30 MCQ | 30 |
| 2 | Language 1 (any one language from Hindi, English, Sanskrit or in Urdu) compulsory | 30 MCQ | 30 |
| 3 | Language 11- any one language from Hindi, English, Sanskrit or in Urdu) compulsory | 30 MCQ | 30 |
| 4 | Mathematics (for Mathematics Teacher ) | 60 MCQ | 60 |
| Science (for Science Teacher) | 60 MCQ | 60 | |
| Social Science (for Social Science Teacher) | 60 MCQ | 60 | |
| Main Language (Any one language from Hindi, English) Sanskrit or Urdu)(for Language Teacher) | 60 MCQ | 60 |
MADHYA PRADESH GRADE-III TEACHERS EXAM PATTERN
Scheme of written examination:
The Question paper for Eligibility Test would consist of 150 marks of 2 hrs: 30 minutes
The Questions would be of 1 marks each and there would be any negative marking.
The paper would consist of Multiple Choice Questions with 4 choices and one would be correct.
THE STRUCTURE AND CONTENT OF EXAMINATION WOULD BE AS GIVEN BELOW:
The Examination will have one question paper consisting of total 150 objective type questions.
Each question will have 4 answers and the candidates will have to select one correct answer. The examinees will have to circle the correct answer with a Black ball point pen.
SELECTION PROCEDURE:
The candidates would be selected on the basis of the written examination and the final merit list prepared by the Madhya Pradesh Professional Examination Board. The merit list would be prepared by Examination Board on the basis of the rules. The results of the Examination would be displayed on theNotice board of the Madhya Pradesh Professional Examination Board, Bhopal and also will be uploaded on the website of the Professional Examination Board website: www.vyapam.nic.in
The Question paper for Eligibility Test would consist of 150 marks of 2 hrs: 30 minutes
The Questions would be of 1 marks each and there would be any negative marking.
The paper would consist of Multiple Choice Questions with 4 choices and one would be correct.
THE STRUCTURE AND CONTENT OF EXAMINATION WOULD BE AS GIVEN BELOW:
| Subjects (all compulsory ) | No. of Questions | Total Marks |
|---|---|---|
| Child Development & Pedagogy | 30 | 30 |
| Language I | 30 | 30 |
| Language II | 30 | 30 |
| Mathematics | 30 | 30 |
| Environmental Studies | 30 | 30 |
| Total | 150 | 150 |
Each question will have 4 answers and the candidates will have to select one correct answer. The examinees will have to circle the correct answer with a Black ball point pen.
SELECTION PROCEDURE:
The candidates would be selected on the basis of the written examination and the final merit list prepared by the Madhya Pradesh Professional Examination Board. The merit list would be prepared by Examination Board on the basis of the rules. The results of the Examination would be displayed on theNotice board of the Madhya Pradesh Professional Examination Board, Bhopal and also will be uploaded on the website of the Professional Examination Board website: www.vyapam.nic.in
UPSC Civil Services Exam – Mains Question Papers
2010 – UPSC Civil Services Exam – Mains Question Papers
- English Essay – Compulsory
- English Language Compulsory
- General Studies – Paper I
- General Studies – Paper II
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Assamese
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Bengali
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Bodo
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Dogri
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Gujarati
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Hindi
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Kannada
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Kashmiri
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Konkani
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Maithili
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Malayalam
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Manipuri
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Marathi
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Nepali
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Oriya
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Punjabi
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Sanskrit
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Santali
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Sindi (Arabic)
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Sindi (Devanagari)
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Tamil
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Telugu
- Indian Languages Compulsory – Urdu
- Optional Subjects – Agriculture – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Agriculture Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Anthropology Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Anthropology Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Botany Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Botany Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Chemistry Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Chemistry Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Civil Engineering Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Civil Engineering Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Commerce and Accountancy Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Commerce and Accountancy Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Economics Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Economics Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Electrical Engineering Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Electrical Engineering Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Geography Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Geography – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Geology – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Geology – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – History – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – History – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Law – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Law – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Management – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Management – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Mathematics – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Mathematics – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Mechanical Engineering – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Mechanical Engineering – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Medical Science – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Medical Science – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Philosophy – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Philosophy – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Physics – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Physics – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Political Science and International Relations – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Political Science and International Relations – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Psychology – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Psychology – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Public Administration – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Public Administration – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Sociology – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Sociology – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Statistics – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Statistics – Paper II
- Optional Subjects – Zoology – Paper I
- Optional Subjects – Zoology – Paper II
- Literature – Arabic – Paper I
- Literature – Arabic – Paper II
- Literature – Assamese – Paper I
- Literature – Assamese – Paper II
- Literature – Bengali – Paper I
- Literature – Bengali – Paper II
- Literature – Bodo – Paper I
- Literature – Bodo – Paper II
- Literature – Dogri – Paper I
- Literature – Dogri – Paper II
- Literature – English – Paper I
- Literature – English – Paper II
- Literature – French – Paper I
- Literature – French – Paper II
- Literature – German – Paper I
- Literature – German – Paper II
- Literature – Gujarati – Paper I
- Literature – Gujarati – Paper II
- Literature – Hindi – Paper I
- Literature – Hindi – Paper II
- Literature – Kannada – Paper I
- Literature – Kannada – Paper II
- Literature – Maithili – Paper I
- Literature – Maithili – Paper II
- Literature – Malayalam – Paper I
- Literature – Malayalam – Paper II
- Literature – Manipuri – Paper I
- Literature – Manipuri – Paper II
- Literature – Marathi – Paper I
- Literature – Marathi – Paper II
- Literature – Oriya – Paper I
- Literature – Oriya – Paper II
- Literature – Pali – Paper I
- Literature – Pali – Paper II
- Literature – Persian – Paper I
- Literature – Persian – Paper II
- Literature – Punjabi – Paper I
- Literature – Punjabi – Paper II
- Literature – Sanskrit – Paper I
- Literature – Sanskrit – Paper II
- Literature – Santali – Paper I
- Literature – Santali – Paper II
- Literature – Sindi (Arabic) – Paper I
- Literature – Sindi (Arabic) – Paper II
- Literature – Sindi (Devanagiri) – Paper I
- Literature – Sindi (Devanagiri) – Paper II
- Literature – Tamil – Paper I
- Literature – Tamil – Paper II
- Literature – Tamil – Paper II
- Literature – Telugu – Paper I
- Literature – Telugu – Paper II
- Literature – Urdu – Paper I
- Literature – Urdu – Paper II
2009 – UPSC Civil Services Exam – Mains Question Papers
- 2009 Mains Literature – Konkani Paper II2009 Civil Services Mains – General Studies Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains – General Studies Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains – Essay Compulsory
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Public Administration Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) - Public Administration Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) - Geography Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) - Geography Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) - History Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – History Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) - Philosophy Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) - Philosophy Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) - Political Science and International Relations Paper I
- 2009 Civli Services Mains (Optional) - Political Science and International Relations – Paper II
- 2009 civil Services Mains (Optional) - Psychology Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) - Psychology Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) - Sociology Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) - Sociology Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) - Agriculture Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) - Agriculture Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) - Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) - Anthropology Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Anthropology Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Botany Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Botany Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Chemistry Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Chemistry Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Civil Engineering Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Civil Engineering Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Commerce and Accountancy Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Commerce and Accountancy Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Economics Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Economics Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Electrical Engineering Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Electrical Engineering Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Geology Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Geology Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Law Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Law Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Management Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Management Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Mathematics Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Mathematics Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Mechanical Engineering Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Mechanical Engineering Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Medical Science Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Medical Science Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Physics Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Physics Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Statistics Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Statistics Paper II
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Zoology Paper I
- 2009 Civil Services Mains (Optional) – Zoology Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Arabic Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Arabic Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Assamese Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Assamese Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Bengali Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Bengali Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Bodo Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Bodo Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Dogri Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Dogri Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – English Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – English Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – French Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – French Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Gujarati Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Gujarati Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Hindi Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Hindi Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Kannada Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Kannada Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Konkani Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Konkani Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Maithili Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Maithili Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Maithili Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Malayalam Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Malayalam Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Manipuri Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Manipuri Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Marathi Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Marathi Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Oriya Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Oriya Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Pali Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Pali Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Persian Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Persian Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Punjabi Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Punjabi Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Sanskrit Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Sanskrit Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Santali Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Santali Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Tamil Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Tamil Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Telugu Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Telugu Paper II
- 2009 Mains Literature – Urdu Paper I
- 2009 Mains Literature – Urdu Paper II
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